EM extras Flashcards

1
Q

what is the heart score used for?

A

ED scoring system that predicts likelihood of a person to have a major adverse cardiac event when the patient presents with chest pain

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2
Q

heart score system

A

Hx
highly suspicious 2
Moderately suspicious 1
slightly or non suspicious 0

ECG
significant ST depression 2
nonspecific repol disturbance 1
normal 0

Age
> 65 yr 2
45-65 1
<45 0

risk factors
>3 risk factors or hx of atherosclerotic dz 2
1 or 2 risk factors 1
no risk factors 0

troponin- one time*
>3x normal limit 2
1-3x normal limit 1
< normal limit 0

low risk 0-3 (1.7%)
moderate risk 4-6 (16.6%)
high risk 7-10 (50.1%)

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3
Q

life threatening differentials of chest pain (6)

A
PETMAC
Pulmonary embolism
esophageal rupture
tension pneumo
MI
aortic dissection
cardiac tamponade
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4
Q

some differentials of chest pain (not as emergent)

A
Gastroesophageal Reflux
Herpes Zoster
Thoracic Root Compression
Panic Disorder
Aortic Stenosis
Mediastinal Mass
Biliary Disease
Costochondritis
Pneumonia
Rib Fracture
Pleurisy
Pneumothorax
Pericarditis
Lung Cancer
Pneumomediastinum
Splenic Infarction
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5
Q

most predictive signs of ACS? (4)

A

vomiting, diaphoresis, dyspnea, and radiation to both arms

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6
Q

all the lab tests automatically ordered for chest pain?

A
IV
EKG
cardiac monitoring
chest x-ray
CBC
BMP/CMP 
troponin
\+/- lipase
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7
Q

what meds do we give chest pt patients?

A

1) . aspirin 324 mg PO
2) . nitro 0.4ml SL every 5 mins up to 3 doses
3) . analgesia
4) . O2 if needed

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8
Q

treatment of STEMI

A

PCI is preferred

  • CABG if occlusion >3 vessels, L main coronary occlusion, or low ejection fraction
  • thrombolytic therapy if cant transfer pt to a PCI facility within 90 mins
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9
Q

what ED anticoagulation is used for pts with STEMI or NSTEMI

A

unfractionated heparin

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10
Q

aortic dissection symptoms (6)

A
tearing/ripping chest pain radiating to back pain
dec peripheral pulses
HTN
new murmur (aortic regurg)
neuro deficits
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11
Q

how to diagnose aortic dissection?

A

chest pain workup plus CTA chest

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12
Q

tx of aortic dissection

A

urgent surgery (unless distal dissection without complications- then medical management)

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13
Q

what are the ED goals for HR and BP (aortic dissection)? what meds to use?

A
HR- less than 60BPM
-- esmolol
BP- systolic BP 100-120 
-- nicardipine
**helps decrease shearing force on aorta
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14
Q

what triad is seen with cardiac tamponade?

A

beck’s:
muffled heart sounds +
increased jugular venous pressure +
hypotension +

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15
Q

signs and symptoms of cardiac tamponade?

A

dyspnea, fatigue, peripheral edema, shock

BECK’s TRIAD

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16
Q

how to diagnose and treat cardiac tamponade?

A

dx: beside US
tx: pericardiocentesis and then surgery

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17
Q

what is ACS?

A

acute plaque rupture and coronary artery occlusion causing myocardial ischemia

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18
Q

women, DM, and elderly patients might present with these ACS symptoms

A

weakness, abdominal pain, jaw pain, or dyspnea WITHOUT chest pain

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19
Q

ACS: ischemic EKG vs elevated troponin tells you what?

A

ischemic EKG = STEMI

high trop = NSTEMI

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20
Q

ACS EKG changes

A

STEMI- ST elevation

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21
Q

what are the two categories of mental status that can be altered?

A

1). content of consciousness- ORIENTATION
Or
2). level of consciousness- AROUSAL

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22
Q

types of orientation AMS and what are they?

A

confusion- alteration in content
delirium- acute alteration in content
dementia- chronic alteration in content

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23
Q

types of arousal AMS

A

sleepy, lethargic, obtunded, unconscious/coma

GCS

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24
Q

“red flag” high risk HA symptoms

A

AMS, seizures, fever, neuro symptoms, visual changes, neck stiffness, papilledema

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25
Q

Primary vs secondary brain injury (plus types)

A

primary- immediate and permanent damage to brain tissue by a traumatic event
*skull laceration, fractures, contusions, cerebral lacerations, ICH
secondary- response to initial mechanical trauma (maybe preventable and reversible)
*increased ICP, hypotension, hypoxia, hypothermia, electrolyte probs

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26
Q

signs and symptoms of epiglottitis?

A

Hot potato voice, respiratory distress, cherry red epiglottis (gentle visualization of epiglottis)

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27
Q

how to diagnose epiglottitis?

A

looking (GENTLY) or lateral neck film in extension and during inspiration

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28
Q

epiglottitis treatment?

A

1) . humidified O2, airway supplies, IV access
2) . Call ENT
3) . start empiric ABX (ceftriaxone)
4) . admit to ICU for ABX and airway management

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29
Q

presentation of tension pneumothorax?

A
  • tracheal and great vessels deviation from affected side
  • hyperresonance of affected side
  • distended neck veins
  • unequal breath sounds
  • dyspnea
  • tachycardic
  • hypotensive
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30
Q

how to diagnose pneumothorax?

A

clinical diagnosis but can use US to confirm after decompression! see the barcode sign instead of the seashore

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31
Q

how to treat tension pneumothorax?

A

immediate needle decompression and chest tube placement plus

admit

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32
Q

treatment of small pneumothorax (15- 20% collapse)

A

if patient is stable then give O2 and observe. repeat CXR in 6 hours. If not getting worse, they can go home & be checked on

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33
Q

treatment for large pneumothorax?

A

chest tube placement and admit

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34
Q

hemothorax treatment

A

put a chest tube in and drain the blood, admit

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35
Q

CXR signs of a spontaneous pneumothorax?

A

1) . loss of lung markings in the periphery

2) . pleural line runs parallel to the chest wall (deep sulcus sign/deep lateral costophrenic angle)

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36
Q

difference between tension pneumo and cardiac tamponade on PE?

A

cardiac tamponade will have BILATERAL breath sounds present (TP will also have hyper resonance on percussion)

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37
Q

EKG sign of cardiac tamponade?

A

electrical alternans- alternating QRS amplitude seen in any or all leads with no changes to conduction pathway

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38
Q

Adult GCS system: categories and scoring

A

1) . eye opening
- spontaneous = 4
- to speech = 3
- to pain = 2
- no response = 1

2) . Verbal response
- A x O = 5
- disoriented conversation = 4
- speaking but non sensical = 3
- moans, weird sounds = 2
- no response = 1

3) . Motor Response
- follows commands = 6
- localizes pain = 5
- moves or withdraws to pain = 4
- decorticate flexion = 3
- decerebrate extension = 2
- no response

scoring 3-15
“T” after score means intubation

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39
Q

when ICP is increasing (due to an injury, etc), what happens to the CPP?

A

cerebral perfusion pressure must decrease (MAP increases to compensate for decreased perfusion pressure)

40
Q

what are the two intracranial contents that can most adapt to decreased volume due to increased ICP?

A

intracranial blood (venous esp) and CSF

41
Q

what is cushing’s triad?

A

HTN, bradycardia, irregular breathing (herniation soon) in a patient with increased ICP
*mechanism to help try to save brain perfusion, more common in children

42
Q

best imaging modality for patients with acute TBI?

A

Head CT scan without contrast

43
Q

NEXUS II- Head CT is not required if a patient doesn’t have these characteristics

A
age >65 yrs
evidence of skull fracture
scalp hematoma
neuro deficit
altered level of alertness
abnormal behavior
coagulopathy
recurrent or forceful vomiting
44
Q

what is an uncal herniation? what S/S does it cause?

A

uncus of temporal lobe pushed into brainstem (midbrain)

S/S: coma, pupil dilation same side, hemiparesis/posturing opposite side

45
Q

what is a cerebellar tonsillar herniation? what does this cause?

A

tonsils of cerebellum slide through foramen magnum against medulla
causes sudden death

46
Q

S/S of progressive deterioration/impending herniation?

A

1) . decreasing GCS
2) . pupillary changes
3) . paralysis/posturing

47
Q

head trauma treatment and management (5)

A

1) . ABCs
- PaCO2 35-45
- PaO2 >60
- MAP above systolic 100-110
2) . Neuro exam
3) . neurosurgical consult
4) . reversal of anticoags
5) . seizure prophylaxis (Keppra)

48
Q

Immediate action of lowering ICP after head trauma

A
  • elevate head of bed (30 degrees)
  • keep head and neck in neutral position
  • maintain cerebral perfusion (if MAP <80, then CPP < 60)
  • hyperosmolar therapy: hypertonic saline/mannitol
49
Q

what is an epidural hematoma and what is a common cause of this bleed?

A

blood collects between skull and dura due to middle meningeal artery tear
**blunt trauma to temporal or tempoparietal region (high association with skull fractures)

50
Q

what is the “lucid interval” for an epidural hematoma?

A

**only happens in 20-50%

momentary LOC at injury time and then improve (up to 2 days) and then back to LOC and neuro deficit

51
Q

CT sign of epidural hematoma? how do you differentiate from a subdural?

A

lens-shaped/lemon-shaped

blood WILL NOT cross suture line (unlike subdural)

52
Q

any patient with injury at C5 or above should have what procedure done?

A

airway secured by endotracheal intubation

53
Q

what is a subdural hematoma and what are some causes?

A

bleed that pools between dura and arachnoid
**commonly seen in alcoholics and elderly, MC from sudden acceleration/deceleration injury (slower onset so worse damage)

54
Q

CT findings of subdural

A

crescent shaped

two weeks from injury, the lesion becomes isodense with brain tissue so turns darker

55
Q

what is a traumatic SAH? compare it to an atraumatic or spontaneous SAH?

A

traumatic is shearing of blood vessels in the subarachnoid space (tends to be in the periphery of brain) whereas spontaneous is central collection of blood from artery rupture

56
Q

what is the worst headache of your life a sign of?

A

SAH

57
Q

risk factors of SAH?

A
family hx
HTN
smoking
excessive alcohol
coarctation of aorta
Marfan's/Ehler's danlos
alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency
58
Q

Ottawa SAH rule: what is it for and how do you score someone?

A
used to rule out SAH for a person with a HA (helps determine if further SAH eval/imaging is needed)
1- point if you have it, 0- if you don't
- >40 yrs old
- neck pain/stiffness
-witnessed LOC
-onset during exertion
-thunderclap HA
-limited neck flexion
0 points- significant rule out
59
Q

subarachnoid hemorrhage treatment

A

medical management: BP control, pain control, antiemetics

neurosurgery consult

60
Q

what are some risk factors for intracranial hemorrhage? (4)

A

1) . ANTICOAGULATION (warfarin)
2) . African America
3) . sympathomimetic drugs
4) . arterial aneurysm

61
Q

splenic injury MOI and presentation

A

MOI: MVC, falls, sports, assault

  • usually blunt trauma
  • Kehr’s sign: pain in left shoulder that worsens with inspiration (irritating the phrenic nerve)
62
Q

Liver injury MOI and presentation

A

hx of trauma to abdomen, RUQ, right rib cage, right flank or chest (associated with chest injury the most)
-pres: pain of RUQ, generalized abd pain

63
Q

intestinal injury MOI and presentation

A

MOI: blunt trauma due to deceleration injuries causing tearing (seat belt signs)
- unrestrained drivers in frontal-impact MVC, bicycle handlebars

64
Q

pelvic trauma MOI and presentation

A

high energy blunt trauma

-widening of pubic symphysis is indicative of open book fracture

65
Q

traumatic aortic rupture MOI and presentation

A

common with deceleration (MVC)

-symptoms are commonly absent but survivors often have hematoma formation that is preventing death

66
Q

toxemia in pregnancy is characterized by what three things?

A

pregnancy induced HTN, proteinuria and seizures when severe

67
Q

symptoms of toxemia are so variable that every pregnant female in 3rd trimester who goes to the ED gets what two tests?

A

BP check and UA

68
Q

most cases of toxemia occur within ___ hrs of delivery

A

48 hrs

69
Q

what is important to remember about blood pressure in pregnancy?

A

it is LOWER

rising BP in relation to normal BP is a relevant sign of toxemia!

70
Q

supportive lab findings of toxemia (pregnancy)

A
dec urine output
higher BUN/Cr
dec creatinine clearance
proteinuria
evidence of DIC
71
Q

Mild preeclampsia vs mod to severe (PLUS TREATMENT)

A

mild: diastolic BP under 105, 1+ proteinuria, good urinary output (TX: patient rests at home and followed)

mod/severe: proteinuria >2+, diastolic BP >105, seizures, anuria, severe edema
(TX: Magnesium plus hydralazine if HTN persists)

72
Q

what is PID and how does it present?

A

PID: infection of upper genital tract and reproductive organs in females
- exam: marked cervical motion tenderness (chandelier sign), adnexal tenderness (unilateral might be ruptured tubo-ovarian abscess), lower abd tenderness (can have temp > 101, abnormal discharge too)

73
Q

most common sexually transmitted infection? how to treat?

A

chlamydia; azithromycin

74
Q

if you are treating gonorrhea then you also treat?

A

for chlamydia

ceftriaxone plus azitrhomycin

75
Q

major cause of recurrent genital lesions?

A

HERPES- vesicular lesions

76
Q

what is important about initial herpes infection?

A

initial infection tends to be the most severe

77
Q

tx of genital herpes

A

antiviral drug, warm compresses

78
Q

what happens in pregnancy if mom has trichomonas infection?

A

possible premature rupture of membranes, premature birth, and low birth weight infants

79
Q

trichomonas symptoms and treatment

A

green frothy discharge
tx: flagyl
if pregnant- avoid breast feeding for 24 hrs after last dose of flaygl

80
Q

test for what STI if patient has syphilis

A

HIV

81
Q

treatment of syphilis

A

penicillin, or doxycycline if allergic to penicillin

82
Q

primary, secondary, and tertiary stages of syphilis

A

primary: painless chancre with depressed center and rolled up edges
secondary: 4 weeks after chancre, non pruritic rash (thorax, abd, extremities)
* latent in between*
tertiary: destructive lesions of aorta, CNS, skeletal structures and skin

83
Q

abnormal vaginal bleeding signs in non-pregnant female

A

heavy menses: soaking pad or tampon more than every 2hrs or volume that interferes with daily activites
large clots in blood
changing pads/tampons at night
anemia

84
Q

how to treat abnormal vaginal bleeding in non pregnant person

A

1) . vital signs- think of systemic things (hypotensive, tachycardic- FIRST THING)
2) . treat shock
3) . IV access, type and cross, preg test, fluid replacement
4) . determine cause of bleeding and stop it

85
Q

any patient with vaginal bleeding that results in abnormal hemodynamics or anemia should be ___________

A

hospitalized

86
Q

ruptured ovarian cyst diagnosis essentials

A

SUDDEN unilateral pelvic pain
lack of systemic signs of infection
negative preg test
significant hemorrhage on US

87
Q

ovarian torsion presentation

A

extremes of age
gradual OR sudden symptoms
pain with sex or pooping
US detects decreased or absent blood flow

88
Q

1st trimester bleeding causes

A

1) . ectopic pregnancy
2) . miscarriage- MOST COMMON NON TRAUMATIC CAUSE
3) . implantation of pregnancy
4) . cervical/vaginal/uterine pathology

89
Q

S/S miscarriage

A

typical symptoms of being pregnant and then uterine cramps/bleeding and then passage of fetal/placental tissue

90
Q

most common presenting complaint of ectopic pregnancy? where does implantation occur?

A

vaginal bleeding; occurs in fallopian tube 96% of the time

91
Q

acute ruptured ectopic s/s

A

sudden, persistent abdominal pain, rapid uterine bleeding, unstable vitals, feeling faint

92
Q

presentation and treatment of hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

within 1st trimester
persistent vomiting, dizziness, presyncope, dehydration
tx: correct hypovolemia with IV fluids and possibly antiemetics

93
Q

most common causes of 2nd and 3rd trimester bleeding

A

miscarriage, placenta previa or abruptio placentae

94
Q

indication of placenta previa?

A

painless bleeding in small volumes that occur regularly for a short period of time
**can hemorrhage ANYTIME

95
Q

indication of abruptio placenta

A

severe abd pain associated with hemorrhage into subplacental space (premature separation of placenta)
*increase in contractions may occur

96
Q

how to treat 2nd and 3rd trimester bleeding

A

1) . emergent OB consult
2) . evaluate hypovolemia and correct
3) . collect blood through IV
4) . monitor fetal heart tones
5) . UDS and check placenta with US
6) . hospitalize pt immediately