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Inman Domain 1 > Education, Communication and Technology > Flashcards

Education, Communication and Technology Flashcards

1
Q

What is multicultural awareness?

A

evaluating our own beliefs and attitudes and become comfortable with differences between our customs and those of our clients

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2
Q

What can ineffective communication lead to?

A

incorrect diagnoses and non compliance with treatment

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3
Q

When being multiculturally aware what are 3 things that should be considered?

A
  1. assume differences until similarities are proven
  2. emphasize description rather than interpretation of evaluation
  3. avoid stereotyping
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4
Q

What are 5 ways that cultural communication styles differ?

A
  1. voice: rate, pitch, and volume
  2. eye contact: direct gaze or avert eyes as a sign of respect
  3. expression: restrained, emotional focus
  4. speech: slow and soft, loud and fast
  5. greetings: handshake firm, mild
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5
Q

What is often the cause of confusion and misinterpretation?

A

gestures, facial expressions, and postures

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6
Q

___ posture is a sign of respect

A

good posture

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7
Q

list the zones that describe spacial relationships.

A
  1. intimate zone: less than 18”; very close friends, business handshakes
  2. personal zone: 18”-4’; when giving instructions or working closely
  3. social zone: 4-12’; most business interaction
  4. public zone: greater than 12’; very formal interaction
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8
Q

what is the distance and relationship of the intimate zone?

A

less than 18”; very close friends, business handshakes

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9
Q

what is the distance and relationship of the personal zone?

A

18”-4’; when giving instructions or working closely

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10
Q

what is the distance and relationship of the social zone?

A

4-12’; most business interaction

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11
Q

what is the distance and relationship of the public zone?

A

greater than 12’; very formal interaction

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12
Q

What should you do when working with clients with limited english skills?

A

Use common terms and avoid slang, acronyms, and shorthand. use short, simple sentences

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13
Q

Should you always speak directly to the clients?

A

YES

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14
Q

what is pedagogy?

A

art and science of teaching; teachers are authority figures

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15
Q

In pedagogy, how are teachers viewed?

A

authority figures

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16
Q

What is andragogy?

A

adults are mutual partners in learning, more problem-centered than subject centered, motivation is more internal than external, self-directed learner

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17
Q

In andragogy, how are adults viewed in learning?

A

mutual partners in learning

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18
Q

Is andragogy more problem or subject centered?

A

problem

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19
Q

In andragogy, is motivation more external or internal?

A

internal

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20
Q

what is the learner like in adragogy?

A

self directed

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21
Q

How do middle and upper income adults consider activities they cant relate to?

A

a waste of time; they are goal-oriented

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22
Q

what do lower income adults’ interests focus on

A

costs and traditional food habits; oriented toward present and towards solving current problems

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23
Q

very poor are ___ planners

A

very short term

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24
Q

when working with adolescents consider ___ and ___

A

peer pressure; attitudes toward authority

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25
Q

how can you connect with adolescents

A

relate to their interests

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26
Q

elderly have a ___ attention span

A

decreased

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27
Q

what is needed to maintain interest when working with elderly

A

audience participation; control questions to stay on topic

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28
Q

elderly prefer what type of material

A

written

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29
Q

goals and objectives are based on ___

A

assessment of client knowledge

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30
Q

what are educational goals

A

goals set in accordance with the process of learning

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31
Q

what must educational goals be based on

A

previous learning and the characteristics fo the group being instructed

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32
Q

what do objectives in patient centered counseling include

A
  • increased awareness of diet-related risks
  • provide nutrition knowledge
  • enhance skills to promote long term changes in intake
  • increase confidence for making dietary changes
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33
Q

how should objectives be written

A

what is is (action), who it is (target), when or time frame, measure of outcome; specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, time bound

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34
Q

what is consonance

A

a fit between the program and the expected outcomes based on the objectives

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35
Q

what are the steps in content development and evaluation

A

a. evaluate information available and match it to objectives
b. organize into logical sequence
c. develop lesson plan
d. evaluate what you have developed

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36
Q

what is a lesson plan

A

written summary of info about a unit of instruction

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37
Q

what are 3 things you need to do in a lesson plan?

A
  1. describe all aspects of instruction; include plans for reassessment
  2. include objectives, content, sequence, activities, time allotted
  3. provide references, method of evaluation
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38
Q

what does instructional media selected depend upon?

A
  1. the teaching goals
  2. the size of the audience
  3. the physical facility equipment and time available
  4. the learning style of the audience
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39
Q

what are different types of instructional media

A
  • posters, slides, movies (assist in oral instruction)

- computers, programmed instruction materials (substitute for instructors)

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40
Q

___ instruction materials are used to learn purely cognitive material; leave instructor more time to develop effective and psychomotor learning

A

computers and programmed instruction materials

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41
Q

___ is closely linked to planning

A

budget; all expenses must be accounted for

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42
Q

what must be considered when developing the budget

A
  • project funding
  • expenditures to date
  • current estimates costs to complete the project
  • anticipated profit or loss
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43
Q

what do periodic budget reviews help to control?

A

resources and adhere to the planning schedule

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44
Q

what is program promotion

A

informs and educates consumers about the existence of a product or service

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45
Q

what are tools in program promotion

A
  • advertising
  • sales promotion
  • personal promotion
  • public relations
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46
Q

what is advertising?

A

purchases print or electronic media; targeted message to carefully defined audience

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47
Q

what is sales promotion?

A

short term incentives to encourage purchases (coupons)

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48
Q

what is personal promotion?

A

formal/informal presentations, health fairs, cooking demos, media interview; direct contact provides positive feedback

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49
Q

what are public relations

A

publicity; organized effort to promoter a favorable image through news coverage

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50
Q

what are the three domains of learning?

A
  1. cognitive
  2. affective
  3. psychomotor
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51
Q

what is cognitive learning

A

aquisition of knowlege or subject matter

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52
Q

what is affective knowledge?

A

aquisition of attitudes and values

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53
Q

what is psychomotor learning

A

aquisition of muscular skills (exercise, food prep)

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54
Q

**what is bloom’s taxonomy?

A

hierarchy of learning; objectives at lower level must be mastered before complex learning can take place; is the level of learning appropriate based on the goups prior knowledge

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55
Q

what is design procedure used for

A

used to plan theory-based nutrition education

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56
Q

what are the six steps of design procedure?

A
  1. decide behavior change goals
  2. explore determinants of change
  3. select the theory you will use
  4. indicate general objectives
  5. generate plans
  6. develop education plan
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57
Q

what are behavior modification strategies based on?

A

a cause-and-effect explanation of behavior

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58
Q

what can behavior modification therapy focus on?

A
  • the cues
  • the behavior itself
  • the consequences of the behavior
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59
Q

what is an antecedent in terms of behavior modification?

A

an event or environment that triggers a specific behavior or response (tv commercial advertising food)

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60
Q

what are 3 behavior modification methods?

A
  1. positive reinforcement
  2. avoidance learning
  3. extinction
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61
Q

what is positive reinforcement

A

encourages repetition of a given behavior; should be specific and immediate; meaningful attention from superiors

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62
Q

what is avoidance learning?

A

learn to escape from unpleasant consequences; avoid future criticism by improving future performance

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63
Q

what is extinction?

A

reduces undesired behavior; absence of reinforcement following undesired behavior (ignore)–>if extinction is repeated, behavior will eventually disappear

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64
Q

what is the transtheoretical stages of change model

A

behavior involves series of stages; determine stage to assess readiness to change

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65
Q

what are the stages in the transtheoretical stages of change model?

A
  1. precontemplation
  2. contemplation
  3. preparation
  4. action
  5. maintenance
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66
Q

what is involved in the precontemplation stage of the transtheoretical stages of change model

A

unaware or not interested in making a change; “i did not know salt had any affect on my blood pressure”

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67
Q

what is involved in the contemplation stage of the transtheoretical stages of change model

A

thinking about making a change; “i was looking at the salt contents in the foods i have at home”

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68
Q

what is involved in the preparation stage of the transtheoretical stages of change model

A

decides to change and plans to change; “i bought a cookbook on low salt cooking”

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69
Q

what is involved in the action stage of the transtheoretical stages of change model

A

tries to make the change; “i removed the salt shaker from the kitchen table”

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70
Q

what is involved in the maintenance stage of the transtheoretical stages of change model

A

sustains the change for six months or longer; “i found a website that helps me plan family low sodium meals”

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71
Q

in the transtheoretical stages of change model, tailoring the intervention to their ___ is more effective

A

stage of change

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72
Q

why was the health belief model developed?

A

developed to explain why people, especially high risk people, fail to participate in programs designed to detect or prevent disease;

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73
Q

what is the health belief model?

A

a person must perceive the severity and their susceptibility to the threat for the threat to be a behavior-motivating factor

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74
Q

what are the components of the health belief model?

A
  1. perceived susceptibility; obesity puts me at risk for heart disease
  2. perceived impact; heart disease will impede my ability to work
  3. perceived advantage of change; greater mobility
  4. appraisal of barriers; i don’t like to exercise
  5. self-efficacy; I can join the gym clise to work
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75
Q

what is self-efficacy?

A

conviction that you can successfully execute the behavior required to produce the outcomes

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76
Q

what is diffusion of motivation?

A

how an innovation, an idea, or a behavior spreads; intervention should be tailored to where they are in this process

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77
Q

what are the categories of diffuse motivation that people fall into?

A
  1. innovators; adopt an idea readily usually without input from others
  2. early adopters; opinion leaders in the community; will-respected
  3. early majority; cautious in adopting a new idea
  4. late majority; skeptical, adopt an idea only through peer pressure
  5. laggards; last to adopt the idea
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78
Q

describe the early adopters category of diffuse motivation

A

opinion leaders in the community; will-respected

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79
Q

describe the early majority category of diffuse motivation

A

cautious in adopting a new idea

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80
Q

describe the late majority category of diffuse motivation

A

skeptical, adopt an idea only through peer pressure

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81
Q

describe the laggards category of diffuse motivation

A

last to adopt the idea

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82
Q

what are the components of diffuse motivation

A
  1. knowledge
  2. persuasion
  3. decision
  4. confirmation
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83
Q

motivation ___ transition to new behaviors; key is ___ and ___

A

eases; success; support

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84
Q

what are some principles of communication

A

motivation; success and support

  • emphasize human factors such as feelings, anxieties, and concerns
  • involve the learner in an active way (greatest retention)
  • establish rapport
  • instruct: prepare, present, try, follow up
  • discuss problems descriptively
  • offer alternatives
  • problem-oriented
  • empathetic
  • message should be clear, complete, concise, concrete, and correct
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85
Q

what is clarification

A

pose a question after an ambiguous client message; used to make previous message explicit

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86
Q

what is active or reflective listening?

A

paraphrase or repeat back what was just said

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87
Q

in reflective listening, focus on ___ rather than on own personal reactions

A

thoughts and feelings of others

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88
Q

reflective listening involves absorbing ___ and responding to the person’s ___

A

what is being said; concerns

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89
Q

a ___ acknowledges that there was a reason for a behavior, indicating that the response from the client was legitimate

A

legitimation statement; “you have a right to feel upset, anybody would”

90
Q

a legitimation statement acknowledges that ___

A

there was a reason for a behavior, indicating that the response from the client was legitimate

91
Q

what is feedback

A

info client gives back to you as you are discussing and questioning; lets you know what he knows and what he understands about what you are saying

92
Q

describe good qualities for an environment when teaching

A
  • psychological: openness, encourage questions, informal, supportive
  • physical: comfortable temperature, lighting, chairs; maintain eye contact; free from outside noise
  • confidentiality: must be respected
93
Q

the method of instruction is based on ___

A
  • the siaze of the group

- the educational and motivational aspects of the group’s members

94
Q

the discussion method of teaching helps learners master ___

A

higher-level cognitive objectives

95
Q

describe small group discussion

A

some lecture plus interaction; beneficial in the clinical setting teacher needs to remain in control; 3-5 people with similar needs; learn from each other

96
Q

in what setting is small group discussion beneficial

A

clinical setting

97
Q

how many people should be in a small group discussion

A

3-5

98
Q

what is a large-group lecture

A

one way flow of information; presents a large amount of material in a short time

99
Q

what is group process or group dynamics?1

A

skills to develop a group leader;

  • relieve social concerns
  • tolerate silence
  • guide and encourage interactions
  • know when and how to resume control
  • reinforce “multi-sided” nature of conversation
  • halt side convos by engaging the distractors
  • help group stay on topic
  • negotiating techniques
  • synergy
100
Q

what are negotiating techniques

A
  • plan strategy in advance; know what you are willing to accept
  • don’t start with the hard issues; be direct, clear, calm, patient, and tolerant
101
Q

what is synergy

A

the groups product (decision) is superior to what the most resourceful individual within the group could have produced by working alone

102
Q

interviewing requires strong ___ and ___ skills

A

listening and verbal communication

103
Q

what are the steps for interviewing

A

preparation

  1. establish rapport
  2. collect data
  3. closing
104
Q

describe the preparation step of interviewing

A

collect background information- age, weight, height,diet history and establish objectives for collecting info during the interview. CLEARLY DEFINE THE PURPOSE

105
Q

describe the collect-data step of interviewing

A

use open-ended, non-judgmental questions

106
Q

what are open ended questions

A

broad, gives freedom in responding; gives you a chance to listen and observe takes more time but less threatening

107
Q

what are closed questions

A

more restrictive; limits answers gives you control; less time

108
Q

what are primary questions

A

introduces new topics

109
Q

what are secondary questions

A

follow up; obtain more info

110
Q

what are neutral questions

A

preferred; do not reveal your bias

111
Q

what are leading questions

A

reveals your bias

112
Q

what is a funnel sequence

A

begin with broad open questions and process to more restrictive ones

113
Q

describe the closing step of interviewing

A

summarize for the client to check accuracy; tell client what will be done with info; when he will be contacted for teaching

114
Q

what are 3 forms of nonverbal communication

A
  1. kinesics - physical communication
  2. paralinguistics - how the client’s message is delivered
  3. proxemics - personal space
115
Q

what is kinesics

A

physical communication;

  • direct eye-contact- attentiveness
  • lowering eyes, look away - preoccupation
  • arms folded across chest - dislike, avoidance
  • clenched fists - anxiety, anger,
  • crossing and uncrossing legs - anxiety
116
Q

what might direct eye contact mean?

A

attentiveness

117
Q

what might lowering eyes, looking away mean?

A

preoccupation

118
Q

what might arms folded across chest contact mean?

A

dislike, avoidance

119
Q

what might clenched fists mean?

A

anxiety, anger

120
Q

what might crossing and uncrossing legs mean?

A

anxiety

121
Q

what is paralinguistic

A

how the client’s message is delivered;

  • hesitations, stuttering: sensitivity, anxiety
  • whispering: difficulty in disclosing
122
Q

what might hesitations, stuttering mean?

A

sensitivity, anxiety

123
Q

what might whispering mean

A

difficulty in disclosing information

124
Q

what is proxemics

A

personal space;

  • moves away: discomfort
  • moves closer: seeking more interaction
  • sits behind or next to an object: seeks protection
125
Q

what might moving away mean

A

discomfort

126
Q

what might moves closer mean

A

seeking more interaction

127
Q

what might sitting behind or next ot an object mean

A

seeks protection

128
Q

what is the ethical principle of autonomy?

A

respect other’s right to self-determine a course of action or support of independent decision making

129
Q

**What are 5 possible counselor’s responses to a client?

A
  1. evaluation
  2. hostile
  3. reassuring
  4. probing
  5. understanding
130
Q

**Describe the evaluation response to a client.

A

make judgement about persons feelings, leads to offering of advice, not problem-solving, seldom helpful “if you eat too much ice cream, i suggest you stop buying ice cream”

131
Q

**Describe the hostile response to a client.

A

uncontrolled anger; may antagonize or humiliate client “maybe you are not losing weight because you are not trying hard enough”

132
Q

**Describe the reassuring response to a client.

A

may make it difficult to solve the client’s problem or discuss it further. client is prevented from working through feelings “don’t worry about making changes…it just takes time”

133
Q

**Describe the probing response to a client.

A

attempt to clarify or gain more information; “can you tell me more about that”

134
Q

**Describe the understanding response to a client.

A

one of the best ways to respond, try to recreate the persons message in your own frame of reference. may lead to more client cooperation, helps client feel accepted and safe in expressing their feelings “you seem to be saying that you are feeling…”

135
Q

What is cognitive behavior theory?

A

focuses on identifying behaviors and thoughts that have a negative impact on desired behaviors and goals and apply strategies to change those

136
Q

what does motivational interviewing help clients do?

A

recognize and begin to resolve their concerns and problems

137
Q

what is the goal of motivational interviewing?

A

to increase motivation so that clients are able to express the rational for the changes that need to be made; people make behavioral changes only when they are ready

138
Q

expressing empathy suggests what to the client

A

acceptance

139
Q

what should you do with resistance

A

roll with it; acknowledge reluctance to change and ambivalence; offer new information or alternatives to consider

140
Q

how can you support self efficacy

A

reinforce hope and optimism

141
Q

what does client autonomy mean in motivational interviewing

A

decisions are left to the client even though you may have different opinions

142
Q

what are 3 methods of communication?

A
  1. written
  2. oral
  3. media activities
143
Q

written communication is more ___ and ___

A

formal; authoritative

144
Q

written communication is interpreted more ___ and used when ___ is requires

A

accurately; record

145
Q

**Keep reading level of materials around the ___ grade for general population and the ___ grade for audiences of lower literacy.

A

8th; 6th

146
Q

what is the SMOG index

A

a procedure for determining readability; gives grade level; finds the average number of polysyllabic words

147
Q

what are examples of written communication

A

emails, pamphlets, posters, handouts

148
Q

oral communication is more ___ and encourages ___ communication

A

personal; two-way

149
Q

what is the most critical barrier of oral communication

A

poor listening skills

150
Q

what is the benefit of developing media partnerships with local tv and radio stations

A

extends reach to audiences that maybe out of reach due to financial reasons

151
Q

if using the media to introduce a campaign to the community , develop ___ to serve as focus

A

2-4 key messages

152
Q

how can you sustain ongoing media relationships

A

offer to serve as a resource for a few key reporters who cover food or health issues

153
Q

which step(s) should be evaluated in the educational process (assessment, planning. implementation and evaluation of outcomes)

A

EACH step

154
Q

**What are the 2 types of evaluation of educational outcomes?

A
  1. formative

2. summative

155
Q

**What is formative evaluation?

A

made during the course of education

a. helps pinpoint parts mastered and parts not mastered
b. allows for revision of plans, methods
c. answers “how should we do it?”
d. client must be involved
e. frequent feedback guides the rest of the educational process

156
Q

**Should the client be involved in formative evaluation?

A

yes, they must be; ex. focus group, pre-test

157
Q

**What is summative evaluation?

A

designed at planning stage but conducted at end ex post test

a. considered final
b. did we achieve what we planned?
c. have client perform a task using new information

158
Q

**Summative evaluation is considered ___

A

final; purpose may be grading or evaluation of progress

159
Q

when are evaluation strategies developed

A

once objectives are established

160
Q

what is are two kinds of formal evaluation

A
  • objective test: not well suited for clinic or community setting
  • performance test: client asked to complete task based on learning objectives
161
Q

is an objective test suited for clinic setting? community?

A

no

162
Q

what is a performance test?

A

client is asked to complete task based on learning objectives

163
Q

is an objective test formal or informal?

A

formal

164
Q

is a performance test formal or informal?

A

formal

165
Q

what is informal evaluation?

A

unstructured observation of food selection and behaviors

166
Q

what are 6 questions that can be asked to evaluate the effectiveness of educational plans?

A
  1. did it alter patient knowledge, behavior, or attitude?
  2. what is rate of lapse or relapse?
  3. timeliness, appropriateness, accuracy? within budget?
  4. meet specific targeted needs? quality of presentation?
  5. were processes and outcomes documented?
  6. what was the degree of growth?
167
Q

___ of employee education and training is essential

A

documentation

168
Q

documentation of employee ___ and ___ is essential

A

education and training

169
Q

for employees, use ___ checklist; note ___ and ___ of training

A

orientation; date; content

170
Q

what is nutritional informatics

A

the intersection between nutrition, information, and technology; use of technology in spreading information

171
Q

what are electronic health records

A

EHR or electronic medical record (EMR); enter, store, retrieve and manage information related to health care

172
Q

What is a personal health record

A

PHR; used by consumer to maintain health information

173
Q

what is HIPAA

A

maintains privacy of personal health information (PHI)

174
Q

must a patient be notified if their medical information is to be shared outside of the care process, or if protected information (address, email, income) is to be shared?

A

yes

175
Q

what is the patient centered medical home?

A

PCMH; focuses on the relationship between the patient and their personal physician; the physician takes responsibility for all aspects of the health care for the patient and coordinated and communicates with other providers as needed

176
Q

in PCMH, is specialty care is needed, who is responsible for ensuring that the transition is seamless

A

the physician

177
Q

what are telehealth services?

A

use of electronic information and technologies to support long-distance clinical health care, patient and professional education, public health administration, remote patient face-to-face services, via live video conferencing, store and forward telecommunication services which can then be retrieved by another site for clinical evaluation

178
Q

what are home telehealth services?

A

check on symptoms and measure vital signs in the home

179
Q

what is reimbursement like for telehealth services

A

it varies among payers; each payer determines the current procedural terminology (CPT) codes they will recognize for reimbursement

180
Q

what does health coaching use?

A

uses behavior change models and motivational interviewing (MI); often involves some form of telehealth

181
Q

what is telenutrition?

A

rdn uses electronic information and technologies to implement the NCP with clients at remote location within provisions of their state license as applicable. Medicare part B allows some services provided by RDNs to be offered via telehealth including MNT and diabetes self management training

182
Q

___ allows some services provided by RDNs to be offered via telehealth including MNT and diabetes self management training.

A

Medicare part B

183
Q

what tracks nutrition care outcomes and advances evidence-based nutrition practice research

A

academy of nutrition and dietetics health informatics infrastructure (ANDHII)

184
Q

what aggregates anonymous data available for outcomes research?

A

dietetics outcomes registry (DOR)

185
Q

what is altmetrics?

A

presentation of amount of activity from twitter, facebook, science blogs, mainstream news and other sources over time

186
Q

what is the a major usda national nutrient database for standard reference source of?

A

food composition

187
Q

what is a major source of food composition?

A

usda national nutrient database for standard reference

188
Q

what is the food and nutrient database for dietary studies (FNDDS) used for?

A

analyze data from dietary surveys

189
Q

what does the FDA total diet study database have data on?

A

foods minerals and chemical

190
Q

who is in control of the dietary supplements database

A

nih

191
Q

what are 4 food and nutrient analysis software and databases?

A
  1. usda national nutrient database for standard reference
  2. food and nutrient database for dietary studies (FNDDS)
  3. FDA total diet study database
  4. dietary supplements database
192
Q

what are some food and nutrition management software designed for institutional use

A
  1. computrition
  2. CBORD
  3. dietary manager
  4. chefmax
193
Q

the ___ branch may introduce and enact a law and can override a veto by the ___ branch

A

legislative (congress, senators, representatives); executive

194
Q

the ___ branch may veto legislation or sign it into law

A

executive (president)

195
Q

the ___ may discard a law if it considers it in violation of a person’s basic rights and freedoms

A

judicial

196
Q

what are the 7 stages of a bill becoming a law

A
  1. legislation enters as a bill or resolution
  2. bill is sent to committees which schedule public hearings (nutritionists can present views here or in earlier planning stages)
  3. committee revises the bill and put in final form, if approved sent to rule committee for debate
  4. need approval from bith houses and the president
  5. differences between the two houses worked out in joint house-senate conference committee passing a reconciliation bill
  6. appropriations bill passed for funding
  7. regulations formulated that interpret and operate the law
197
Q

a ___ regulation interprets a law and provides details and rules that put the policy into effect; carries the force of a law but is easier to change

A

federal

198
Q

___ are written by staff members of agencies charged with enforcing them

A

regulations

199
Q

regulation are written by ___

A

staff members of agencies charged with enforcing them

200
Q

who is the FTC and what to they regulate/enforce?

A

federal trade commission; regulate content of food ads; enforces truth-in-labeling; challenge product claims when product crosses state lines

201
Q

who regulates content of food ads; enforces truth-in-labeling; challenges product claims when product crosses state lines

A

federal trade commission

202
Q

who is the FDA and what so they do?

A

food and drug administration; ensures safety of some domestic and imported food products

203
Q

who ensures safety of some domestic and imported food products

A

FDA

204
Q

who is the FCC and what do they do?

A

federal communications commission; licenses radio and TV

205
Q

who licenses radio and TV

A

FCC

206
Q

what is the federal register?

A

notices of public hearings, proposed and final rules, agency decisions, published weeklys lists changes in USDA food programs

207
Q

what give notices of public hearings, proposed and final rules, agency decisions, published weeklys lists changes in USDA food programs

A

federal register

208
Q

what is the congressional record?

A

information from floor, NO HEARINGS, lists bill with sponsors and action, issued daily when congress is in session

209
Q

what gives information from floor, NO HEARINGS, lists bill with sponsors and action, issued daily when congress is in session

A

congressional record

210
Q

what is the congressional index?

A

weekly update; identifies bill with sponsor and committee

211
Q

what gives weekly update; identifies bill with sponsor and committee

A

congressional index

212
Q

what is advocacy?

A

aggressive form of action; plead cause of a group

  • know facts and arguments for and against the issue
  • be realistic-usually results in compromise
  • lobbying
213
Q

what is lobbying?

A

activities aimed at influencing public officials and legislators

214
Q

what includes activities aimed at influencing public officials and legislators

A

lobbying

215
Q

that is Child Nutrition Reauthorization?

A

covers NSLP, SBP, CACFP, SFSP, SMP, WIC

216
Q

the ___ covers national and international nutrition education, research, and funding

A

The Farm Bill

217
Q

the ___ funds nutrition programs in the community and those that are homebound

A

The Older Americans Act

218
Q

**Which of the counselor’s responses makes judgement about persons feelings, leads to offering of advice, not problem-solving, seldom helpful?

A

Evaluation

219
Q

**Which of the counselor’s responses uncontrolled anger; may antagonize or humiliate client?

A

Hostile

220
Q

**Which of the counselor’s responses may make it difficult to solve the client’s problem or discuss it further. client is prevented from working through feelings?

A

Reassuring

221
Q

**Which of the counselor’s responses attempt to clarify or gain more information?

A

Probing

222
Q

**Which of the counselor’s responses is one of the best ways to respond, try to recreate the persons message in your own frame of reference. may lead to more client cooperation, helps client feel accepted and safe in expressing their feelings?

A

Understanding

Inman Domain 1 (4 decks)

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