E145 Cont. Qual. Lessons Flashcards
(143 cards)
1
Q
List all the electrical power sources
A
4 engine driven DC generators
1 APU driven DC generator
2 Nicad batteries
1 Lead backup battery
2
Q
What does pressing the GASPER button on the overhead panel do?
A
Turns the gasper fan on and off. This is the fan that pushes air to the over seat vents. You can only turn it on & off in flight. On the ground it is auto on whenever DC Bus 2 is energized.
3
Q
What does pressing the RECIRC button on the overhead panel do?
A
Turns the Re-circulation fans (both of them) on or off. The Recirc fans recirculate air from the cabin through the packs.
4
Q
What is the Cabin Differential? What is the normal [Green] Range?
A
The pressure difference between the cabin interior & the outside measured in PSI. Green is 0.0 to 7.9 PSI
5
Q
On the ground with the throttles in the THRUST SET position, the cabin pressure lowers to 0.2 psi below the takeoff altitude. Why?
A
To avoid cabin pressure bumps. These pressure bumps would normally occur due to the irregular airflow on the fuselage during rotation & takeoff.
6
Q
What descent condition would cause the cabin descent rate to increase to a greater than normal rate?
A
A greater than 2000 feet per minute descent.
7
Q
When does the automatic cabin depressurization sequence start?
A
When the aircraft is on the ground & the thrust levers are IDLE.
8
Q
What does the automatic cabin depressurization sequence lower the cabin altitude to on landing? Why?
A
300 feet below the selected landing altitude. Reduces cabin bump during landing as well as reducing cabin bump when the Air Con is turned off or the main door is opened.
9
Q
What does TCS stand for? What does it do?
A
Touch Control Steering. Temporarily inhibits autopilot operations. When the TCS button is released, the autopilot resumes control of the aircraft.
10
Q
What are the limitations that apply only to CAT II ILS approaches?
A
Minimum MDA: 100 ft. Minimum altitude: 80 ft. Max tailwind: 10 kts. Max crosswind: 15 kts. Must be performed Flaps 22
11
Q
If doing a CAT II ILS and the approach plate shows “ RA 80’ “, what do you round the RA setting up to?
A
Round the RA setting up to 85’
12
Q
What is the primary electrical system for the E145? What is the other electrical system?
A
Main: 28 Volt DC
Inverter provides AC to limited components
13
Q
How is AC power supplied?
A
An inverter that converts 28 Volt DC electrical power into 115 Volt AC.
14
Q
What systems use AC power?
A
TCAS
GPWS
PWS
15
Q
The APU has a 28 V DC 400 Ampere starter generator. What does it do?
A
It functions as a starter during the APU start but then becomes a generator after the APU is up and running.
16
Q
What can power the APU for a start?
A
External power,
Battery 2 or,
Battery 2 w/assistance from the main generators
17
Q
How many times should you attempt a generator reset?
A
Only once.
18
Q
Where does the 115 V AC inverter get its power from?
A
DC BUS 1
19
Q
What does the Central DC Bus do?
A
Can connect the left side (Gen 1 & 3) to the right side (Gen 2 & 4) in case of a generator failure (or loss of generator due to engine shut down). It is also where the GPU and/or APU Gen connect to the system.
20
Q
Where does the APU connect to the electrical system?
A
The Central DC Bus
21
Q
Where does the GPU connect to the electrical system?
A
The Central DC Bus
22
Q
You’re at the gate, #1 engine is off, #2 on, and they just hooked up the GPU. What happens to the Generators when you push the GPU button.
A
Generator 2 & 4 (on the running engine) will disconnect from DC Bus 2 as the GPU always has the priority.
23
Q
What does the top of the Electrical Distribution System diagram look like?
A
Three Buses across the top each connected (L to R: DC Bus 1, Central DC Bus, DC Bus 2). Gen 1 & 3 are connected to DC Bus 1, The APU Gen & GPU are connected to the Central DC Bus, Gen 2 & 4 are connected to DC Bus 2.
24
Q
You’ve shut down the #1 engine and the #2 engine is on. What are the Shed Buses doing?
A
With just 2 generators, Shed DC BUS 1 and Shed DC Bus 2 will be disconnected.
25
Describe the Shed Buses with regard to the Electrical Distribution System diagram.
Shed DC Bus 1 is in the bottom left corner, Shed DC Bus 2 the bottom right. Shed DC Bus 1 is connected via a long vertical line to DC Bus 1. Shed DC Bus 2 is connected to DC Bus 2 via a long vertical line.
26
Why do we have the Shed Buses Selector Knob in OVRD on the ground?
After pushing from the gate, before engine start, the APU Generator is the only electrical power source. Putting the switch to OVRD allows the Shed buses to be powered. In the AUTO position, they would be disconnected.
27
We've pushed from the gate, and only the APU is running. How does power get to Shed DC Bus 1? Shed DC Bus 2?
With the Shed Buses Selector Knob in OVRD, power goes from the APU Gen, to the Central DC Bus, to DC Bus 1, to Shed DC Bus 1. APU Gen, to the Central DC Bus, to DC Bus 2, to Shed DC Bus 2.
28
On the ground, all of the DC buses are energized if AT LEAST one of the following conditions occurs:
1) At least 3 generators are on OR
2) GPU connected and on OR
3) One generator on (usually APU) and the Shed Buses Selector Knob set to OVRD
29
You shut down an engine in flight. Why don't you have taxi lights? How could you get them back?
The taxi lights are attached to Shed DC Bus 2, and the Shed Buses are disconnected with only 2 generators running. You could start the APU and with 3 generators running, the Shed Buses will automatically be reconnected to the system.
30
What is the pneumatic system used for?
Ice Protection
Air Conditioning
Pressurization
Engine Starting
31
What is the normal condition for the 14th stage bleed valve (High Stage Valve - HSV)?
Closed, except for low thrust settings or anti-ice operations when it will open.
32
The APU provides pneumatic air to which side of the pneumatic system?
The Left Side
33
What does the pneumatic cross bleed valve do during engine start?
It will automatically open to select the available pneumatic source, either the APU, ground air or the opposite engine.
34
If you have the XBLEED knob in the AUTO position when will the crossbleed valve open?
It will open ONLY during engine start.
35
How many fuel pumps are in the collector box of each wing? Are they all running during normal operation?
Three. No, during normal operations, only 1 pump operates at a time.
36
What happens when a fuel pump fails? Where can you observe this?
The 2 remaining pumps will cycle on and off until you select one. You can see it bouncing between the letters A, B & C at the bottom of each tank display on the Fuel Page.
37
Can you have the fuel XFEED knob on during takeoff? What about landing?
NO and NO
38
When do you get a FUEL IMBALANCE on the EICAS? When does it go away?
800 lbs. 100 lbs.
39
When will the fuel quantity in each tank change to AMBER on the display?
880 lbs.
40
What are the indications of a good fire system test?
```
ENG 1-2 FIRE
APU FIRE
ENG 1-2 FIRE DET FAIL
APU FIRE DET FAIL
Fire handles illuminate
BAGG EXT illuminates
Master Warning (red) & Caution (yellow) illuminate
Aural fire bell sounds
```
41
What do you need to know about the fire system test button and the APU?
If the fire system test button is pressed for more than 10 seconds while on the ground, the APU will shut down.
42
What will happen on the ground if an APU fire is detected? In flight?
The APU will automatically shut down if a fire is detected for longer than 10 seconds. It will not shut down in flight.
43
When do you get an audible "Landing Gear" warning?
Landing Gear Up and one of the following:
Flaps 0, 9 or 22, RadAlt < 1200', 1 Thrust Lever < 59 degrees & the other < 45 (or shut down) =OR=
Flaps 45 at any altitude with any throttle position
44
Which HYD system provides pressure for landing gear actuation?
HYD 1 system.
45
Why would you press the Steering Disengage Button on the yoke while trying to steer with the Steering Handle on the CA side?
If the rudder is jammed offset for landing, the Steering Disengage button can be used to keep the nose wheel centered, and the Steering Handle can also be used at the same time to control the aircraft.
46
What systems are on Shed DC Bus 1?
```
Cockpit Re-circulation
Nose Landing Lights
Music
Pre-Recorded Announcements (PRA)
Reading Lights/Attendant Call 1
```
47
What systems are on Shed DC Bus 2?
```
Cabin Re-circulation
Flashlight
Galley Coffee Maker Power
Reading Lights/Attendant Call 2/3
Taxi Lights
Windshield Heating 2
```
48
What does the Re-circulation System do and why?
Re-circulates cabin air with fresh bleed air from the engine. The Re-Circulation System is usually operated to save the engine blee.
49
How many gear proximity switches are there & where are they?
5 prox switches. 2 on each main gear (4 total) and 1 on the nose gear.
50
What 2 systems are tied to the nosewheel proximity switches?
Nosewheel Steering & Thrust Reversers
51
What's the difference between how the main and nose gear doors are actuated?
The Main Gear Doors are mechanically actuated. The Nose Gear Doors are hydraulically actuated.
52
What are the 3 ways to get down the landing gear?
The normal landing gear lever
The electrical override switch near the FO's foot
The free fall handle by the FO's foot
53
On landing, brakes are inhibited until when?
50 kts wheel spin-up OR 3 seconds after touchdown
54
Below what wheel speed is anti-skid protection deactivated?
10 knots
55
The APU is isolated from the rest of the aircraft by what?
A titanium firewall
56
What is the maximum altitude for APU use?
30,000 feet for APU start
| 37,000 feet for APU operation once started
57
Where is the intake for the APU?
It's that mesh screen sticking out of the high right side of the tailcone.
58
There are 2 scoops facing forward on the bottom of the tailcone. What does the left one do? What does the right one do?
Left: Cooling air for the APU generator comes in here
Right: Cooling air for the APU COMPARTMENT comes in here
59
There is scoop on the bottom right side of the tailcone. What is it for & where does it exhaust?
Cooling air for the APU COMPARTMENT comes in here & exhausts with the APU exhaust from the hole at the very end of the tail.
60
There is scoop on the bottom left side of the tailcone. What is it for & where does it exhaust?
Cooling air for the APU generator comes in here & exhausts from an identical shaped aft facing scoop just under the screened APU intake.
61
Name the Primary Flight Controls & how they are driven:
Ailerons: Hydraulic
Rudder: Hydraulic
Elevator: Mechanical
62
Name the Secondary Flight Controls & how they are driven:
Spoilers: Hydraulic
Flaps: Electrical
Horizontal Stabilizer: Electrical
63
Which flight control systems have a mechanical backup?
The Rudder & Ailerons are both hydraulically driven, but have a mechanical backup.
64
What do those big red T-handles in front of the throttles just behind the FMS do?
The left is attached to the elevators.
The right is attached to the ailerons.
If one side of the elevators or ailerons gets stuck (say the right elevator gets stuck) it disconnects them so that the other may move (the left elevator would be able to move).
65
During takeoff, what does using Flaps 22 instead of Flaps 9 get you?
Flaps 22 will get the jet airborne in a shorter distance (less runway) BUT your climb out angle will be shallower AND due to increased drag will not have as good of Single Engine climb performance.
66
Which flaps setting gets you a steeper descent angle for approach?
Flaps 45 is steeper than Flaps 22.
67
How many spoilers are there & when do they open?
4 spoilers (2 on each wing near the wing root)
All 4 can open on the ground
Only the 2 outboard spoilers open in flight
68
Moving the speedbrake handle does what in flight?
Opens the two outboard spoilers near the wing root.
69
How does elevator trim work?
It electrically moves the entire Horizontal Stabilizer up and down.
70
If you have to switch to mechanical control of the ailerons, what is the max speed you should stay below?
250 KIAS
71
Your left aileron is jammed, so pull the aileron disconnect T-handle. What must you determine?
The pilot with the movable control wheel will be come the pilot flying.
72
What does the elevator have to help with movement? What does it provide?
A servo tab, mechanically linked to move in the opposite direction of the elevator.
Provides the same amount of control force at higher speeds, but deflects the control surface a lesser amount, so a/c response will be the same.
73
What kind of tabs do the elevators use?
Both spring AND servo tabs.
74
How does the gust lock "lock" the elevators?
With "pins" that come out of the vertical stab.
75
When does Rudder 1 (the forward part of the rudder) shut down?
Airspeeds > 135 kts.
76
What are the conditions that will cause a rudder shutdown?
If all of the following are met simultaneously:
Rudder deflected above 5 deg +/- 1 deg
Force above 130 lbs on the pedal
Both engines running above 56%
77
Their are 2 taxi lights on the nose gear. Why?
One light projects a narrow beam & the other light projects a wide beam.
78
There is a Courtesy Lights knob above the FA's jump seat. Describe the positions:
OFF: All courtesy lights off
AUTO: The courtesy lights are off when the Cabin Door is closed & on when it is open.
ON: The courtesy lights are on when the Cabin Door is open & on the light above the main door stays on when the Cabin Door is closed.
79
What are the sources of oxygen in the aircraft?
Crew O2 consists of a gaseous-type that is delivered under pressure.
Cabin O2 consists of chemical generators that provide diluted oxygen for a limited time.
80
When do the masks pop down in the cabin?
A cabin altitude of 14,000 feet.
81
How low does the crew oxygen cylinder pressure have to get to trigger an EICAS warning?
400 psi = "OXYGEN LO PRESS"
82
How long is the O2 in the PBE good for?
15 minutes
83
What are the three positions of the PASSENGER OXYGEN switch & what do they do?
Closed: Disables automatic deployment of the masks
Auto: The masks drop if the cabin altitude is > 14 K
Manual: Drops the masks from the ceiling
84
Where is the PASSENGER OXYGEN switch for setting the passenger oxygen logic?
Near the FO's right knee.
85
If the button near the Passenger Oxygen switch is illuminated with a white ON indication, what does this mean?
The oxygen masks have dropped from the ceiling.
86
How do you know the passenger oxygen masks have dropped from the ceiling?
The button near the Passenger Oxygen switch is illuminated with a white ON indication
87
Which systems are serviced ONLY by the HYD 1 system?
```
Landing Gear
Steering
Outboard Wheel Brakes
Thrust Reverser 1
Inboard Spoilers
```
88
Which systems are serviced ONLY by the HYD 2 system?
Inboard Wheel Brakes
Emergency/Parking Brake
Thrust Reverser 2
Outboard Spoilers
89
Which systems are serviced by BOTH the HYD 1 and HYD 2 system?
Ailerons
| Rudder
90
What does the priority valve in the Hydraulic System do?
HYD 1 has a priority valve that closes ONLY during landing gear operation. This gives isolates the landing gear system & gives priority to the flight controls.
91
What is the fastest way to find which systems are powered by HYD 1 vs HYD 2?
The systems are printed on the Hydraulic overhead panel.
92
What is the scale range of the little pointer on the Hydraulic system page for system 1 & 2?
All the way to the right: 6 liters
Half way: 3 liters
Top of Amber Band: 1 liter
93
Which parts of the a/c receive electrical heating?
Windshields
Pitot/Static Sensors
Lavatory Drain
Potable Water Service Nipples
94
Which parts of the a/c receive bleed air heating?
Wing leading edges
Horizontal Stab leading edges
Engine Inlets
95
What is special about the design of the Ice Protection overhead panel?
The top row of switches are all heated with Bleed Air
| The bottom row of switches are all heated with Electrical power
96
When ice is detected, what happens with the Stall Protection System?
The ice detection system tells the SPS to provide stall warning at a lower AOA.
ie SPS/ICE SPEEDS
97
If the Ice Detection Override switch is in the ENG position, will the wing & horizontal stabs heat up?
Only if an icing condition is detected at or above 25 knots ground speed.
98
If you're on the ground with the anti-knob in ALL will the stabs & wings heat up?
Only if the wheel speed is at or above 25 knots ground speed.
99
What is the difference between getting a landing gear warning at Flaps 9 and getting one at Flaps 22.
With both Flaps 9 or 22 you get the "Landing Gear" voice message if you are RadAlt < 1200', 1 Thrust Lever < 59 degrees & the other < 45 (or shut down). But with Flaps 9 you can shut off the voice message if you press the Landing Gear Warning Cutout Button. You cannot cancel the voice message in Flaps 22.
100
Can you cancel the voice message "Landing Gear" if you are Flaps 45 & landing gear up?
No.
101
Can you cancel the voice message "Landing Gear" if you are Flaps 9 & landing gear up?
Yes.
102
Why would you ever want to press the Landing Gear Warning Cutout Button?
If the RadAlt fails, the "Landing Gear" voice message may be activated at any altitude. So if you want to go Flaps 9 with the gear up early in the approach, you'll want to press that button to cancel the voice message.
103
What's the difference between GPWS & EGPWS
While GPWS uses RadAlt & Descent rate to generate a warning, EGPWS combines that with GPS position & world data base to be more predictive. With GPWS you could theoretically fly into a cliff face. You shouldn't with EGPWS.
104
What are the 7 things that would cause the GPWS (not EGPWS) to alert?
1) Excessive descent rate
2) Excessive closure rate to terrain
3) Altitude loss after takeoff
4) Insufficient terrain clearance
5) Excessive deviation below the glideslope beam
6) Callouts
7) Windshear
105
What are 2 alerts that EGPWS can announce that GPWS doesn't?
Terrain Awareness Alerting & Warning
| Terrain Clearance Floor
106
When do you get a "GLIDESLOPE" voice alert?
Soft (low volume): > 1.3 dots below glideslope
| Hard (high volume): < 300 ft RA & > 2 dots below
107
GPWS Mode 6 is for callouts. What are the "callouts"?
"500", "200", "100"
| "Approaching Minimums", "Minimums"
108
When do you get the "Approach Minimums" voice message? What system generates it?
80 feet above the selected height
| The GPWS
109
When will you get a "500" foot callout on approach?
Only if ONE or more of the following:
ILS is NOT tuned or available
ILS is tuned but you're more than 2 dots off
A back course approach is detected
110
What callouts do you get on a normal ILS approach?
"200", "100", "Approaching Minimums", "Minimums"
| You will NOT get a "500" foot callout.
111
What kind of engine does the E145 have? How much thrust for each engine? How much for both?
Rolls-Royce AE3007A1 turbofan
7,426 lbs at sea level
14,852 lbs for both
112
What is the difference between N1 & N2?
N1 is the single set of blades you see at the front, it is the "free spool", is not gear driven.
N2 is the "driven spool" & is mechanically connected to the Accessory Gear Box.
113
Describe N1
N1 is the single set of blades you see at the front, it is the "free spool", is not gear driven, but is driven by CORE exhaust passing through the 3 stage Low Power Turbine (LPT) at the very back end.
114
Describe N2
N2 is the 14 stage compressor section driven by a 2 stage High Power Turbine (HPT), which in turn is driven by exhaust from the combustion chambers. N2 is connected to the Accessory Gear Box.
115
When are the combustion igniters on?
Usually only during engine start, and usually off the rest of the time (unless commanded on by switch).
116
For the AE3007A1, which thrust modes are selectable?
T/O-1, ALT T/O-1, CON, CLB, CRZ
117
What is the capacity of the oil TANK for each engine?
12 quarts. The left engine SYSTEM can hold up to 13 quarts & the right engine SYSTEM can hold up to 14.
118
What conditions must be present for the thrust reversers to deploy?
Both main gear on ground with wheel speed > 25 kts
=OR=
Both main gear & the nose gear on the ground
119
Where can you see if the thrust reversers have delpoyed?
You will see REV next to the box that shows the digital read out for N1 (just above the little dial indicators).
120
How can you get only 1 thrust reverser to deploy?
If one engine is shut down & its thrust level is at IDLE, if you put the operating engine to reverse you will get that reverser to deploy.
121
IF the thrust reverser DID deploy in flight, what will the FADEC do?
The FADEC will automatically select IDLE thrust.
122
What powers the engine igniters?
The Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA) & only the PMA.
123
What temperatures are displayed inside the jet on the MFD?
Static Air Temperature (SAT) & Total Air Temperature (TAT). By definition Outside Air Temperature comes from the ATIS & thus cannot be computed & displayed by the jet.
124
What's the thing on the pedestal that allows you to directly tune in Comm 2 & Nav 2?
Tuning Backup Control Head (TBCH)
125
When will the flight director go into Windshear Escape Guidance mode?
1) Manually, by pressing the go-around button while a windshear is detected
2) Automatically when in Go-Around or Takeoff Mode & a windshear is detected
3) Automatically when Thrust Lever Angle is > 78 degrees & decreasing performance is detected
126
How do you know you're in the Windshear Escape Guidance mode?
WDSHEAR in red in the top left of the PFD
127
When do the "moose ears" / "rake of death" turn amber? red?
Amber when the remaining margin is 5 and 2 degrees
| Red when the remaining margin is < 2 degrees
128
How do you know you got a Resolution Advisory on the TCAS?
You got a Red box symbol
129
When do you get an arrow next to a TCAS target?
Vertical rate (climb or dive) of GREATER than 500 feet per minute.
130
When does a TCAS target change from a open blue diamond to a filled in blue diamond?
With in 6.5 nm laterally AND 1200 feet vertically
131
When does a TCAS target turn into a yellow ciricle?
When conflict is predicted to occur in 35 to 45 seconds.
132
What is the primary TCAS guidance tool during a Resolution Advisory?
The vertical speed indicator on the PFD.
133
When does a TCAS target turn into a Red Box?
When conflict is predicted to occur in 20 to 30 seconds.
134
When you put the WX radar in the standby mode, what does the antenna do?
Stows in a tilt-up position.
135
If one radar knob is in SBY & the other is in WX, is the radar on or off?
On. Both knobs must be in Standby for the radar to go into that mode.
136
You're on the runway & you want to look up off the departure end with the radar to see if there are any rain cells in those clouds before you take off. How do you do this?
With weight on wheels, you are in the forced stand-by mode (FSBY). If you hit the STAB button 4 times in 3 seconds, you override FSBY & go into whatever mode the radar knob is in (CAUTION: You are now XMITing)
137
Is the radar zero degree reference point relative to the ground or the nose of the aircraft?
The radar is ground stabilized & references the horizon directly below the aircraft.
138
What conditions are used to to describe an airplane upset?
Pitch > 25 degrees nose up
Pitch > 10 degrees nose down
Bank > 45 degrees
OR... inside of the above but at an airspeed inappropriate for the conditions.
139
What is Load Factor?
Lift divided by Weight.
140
Rudders on modern jet transport aircraft are usually designed & sized for what?
To counter yawing moments associated with an engine failure at very low takeoff speeds.
141
What are 2 things you can do while taxing during winter conditions to improve safety.
Use both engines during taxi.
| Allow greater than normal distances between aircraft.
142
How far should you avoid heavy echos on the radar by?
At least 20 miles.
143
You're AHRS isn't aligning after a normal start up. What can you try?
Go to the NAV 3/3 page (ie 3rd page). Press the UPDATE SENS key. This will send the current FMS best computed position to inertial (ground-only) sensors.
