Drugs Flashcards

(32 cards)

1
Q

AZT (azidothymidine)

A
  • nucleoside analogue of thymidine
  • anti-viral
  • no free 3’ OH group = chain termination
  • has high affinity for reverse transcriptase
  • Treatment for HIV
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2
Q

Didanosine (ddl)

A
  • nucleoside analogue of adenosine
  • no free 3’ OH group = chain termination
  • high affinity for reverse transcriptase
  • Treatment for HIV
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3
Q

Acyclovir

A
  • nucleoside analogue of guanosine
  • has an open chains instead of a closed pentose sugar ring
  • no free 3’ OH group
  • viral thymidine kinase = 1st phosphorylation
  • Treatment for herpes = only attacks infected cells and does not touch healthy cells because it can only be phosphorylated by viral thymidine kinase which is only in infected cells
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4
Q

Tenofovir

A
  • nucleotide analogue of adenosine monophosphate
  • open chain instead of pentose sugar ring
  • no free 3’ OH group = chain termination
  • treatment for HIV infections
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5
Q

Cytosine arabinoside (araC) aka cytarabine

A
  • nucleoside analogue of cytosine - anti-cancer
  • has 3’OH group, but there is a 2’ OH group too = steric hinderance!
  • chain termination
  • treatment for leukemia [myeloid + lymphoma]
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6
Q

Adenosine Arabinoside (araA) aka vidarabine

A
  • nucleoside analogue of adenosine - anti-caner
  • has 3’OH group, but there is a 2’ OH group too = steric hinderance!
  • chain termination
  • treatment for anti-neoplastic agent, relapsed childhood acute lymphoblastic leukemia and herpes simplex infections
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7
Q

Decitabine

A
  • nucleoside analogue of cytidine - hypomethylation agent
  • removes a methyl group
  • prevent DNA methyltransferase enzymes from methylating cytosine - remember because DNA methylation is an important mechanism of gene regulation euk.
  • important for transcriptional regulation
  • use as a anti-methylator to counteract cancer cells
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8
Q

azacytidine

A
  • nucleoside analogue of cytidine - hypomethylation agent
  • removes a methyl group
  • prevent DNA methyltransferase enzymes from methylating cytosine - remember because DNA methylation is an important mechanism of gene regulation euk.
  • important for transcriptional regulation
  • use as a anti-methylator to counteract cancer cells
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9
Q

Ciprofloxacin (Quinolone type)

A
  • inhibits topoisomerase II (bacterial DNA gyrase)
  • positive supercoils are not unwound
  • treatment of respiratory and urinary tract infections and can also be used to treat anthrax
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10
Q

Camptothecin

A
  • anti-cancer drug
  • binds to and inhibits topoisomerase I = DNA breakage
  • inhibits replication
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11
Q

Etoposide

A
  • anti-cancer drug
  • inhibits the activity of topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) = DNA breakage
  • inhibits replication
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12
Q

Actinomycin D (Dactinomycin)

A
  • binds between G-C bases
  • inhibits replication by prevent ssDNA and inhibiting RNA transcription
  • anti-cancer drug, not normally used as an antibiotic
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13
Q

Rifampin

A
  • Antibiotic
  • from a strain of streptomycin
  • inhibits transcription initiation by blocking the formation of the 1st phosphodiester bond
  • RNA polymerase is not affected
  • treatment for tuberculosis
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14
Q

Amanita Phalloides

A

-produces alpha amanitin which inhibits RNA polymerase II (mRNA)

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15
Q

Novobiocin

A
  • inihibits topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase)

- positive supercoils are not unwound

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16
Q
What do Rotenone
piericidine A (bacterial antibiotic)
barbiturate amytal
do?
A

Inhibit NADH dehydrogenase in Complex I

17
Q
What do CO
Azide
Hydrogen Sulphide (H2S)
Cyanide (CN-)
do?
A

Inhibit cytochrome oxidase (Complex IV)

18
Q

what does Antimycin A (antibiotic) do?

A

Inhibits cytochrome b of cytochrome reductase (Complex III)

19
Q

what does Oligomycin (Streptomyces antibiotic) do?

A

Inhibits ATP synthase (Complex V)

20
Q

what do ETC inhibitors do?

A

decrease ATP synthesis, decrease ETC and oxygen consumption

21
Q

what does Atractyloside
Bongkrekic Acid
do?

A

Inhibits ADP/ATP transport; inhibits function of nucleotide translocase

22
Q
what do DNP (dinitrophenol)
ASA (aspirin)
Thermogenin
Ionophores
do?
A

Destroy the protein gradient

23
Q

what do Ionophores
• Gramicidin = channel formers
• Valinomycin = mobile carrier
do?

A

Make inner mitochondrial membrane permeable to compounds that can’t usually cross (small molecules now can get through)

24
Q

what do uncouplers do?

A

decrease ATP synthesis, increase ETC, increase oxygen consumption

25
what do uncouplers and ionophores do?
allow for dissipation of the proton gradient
26
Streptomycin
Family of antibiotics with aminoglycoside structure | Prevents assembly of ribosome by binding to 30S subunit
27
Tetracycline
Family of antibiotics with four (tetra) ring (cyclic) structure Blocks elongation by binding to 30S subunit and blocking the access of the aminoacyl-tRNA access to the A-site on the mRNA-ribosomal complex
28
Erythromycin (clindamycin)
Family of antibiotics and has macrolide structure | Binds to the 50S subunit of the complete 70S ribosome of bacteria and blocks ribosome translocation
29
Chloramphenicol
nhibits peptidyl transferase activity May inhibit mitochondrial translation Not broadly used because potential to develop decrease WBC Important in some cases – some meningitis conditions
30
Cycloheximide
``` Inhibits peptidyl transferase activity May inhibit mitochondrial translation Toxic to eukaryotes Prokaryotes and mitochondria not affected Important experimental tool (cheap) ```
31
Puromycin
Analog of aminoacyl-tRNA Toxic to both prokaryotes and eukaryotes translation It’s a chain terminator in protein synthesis
32
Diphtheria toxin
C. diphtheria + bacterial virus Causes diphtheria – lethal disease of respiratory tract The A fragment of the toxin catalyzes the ADP-ribosylation of EF-2 = inhibiting translocation in eukaryotes