EPME Info Flashcards
(461 cards)
1
Q
Where should Coast Guard voluntary education services inquiries related to tuition assistance be sent to?
A
ETQC-SMB-TAG@uscg.mil
2
Q
Registrar services provided by ETQC include which of the following?
A
- JST
- CST
- ACE
3
Q
Which directive provides specific guidance on the Coast Guard voluntary credentialing program?
A
Commandant instruction 1540.10- CG voluntary credentialing program
4
Q
Where are tuition assistance waivers submitted for final review?
A
ETQC
5
Q
Where can a link to the ASVAB AFCT waiver request guide be found?
A
Voluntary education service’s
6
Q
The Harry W. Colmery veterans educational assistance act is also known as?
A
Forever GI Bill
7
Q
Under the post 9/11 G.I. Bill, a veteran enrolled at more than one 1/2 time can qualify for a monthly housing allowance based on DOD’s basic allowance for housing rates for an _______ with dependents?
A
E5
8
Q
The Montgomery G.I. Bill active duty provides up to _______ months of educational benefits.
A
36
9
Q
The G.I. Bill comparison tool offers information based on which of the following G.I. Bill benefits?
A
- Post 9/11 (CH 33)
- Montgomery (CH 30)
- Select Reserve (CH 1606)
- Veterans Readiness and employment
- Dependents Educational Assistance (DEA)
10
Q
Veterans in their second six months of OJT and apprenticeship training programs may use their G.I. Bill benefits to receive _______ of the applicable monthly housing stipend.
A
80%
11
Q
In which of the following cases is tuition assistance authorized for?
A
Active duty and reserve members who are drilling and have met drilling requirements for the last two years
12
Q
One purpose of the ________ program is to provide developmental incentives for personnel with high ability, dedication, and the capacity for professional growth to remain in the Coast Guard.
A
Advanced education program
13
Q
Which of the following is a responsibility for a student who has been accepted into the advanced education program?
A
- Complete necessary prerequisites and route forms
- Act as a CG liaison to the institute and military advocate with regard to their attendance
- Monitor and comply with fiscal requirements
- Carry full credit hour load
- Maintain academic proficiency
- Complete program requirements in time
- Maintain CG requirements and standards
14
Q
Who acts as subject matter expert to assist Coast Guard members with voluntary education programs?
A
ESO
15
Q
Name the four firearm safety rules?
A
- Treat all firearms as if they were loaded
- Keep finger off trigger until ready to shoot
- Know your target and what’s beyond it
- Keep control of the muzzle at all times
16
Q
Which of the following is a requirement to advance to E-3?
A
SIX MONTHS IN PAY GRADE E-2 OR SATISFACTORY COMPLETION OF CLASS A COURSE
17
Q
Which of the following is a requirement to advance to E-4?
A
SIX MONTHS IN PAY GRADE OF E-3
18
Q
The ________ and ASVAB tests are different versions of the same battery of tests.
A
AFCT ARMED FORCES CLASSIFICATION TEST
19
Q
Class ‘A’ Course graduates who had their advancement to E-4 withheld upon graduation due to receiving an ‘UNSAT’ conduct while attending a Class ‘A’ Course are required to complete how many months of good conduct prior to being advanced?
A
6 months
20
Q
Which of the following ratings have no direct path of advancement from E3 to E4?
A
IV and DV
21
Q
Where is the list of ratings open to striking found?
A
ALCOAST MESSAGE
22
Q
Where are A school rating requirements listed?
A
CG PSC WEBSITE-Performance, training and education manual
23
Q
Which stress management term is defined as bad stress?
A
Distress
24
Q
Good stress is related to which stress management term?
A
Eustress
25
Which term is defined as the nonspecific response of the body to any demands placed upon it or what you feel after you encounter a stressor?
Stress
26
What are stressors?
The causes of stress: transfers, deadlines, etc.
27
What term is defined as a stress management tool used to measure a person's personal stress load?
Stress map
28
Stress is defined within the CG stress management program as:
The nonspecific response of the body to any demands placed upon it or what you feel after you encounter a stressor. Anxiety, frustration, depression.
29
The services provided by the _____________ are available for professional assistance with stress management.
Employee assistance program coordinator EAPC
30
Which stress management awareness and skills training promotes an understanding of stress, awareness of support resources, and provides practical stress navigation tools to help build resilience of Sailors, families, and commands?
Operational stress control
31
How can you contact the Employee Assistance program?
1855CGSUPRT or www.cgsuprt.com
32
Who is eligible for the Office of Work-life stress management program?
Active duty and dependents, reservists, civilians employed in the Coast Guard
33
Identify a signal of distress which is an expected stress reaction associated with critical incidents.
* Emotional response
* Cognitive response
* Behavioral response
* Psychological response
* Spiritual distress response
34
Which of the following is an intention of the substance abuse prevention program?
* Raise awareness of substance abuse issues
* Encourage, teach, and support low-risk guidelines for alcohol use
* Provide periodic prevention training
* Support commands
* Outline zero tolerance for drug/substance misuse and abuse
* Support mission readiness
* Align with other policy
35
The National Institute of Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA) low risk guidelines suggest that 'zero' drinks is the low risk option when _______.
Driving, using machinery, cleaning a weapon, pregnant, or on certain medication
36
Key behaviors for low-risk alcohol use include what model?
0, 1, 2, 3 model
37
Where can you find additional clarification on low-risk drinking guidelines?
www.rethinkingdrinking.niaaa.gov
38
What is substance abuse prime for life training used for?
For members showing signs of misusing alcohol
39
What is one responsibility of a command drug and alcohol representative CDAR?
40
What is the definition of substance abuse?
The use of a substance by a member, which causes other (performance of duty, health, behavior, family, community) problems or places the member's safety at risk.
41
What is considered substance abuse?
The use of a substance by a member which causes other problems or places the member's safety at risk.
42
According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA), drinking too much over time can raise your risk for ___, cancer, liver disease, and other illnesses.
Heart and brain problems
43
According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA), more than ___ people die from alcohol-related causes in the United States each year.
95,000
44
Being able to 'hold your liquor' or having a high tolerance for alcohol is ________.
Increased risk for developing alcohol use disorder AUD
45
What is considered binge drinking for men?
5 drinks in 2 hours
46
What is considered binge drinking for women?
4 drinks in 2 hours
47
Binge drinking is a pattern of drinking that brings BAC to what percent or higher?
0.08 or higher
48
What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by a person being slightly impaired?
0.08
49
What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by stupor or blackout?
0.30
50
What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by coma and risk of death?
0.40
51
Youth who drink alcohol are more likely to experience?
* School problems, such as higher rates of absences or lower grades
* Social problems, such as fighting or lack of participation in youth activities
* Legal problems, such as arrest for driving or physically hurting someone while drunk
* Physical problems, such as hangovers or illnesses
* Unwanted, unplanned, and unprotected sexual activity
* Disruption of normal growth or sexual development
* Physical and sexual violence
* Increased risk of suicide and homicide
* Alcohol-related motor vehicle crashes and other unintentional injuries, such as burns, falls, or drowning
* Memory problems
* Misuse of other substances
* Changes in brain development that may have life-long effects
* Alcohol poisoning
52
Which of the following is a reason women face higher risk of drinking alcohol?
Weigh less and have less water weight
53
What is a standard drink for 80 proof hard liquor?
1.5 ounces
54
How many grams of pure alcohol are in a standard drink?
14 grams
55
How many fluid ounces of table wine are in a standard drink?
5 ounces
56
How many fluid ounces of beer are in a standard drink?
12 oz
57
Using the BAC calculator, what would be the BAC percentage for a 150 pound male who consumed 3 oz of 40% alcohol over one hour?
0.09%
58
Across the United States, a recorded blood alcohol content BAC test of ____ or higher alcohol is proof of DUI without any other evidence.
0.08
59
Which of the following is required for self-referral for potential substance abuse?
60
Which statement reflects the Coast Guard policy on tobacco use and abuse?
Discourage the use of all forms of tobacco products
61
Which example would constitute unauthorized use of a prescription drug?
No current prescription (within six months) or verified medical use explanation for a drug(s) that would account for the positive urinalysis result.
62
Which of the following is considered prohibited substance abuse?
* Controlled or synthetic substance analogues, such as designer drugs
* Inhalants
* Propellants
* Solvents
* Household chemicals
* Substances used for huffing and prescription or over-the-counter medications in excess of prescribed dosage
* Any naturally occurring intoxicating substances, such as Salvia divinorum
63
Which of the following constitutes a drug incident?
* Intentional use of drugs for non-medical purposes
* Wrongful possession of drugs
* Trafficking of drugs
* The intentional use of other substances to obtain a 'high'
* A civil or military conviction for wrongful use, possession, or trafficking of drugs
64
Urinalysis is the procedure employed to obtain urine samples under controlled conditions, maintaining a chain of custody on each sample, and ____.
Scientifically analyzing the samples to detect the presence of drugs
65
Which of the following would be the consequence of a drug incident?
* Military separation
* Disciplinary action
* Possible medical treatment
66
Which term is defined as self-inflicted death with evidence, either explicit or implicit, or intent to die?
Suicide
67
Which term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior for which there is evidence, either implicit or explicit that the person did not intend to kill himself?
Self harm
68
What term is defined as any interpersonal action, verbal or nonverbal, without a direct self-injurious component for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, that the person is communicating that a suicide-related behavior might occur in the near future?
Suicide Threat
69
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior with a non-fatal outcome for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, of intent to die?
Suicide attempt
70
Self harm with no injury is reported as?
Self harm level 1
71
Self harm with injury is reported as?
Self harm level 2
72
Self harm resulting in death is reported as?
Self harm level 3
73
Suicide attempt resulting in injury is reported as?
Suicide attempt level 2
74
Suicide attempt resulting in no injury is reported as?
Suicide attempt level 1
75
What term is defined as any self-reported thoughts of engaging in suicide-related behaviors?
Suicide-Related Ideations
76
What would be the cause to report a Self harm level 3 in the suicide prevention program?
Death
77
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior where intent is unknown?
Undetermined Suicide-Related Behavior
78
Dismissing __________ as 'manipulation' is one of the surest ways to increase suicide risk.
Suicidal ideations
79
In one survey, more than 26,000 students across 70 colleges and universities reported having at least __________ at some point in their lives.
One episode of suicidal thinking
80
What are any interpersonal acts of imparting, conveying, or transmitting suicide-related thoughts, wishes, desires, or intent known as?
Suicide-Related Communications
81
What type of suicide-related communication is a proposed method of carrying out a design that can potentially result in suicide-related behavior?
Suicide plan
82
A medical professional must perform an analysis and diagnosis for potential ___________ upon commission of an alcohol incident or referral.
AUD (alcohol use disorder)
83
A member diagnosed within the first ___________ days of CG service as drug/alcohol abuse or dependent is considered physically disqualified for enlistment.
180 days
84
What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by a person being 'sloppy' drunk?
0.16
85
A sign of alcohol poisoning is?
* Confusion
* Vomiting
* Seizures
* Slow breathing (less than eight breaths a minute)
* Irregular breathing (a gap of more than 10 seconds between breaths)
* Blue-tinged skin or pale skin
* Low body temperature (hypothermia)
* Passing out (unconsciousness) and can't be awakened
86
According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA), as an individual's BAC increases, the risk of ___________ increases.
Harm
87
The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) offers which as an example of a way to manage stress?
* Get regular exercise
* Eat healthy, regular meals and stay hydrated
* Make sleep a priority
* Try a relaxing activity
* Set goals and priorities
* Practice gratitude
* Focus on positivity
* Stay connected
88
What type of suicide-related communication is a systematic formulation of a program of action that will potentially lead to suicide-related behaviors?
Suicide plan
89
Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior?
Is PATH Warm
90
________ is not an easy thing to do, but it is essential for suicide prevention.
ASK
91
What may be helpful to lead into the question 'Are you thinking about killing yourself?'?
Statement of your observations
92
What mnemonic is used as an aid for what to do when you suspect someone is thinking of suicide?
ACE Ask-Care-Escort
93
During which step of suicide prevention may the at-risk member attempt to make a joke or attempt to deflect the direct question?
ASK
94
During the ______ step of suicide prevention you should actively listen.
Care
95
During which step of suicide prevention should you remove or take possession of any means that could be used for self-injury?
Care
96
During which step of suicide prevention is it important to not promise confidentiality?
Care
97
In which step of suicide prevention is active listening likely to produce relief?
Care
98
During which step of suicide prevention should you encourage the person to seek help?
Care
99
You may express optimism that the person will be helped and will feel better if it seems appropriate and genuine during which step of suicide prevention?
Care
100
During which step in suicide prevention will you adopt an attitude that you are going to help the person, and that this will save his or her life?
Escort
101
During which step of suicide prevention should you escort the person to the nearest emergency room, HCP, or mental healthcare professional?
ESCORT
102
If you ask a person 'Are you thinking about killing yourself?' and they make a joke of the question, what should you do?
Hang
103
During which step of suicide prevention may you express optimism that the person will be helped?
Care
104
During which step in suicide prevention do you adopt an attitude that you will help the person?
Care
105
During which step of suicide prevention should you escort the person to the nearest emergency room?
Escort
106
If a person jokes when asked 'Are you thinking about killing yourself?', what should you do?
Hang in there and ask the question again
107
If a person indicates thoughts of suicide, what information should you get?
How? Situation? History?
108
Who can you contact for help with suicide prevention?
Regional Work-Life Office
109
Which form of birth control is both reversible and can be used as emergency contraception?
IUD
110
Which form of birth control is included in tier 1 for effectiveness?
Implant, vasectomy, tubal occlusion, IUD
111
STDs can be passed from one person to another, ______ though this is not very common.
intimate physical contact like heavy petting
112
Most people do not have any symptoms when they have which STD?
Trichomoniasis, herpes
113
What is the most reliable way to avoid STD infection?
abstinence
114
Who is required to develop Personal Fitness Plans?
All active duty and Selres
115
To whom do you submit your completed Personal Fitness Plan?
Supervisor
116
When must your completed Personal Fitness Plan be submitted?
April and October
117
Who must keep the most current Personal Fitness Plan on file?
Member and supervisor
118
What is the CDC's physical fitness guideline for moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week?
150 minutes (2 hours 30 mins)
119
How many days per week should muscle-strengthening activities be performed according to CDC guidelines?
two or more days a week
120
How many minutes per week must all active duty members engage in fitness activity?
180 minutes
121
It is strongly recommended that the Personal Fitness Plan include ________ minutes per week of cardiorespiratory activity.
150 minutes
122
It is strongly recommended that the Personal Fitness Plan include ______ minutes per week of strength training.
30 minutes
123
What is the minimum length of exercise sessions to be beneficial?
10 minutes
124
Physical activity sessions should be spread out over at least how many days per week?
3 days
125
Physical activity should produce a training effect, as measured by a _________ level of intensity.
Medium to vigorous level of intensity
126
According to the CDC, adults should perform 150 minutes per week of aerobic activity at what level of intensity?
moderate-intensity
127
What is the form number for the Personal Fitness Plan?
CG-6049
128
Coast Guard operations inherently involve _______.
the acceptance of some level of risk
129
What is a critical human factor that increases potential for error-induced mishaps?
Mission analysis, leadership, adaptability and flexibility, situational awareness, decision-making, communication, and assertiveness
130
Deliberate use of the Risk Management process by reducing member exposure to hazards _______.
increases mission success
131
What must justify the expected risk exposure in conducting an activity?
the potential gains of conducting the activity or mission
132
What provides a framework to identify and assess hazards?
RM process
133
What initial analysis is updated prior to any mission activity throughout the day?
GAR 2.0
134
When is Risk Management (RM) most effective?
hazards are identified early and there is ample time to evaluate and implement mitigations
135
Since all Coast Guard missions are fluid, the Risk Management process is _______.
continuous and adaptive
136
Where are the steps of Risk Management (RM) described?
Risk Management Fundamentals
137
What are units encouraged to use for 'what can go wrong' analyses?
Risk Assessment Matrix
138
What is a function of physiological and psychological factors that supports crew performance?
Crew endurance
139
Additional elements can be added to GAR 2.0 risk to _______.
address unique operational realities
140
Which is a model used during risk assessments?
PEACE and STAAR
141
What is defined as the possibility of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard?
RISK
142
What is defined as a process to identify, assess, control, mitigate and manage hazards?
Risk Management (RM)
143
How many actions are in the Assess Hazards step in the Risk Management (RM) process?
The five steps of RM-identify the hazards, assess the hazards, develop controls and make risk decisions, implement controls, and supervise and evaluate
144
What is an action taken during the first step in the Risk Management (RM) process?
Identifying Hazards
145
What analyses are captured in GAR 2.0 to make warranted risk decisions?
PEACE/STAAR analyses
146
What model is used to identify essential elements for safe operation?
PEACE model
147
What deliberate risk assessment should units perform at the start of each day?
GAR 2.0
148
What model must be included in GAR 2.0?
PEACE
149
What model outlines strategies to mitigate and/or control risk?
STAAR
150
Which models, when used together, generate necessary information for decision making?
PEACE and STAAR
151
What shall all units use for real-time risk assessment prior to operations?
GAR 2.0
152
Who determines if the use of a government motor vehicle is for official purposes?
Unit Commander, CO, OIC
153
When are CG owned motor vehicles authorized to transport spouses and dependents?
Official function to which the spouse and dependent were invited
154
What is defined as evaluating an individual's or family's income and recommending actions for financial goals?
Financial planning and counseling
155
How many elements does the Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP) consist of?
7
156
Which is an element of the Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP)?
Education and training, counseling, information and referral, command financial specialist program, outreach, collaboration and coordination, Coast Guard support personal financial wellness program
157
Commands with at least _____ personnel must have a trained Command Financial Specialist (CFS).
25
158
What is the early withdrawal penalty tax for the Thrift Saving Plan?
10 percent
159
The compliance tab in CGBI is broken down into ______ categories.
4
160
What must you do if your preferred email address is not listed in CGBI?
Update your contact information in Direct Access
161
What is a purpose of the EES?
To set standards by which to evaluate the performance and behavior of all enlisted members
162
Which would be an authorized use of a CG owned motor vehicle?
Official purposes, Ceremonies, Non-CG Employees in official capacity, Spouse and dependents with member, Military recruits, Official travel
163
Only government employees with a ___ drivers license can operate a motor vehicle.
Current and unrestricted
164
To reduce potential for traffic mishaps, personnel must not exceed ______ hours of duty and driving hours.
14
165
Which form is used to report accidents involving a government motor vehicle?
SF91
166
What must personnel convicted of a serious moving violation while operating a government motor vehicle do?
Complete driver improvement course
167
What term is defined as managing one's personal finances, including income and expenses?
Personal financial management
168
Which grooming standard applies to mustaches?
Will not extend below the top of the upper lip or beyond the corners of the mouth
169
Who can grant a permanent shaving waiver for personnel diagnosed with Pseudofolliculitis Barbae (PFB)?
CO or OIC
170
The USCG celebrates its birthday on __________ of each year.
Aug 4th
171
The Revenue Cutter Service began with ________ cutters.
10
172
All members of the Armed Forces are expected to measure up to standards in the Code of Conduct _________.
while in combat or in captivity
173
What are the two types of advisories in the National Terrorism Advisory System (NTAS)?
Alerts and Bulletins
174
Which FPCON applies when an increased threat of terrorist activity exists?
FPCON Bravo
175
Which FPCON requires movement of cars and objects at least 25 meters from buildings?
FPCON Bravo
176
In 1838, congress enacted legislation that evolved into which agency?
steamboat inspection service
177
The National Terrorism Advisory System (NTAS) consists of how many types of advisories?
2 - Alerts and Bulletins
178
Which FPCON applies when an increased and more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists?
FPCON Bravo
179
Which FPCON requires the movement of cars and objects at least 25 meters from buildings?
FPCON Bravo
180
In 1838, Congress enacted legislation in response to steamboat boiler explosions that would evolve into what agency?
steamboat inspection service
181
The first time that a federal agency was specifically tasked with looking for people in danger was in ______________.
1831
182
The United States Coast Guard (USCG) was formed when the Revenue Cutter Service and Life-Saving Service were merged on what date?
Jan 28, 1915
183
When was the USCG transferred to the Department of Transportation?
April 1967
184
When was the USCG transferred to the Department of Homeland Security?
March 1, 2003
185
Alexander Hamilton was appointed to be the first ________.
Secretary of Treasury
186
Who was the Coast Guard's first aviator?
CDR Elmer F. Archie Stone
187
Who was the first Commandant of the USCG?
Captain Ellsworth Price Bertholf
188
On June 19, 1911, Ellsworth Price Bertholf was named Captain Commandant of the _____________.
United States Revenue Cutter Service
189
Who was awarded the medal of honor for evacuating a battalion of marines trapped by Japanese forces on September 27, 1942?
Douglas Munro
190
Where did SM1 Douglas Munro aid a battalion of Marines during landing and rescue?
Point Cruz, Guadalcanal
191
SM1 Douglas Munro was in charge of 24 Higgins boats during an amphibious invasion at Point Cruz, _____________.
Guadalcanal
192
What vessel is credited with firing the first naval shot of the Civil War?
USRC Harriet Lane
193
The USCGC TAMPA was sunk by __________ during World War I.
German torpedo
194
An explosion that killed more than 1,600 people in Nova Scotia led Congress to establish _____________ duties for the United States Coast Guard.
Captain of the port
195
Captain of the Port duties were assigned to the United States Coast Guard during which military conflict?
World War I
196
During World War I, how many USCG cutters went overseas to perform convoy escort duty between Gibraltar and Great Britain?
6
197
During World War II, which Coast Guard officer led a 16-member unit of his special task force on a raid to a German arsenal in Cherbourg, France?
CAPT Quentin R Walsh
198
Which Coast Guard officer was awarded the Navy Cross for heroic actions during the liberation of 50 American paratroopers who had been prisoners since D-Day?
CAPT Quentin R Walsh
199
During Vietnam, the USCG conducted _____________, which patrolled the South Vietnamese coast to stop the flow of war materials and personnel from going to the Viet Cong.
Operation market time (patrols / interdictions)
200
During Vietnam, how many Point Class patrol boats from the CG were sent to Vietnam to support maritime interdiction operations?
26
201
Where did CG Port Security Units deploy in 1990-1991?
202
The USCG were among the first to respond to the attack on the World Trade Center on?
9/11/2001
203
In which year did the USCG conduct the largest domestic SAR mission in United States history following Hurricane Katrina?
2005
204
The USCG mobilized more than 2,700 reservists in the largest homeland security operation since World War II, following ___________.
9/11
205
In 2010, USCG reserves were activated in response to the deepwater horizon oil rig explosion that forcefully pumped oil and gases into Gulf waters for _________ days.
87
206
DC3 Nathan B. Bruckenthal was posthumously awarded which award for his actions on 24 April 2004?
Bronze Star Medal (with combat 'V')
207
Who served as Boarding Officer on the USS FIREBOLT (PC 10) in Iraq when he was mortally wounded?
DC3 Nathan B. Bruckenthal
208
How many times has the National Ensign been changed since 1776?
26
209
The CG Ensign consists of ________ perpendicular stripes, alternating red and white.
16
210
The ______ is displayed as a mark of authority for boardings, examinations, and seizures of vessels for the purpose of enforcing U.S. laws.
Coast Guard ensign
211
The ____________ provided a symbol of authority on Revenue Cutters, as neither officer nor crew had uniforms.
Coast Guard ensign
212
The ______ was created to fly in place of the national flag while in American waters.
Coast Guard Ensign
213
On 1 August 1799, Secretary of the Treasury, Oliver Wolcott, issued an order specifying the design of the __________________.
Coast Guard Ensign
214
During parades and ceremonies, the Coast Guard Standard is adorned with _____________.
43 battle streamers
215
The design of the _____________ is obscure, but it may have evolved from an early jack.
Coast Guard Standard
216
The _________ is the upper left corner of the CG ensign.
Coast Guard standard
217
This flag is used during parades and ceremonies.
Coast Guard Standard
218
What is carried in all ceremonies representing heroic actions in all naval encounters from 1798 to the present?
Battle Streamers
219
Battle streamers are attached to the _____________, replacing cords and tassels.
Coast Guard Standard
220
Individual units may only display those ___________ that they have earned.
Battle Streamers
221
Only _____________ may display a complete set of battle streamers.
major headquarters commands
222
The USCG adopted battle streamers in 1968, following the practice established by the ________.
The US Marine Corps
223
The USCG is authorized a total of ________ battle streamers.
43
224
The ________ is flown on the bow of a vessel, only while at anchor or moored in port.
Union Jack
225
The __________ is flown on the jackstaff, which is located on the bow of a vessel.
Union Jack
226
The ________ is the canton of the US Flag.
Union Jack
227
The presence of the _______ indicates that a cutter is under the command of a commissioned officer.
Commissioning Pennant
228
The _______ is used on invitations, programs, certificates, diplomas, and greetings.
CG Seal
229
The _______ is used on official documents and records of the Coast Guard.
CG Seal
230
The first Coast Guard seal and emblem were approved by Treasury Secretary Andrew W. Mellon in ________.
1927
231
The CG_________ was ordered to be used on the CG Ensign as a distinctive logo in 1957.
Coast Guard emblem
232
The historical significance of the Coast Guard __________ dates back to the Revenue Cutter Service.
CG Shield
233
The _________ consists of a wide red bar forward of a narrow blue bar both canted at 64 degrees on the bow with CG emblem superimposed.
CG Stripe
234
The _______________ was developed in the 1960's by the industrial design firm Raymond Loewy?williams Snaith, INC.
CG Stripe
235
Semper Paratus is the Latin word meaning: _____________.
always ready
236
When was the Coast Guard Motto adopted?
Between October 1896 and May 1897
237
The earliest recorded use of the phrase 'Semper Paratus' appeared in a newspaper article in the city of ________, praising the Revenue Cutter Ingham.
New Orleans
238
What language did Semper Paratus originate from?
Latin
239
The music for Semper Paratus was written by _____________.
Captain Francis Saltus Van Boskerck
240
What is a safety data sheet (SDS)?
Provide information on proper use, potential hazards, protective measures, protective equipment, and emergency first aid procedures to be followed.
241
What must be readily accessible to all workers while in their work area, when workers are required to use HAZMAT or when workers are at risk of exposure to HAZMAT?
Safety Data Sheets
242
If the SDS is not available, who must the unit notify to obtain the SDS?
Contact manufacturer or supplier
243
The standard GHS format for a SDS includes ____ sections, in a specified order.
16
244
Specific hazard information may not be present on a chemical container. As a result, you must consult the ________ to prevent improper use or handling.
245
GHS provides a standard for the content, layout, and presentation of _____.
246
What is the active and reserve gold badge assignment standard tour length?
2 years
247
Who must provide the Commander/Commanding Officer endorsement for all CSELs except the MCPOCG and MCPO-CGR?
O-6 or higher
248
What program is intended to assist you in becoming familiar with your new community and the resources available when you are reassigned?
Relocation Assistance Program
249
Who can provide you with community information, demographics information, relocation packages, and state information when you are reassigned?
Transition/Relocation Managers
250
Transition/Relocation Managers may provide _____ with local resource information.
Welcome packages
251
How should you contact your Transition/relocation manager?
Regional Work-Life Staff
252
Your _______ can help you utilize the Office of Work-Life Adoption Reimbursement Program.
Family Resource Specialist
253
Who is your point of contact for information relating to the Coast Guard Scholarship Program?
Family Resource Specialist
254
What form is used to enroll my dependent family member with medical special needs into the special needs program (SNP)?
DD 2792 medical, 2792-1 educational
255
What is the title for staff members at Health, Safety, and work-life regional practices specifically trained to assist individuals and commands when maltreatment incidents occur?
Family Advocacy Specialist
256
One purpose of the Family Advocacy Program is to _____.
Addresses prevention, identification, reporting, investigation, and treatment of intimate partner and child maltreatment and assigns responsibilities for a coordinated community response within the Coast Guard in collaboration with services outside the Coast Guard.
257
One purpose of the ________ is prevention, identification, reporting, investigation, and treatment of intimate partner and child maltreatment?
Family advocacy program
258
Members can call _____________ 24 hours a day, 365 days a year to speak with an experienced and highly trained counselor.
1-855-CGSUPRT (247-8778)
259
The _________ has been designed to capture a valid, reliable assessment of enlisted members performance, so the CG can advance and assign them with a high degree of confidence.
Enlisted evaluation system
260
The _______ has been designed to inform enlisted members of the performance standards against which they are measured.
Enlisted Evaluation system
261
The ______ has been designed to provide a means by which enlisted member can receive feedback on how well the member is measuring up to the standards.
Enlisted Evaluation system
262
The _______ has been designed to provide information about discharges, re-enlistments, good conduct, advancement eligibility, and reductions in pay grade.
Enlisted Evaluation System (EES)
263
The _______ has been designed to set standards by which to evaluate the performance and behavior of each enlisted member.
Enlisted Evaluation System (EES)
264
The end of the marking period for pay grade E-1 is the last day of which months?
January and July
265
The end of the marking period for pay grade E-2 is the last day of which months?
January and July
266
The end of the marking period for pay grade E-3 is the last day of which months?
February and August
267
The end of the marking period for pay grade E-4 is the last day of which months?
March and September
268
The end of the marking period for pay grade E-5 is the last day of which months?
April and October
269
The evaluee must perform which of the following functions within the EES?
Familiarization, Performance, Evaluation Input, Acknowledgement, Verification
270
When do you need to provide evaluation input for your EER?
No later than 14 days prior to the end of the marking period
271
What is done with the completed original EER counseling sheet?
Unit provides to evaluee and is retained and signed
272
Your signature on the members signature block of the EER counseling sheet indicates acknowledgment of _________.
The counseling and review of their evaluation report, the impact of their evaluation report on their good conduct eligibility, the appeal timeframe, their advancement potential and recommendation, verification through direct access self service EER was properly recorded
273
The marking official should route the completed evaluation report to the approving official no later than __________ days after the evaluation report period ending date.
5 days
274
The _________ is responsible for ensuring your evaluation is based on how you performed in each performance dimension consistently through the period.
The rating chain
275
What competency within a performance assessment must be adhered to every day of the marking period?
conduct
276
What are the individual elements located under each factor type on which the CG evaluates its enlisted members called?
competencies
277
How many major categories of performance are there in an EES?
4 - military, performance, professional qualities, leadership
278
Which factor type in the EER measures the members ability to bring credit to the CG through personal demeanor and professional actions?
Military
279
Which factor type in the EER measures a member's ability to direct, guide, develop, influence, and support others performing work?
leadership
280
Performance standards are the written criteria that outlines the expected performance to receive a mark of ________ in each competency?
2,4,6
281
If a member receives an unsatisfactory conduct mark on their EER, it will negatively impact their ___________.
Advancement to the higher pay grade, change in rate, or participate in the SWE.
282
Appeals to the approving official's decision on the advancement recommendation _____ .
IS FINAL AND MAY NOT BE APPEALED
283
What are the possible choices for advancement recommendations?
Ready, Not Ready, Not Recommended
284
What must occur when a member does not receive an advancement recommendation?
Approving Official must counsel the member
285
The appeals process is designed to review marks the evaluee believes were based on which of the following?
Incorrect information, Prejudice, Discrimination, Disproportionately low marks for the particular circumstances
286
What must be contained in an appeal letter for an EER?
The appeal letter must contain the specific competencies in dispute and supporting information indicating why the marks should be reviewed. Supporting information must include specific examples of demonstrated performance that indicate how the member met or exceeded the written standards. The member attaches a copy of the signed evaluation report counseling sheet as the first enclosure and other enclosures pertinent to the assigned marks.
287
What responsibility does the member have in the EER appeal process?
Request an Audience, Written Appeal, The Appeal Letter, Submission Deadline, Appealing After the Deadline
288
As a result of an EER appeal, what actions may an approving official take?
Raise or leave marks unchanged, but May not lower marks
289
What is the deadline for active duty members to submit an appeal for their EER?
15 calendar days
290
What is the deadline for reserve members to submit an appeal for their EER?
45 calendar days
291
What are EER forms CG-3788A-G used for?
Enlisted evaluation report forms for each pay grade
292
The Discipline and Conduct manual stipulates that coercing or encouraging another member to fully or partially disrobe is an example of _____________.
hazing
293
Hazing can include which of the following?
- Hazing is any conduct through which a military member or members, or any other persons physically or psychologically injure or create a risk of physical or psychological injury to one or more military members for the purpose of: initiation into, admission into, affiliation with, change in status or position
294
Which directive requires a commanding officer to 'prohibit unit introductory initiations or hazing of personnel'?
UNITED STATES COAST GUARD REGULATIONS 1992, COMDTINST M5000.3
295
Which is true of hazing?
Subjecting an individual military member to harassment or ridicule for the purposes of 'inclusion' is defined as hazing.
296
Which is true of hazing and bullying?
It is prohibited and will not be tolerated
297
If a person knowingly and voluntarily submits to hazing, _____ .
May be held accountable as well
298
Which of the following would be an example of an appropriate relationship?
(1) Two crewmembers going to an occasional movie, dinner, concert, or other social event. (2) Members jogging or participating in wellness or recreational activities together.
299
An interpersonal relationship in a professional work environment would be prohibited in what case?
(1) Jeopardize the members' impartiality, (2) Undermine the respect for authority inherent in a member's rank or position
300
If a person knowingly and voluntarily submits to hazing, _____
May be held accountable as well
301
Which of the following would be an example of an appropriate relationship?
Two crewmembers going to an occasional movie, dinner, concert, or other social event; Members jogging or participating in wellness or recreational activities together
302
An interpersonal relationship in a professional work environment would be prohibited in what case?
Jeopardize the members' impartiality; Undermine respect for authority; Result in improper personal gain; Violate punitive Article of reference; Violate lawful orders or policies
303
Which of the following is an example of unacceptable conduct?
Supervisors and subordinates gambling together; Giving or receiving gifts over nominal value; Changing duty rosters for personal gain; Soliciting personal information from students or prospective members
304
An acceptable romantic relationship for officer instructors is with an individual who has graduated from an entry level accession program within the preceding _____
365 days
305
Engaging in sexually intimate behavior is prohibited aboard _____
Any Coast Guard vessel, or in any Coast Guard-controlled workplace
306
A romantic relationship involving a former recruiter and a prospective member is prohibited until _____
365 DAYS HAVE ELAPSED SINCE THEIR LAST CONTACT WITH A RECRUITER
307
Violating policy on limited personal use of government office equipment and services is punishable under which article of the UCMJ?
Article 92
308
Which of the following is an example of prohibited use of government office equipment?
Loading unauthorized software; Making unauthorized configuration changes; Using equipment to gain unauthorized access; Introducing malware; Creating unofficial mass mailings; Subscribing to non-business services
309
What is the dollar value limit placed on gifts given to an official superior on an occasional basis?
$10
310
Where are deadlines for Personal Data Extract (PDE) verifications and corrections provided?
On your Personal Data Extract (PDE)
311
Sea Time points on a Personal Data Extract (PDE) are calculated at what rate?
2 points per year, 0.166 points per month
312
What should you do if you find errors on your Personal Data Extract (PDE)?
Note them on the printed copy, sign it, and provide it to your admin personnel
313
Once you have chosen all desired Job Basket boxes for an eResume, what should be your next step?
CLICK SAVE TO JOB BASKET
314
What is the form number for the Enlisted Individual Development Plan (IDP)?
CG-5357
315
An Individual Development Plan (IDP) is ________.
A tool to facilitate a conversation about professional and personal goals
316
What does the Risk Management (RM) process rely on to identify, assess, control, mitigate, and manage potential hazards?
Effective teamwork and communication
317
In step 1 of the Risk Management (RM) process, if time is limited, what model can be used?
PEACE model
318
How is risk defined within Risk Management (RM)?
As the possibility of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard
319
What is the control option used for specific risks by 'going around' them?
STAAR - Avoid
320
What is the last stage in resolving conflicts among peers?
Stage-5 - Resolution
321
What color is the service stripe on the SDB jacket for an E-7?
Gold
322
What is the only authorized knot for the blue standard necktie?
Double Windsor
323
When wearing the women's overblouse with the Service Dress Blue (SDB), the bottom of the overblouse shall______.
Not be visible
324
What shirt(s) are women authorized to wear with the Tropical Blue Short Sleeve (TBSS) uniform?
Women's shirt, over blouse, men's shirt
325
What is required for wear with all uniforms?
Undershirts with quarter length sleeves
326
What is not authorized to wear with the Tropical Blue Long Sleeve (TBLS) uniform?
Ribbons
327
What is the first step in resolving conflict among peers?
Define conflict
328
What is part of the anticipated level of expertise for a first-line supervisor in Influencing Others?
Learns to influence others; gains cooperation while showing respectful understanding
329
Which leadership competency is being displayed by a First-Line Supervisor who coaches others?
Leading Others - Mentoring
330
What is the anticipated level of expertise for first-line supervisors for effective communications?
Writes succinctly; Speaks concisely; Listens attentively; Observes body language
331
What type of cap is authorized to wear with the Tropical Blue Long Sleeve (TBLS) uniform?
Combination cap or garrison cap
332
Oxfords are not authorized _______.
When the skirt is worn
333
The women's shirt and women's slacks align with the belt so that the ______.
Tab touches the wearer's right side of the buckle
334
In all cases, the non-tab edge of the black belt with brass tip must align with the ______.
Fly
335
Which uniform item is not authorized to wear with the SDB jacket?
AF Skirt
336
What is an authorized color for sunglasses frames?
Black or navy blue, gold or silver
337
You can wear a maximum of _______ ring(s) per hand.
One
338
Which of the following is a prohibited watch color?
Diamond covered, neon, white, and bright colors
339
Engagement/wedding ring sets or ______ are counted as one ring.
Class/wedding ring sets
340
According to COMDTINST M1020.6K, fitness trackers are ______.
Considered watches
341
COMDTINST 1020.6K stipulates that ________ rings are not authorized.
Thumb rings
342
What is correct for the insignia on the garrison cover when worn by an enlisted member?
The center of the insignia is placed 1½ inch from the bottom of the cap, and 2 inches back from the front crease
343
What is correct for an E-9 wearing the garrison cover?
The garrison cap anchor is approximately 1-3/8 inches high
344
While wearing the Light blue shirt, collar insignia are centered between the visible top and bottom collar edges & ________.
Center of device is 1 inch and parallel from the leading edge
345
When wearing the Tropical Blue Long Sleeve (TBLS) uniform, _________ will be worn over the wearer's left pocket.
One full size insignia
346
When wearing the Tropical Blue Long Sleeve (TBLS) uniform, _________ will be worn over the wearer's right pocket.
Nametag
347
While conducting a personnel inspection, what reference can you advise a member to consult to properly align their awards?
COMDTINST M1650.25E Coast Guard Military Medals and Awards Manual
348
Which award has the highest precedence?
QID
349
How do you access the Coast Guard Business Intelligence (CGBI)?
On your desktop or CG Portal. CGBI.OSC.USCG.MIL or Pixel Dashboard.
350
What level of compliance does a yellow color indicator within CGBI indicate?
Compliant: Approaching Limits of Standard
351
What level of compliance does an orange color indicator within CGBI indicate?
Non-Compliant: Not Currently Compliant
352
What level of compliance does a green color indicator within CGBI indicate?
Compliant: Within Standard
353
____________ are just one of the tools to assure compliance with 29 C.F.R. § 1960, and to keep the workplace free of serious recognized hazards.
354
How do you submit a Coast Guard Employee Hazard Report Form?
355
How long must CG-113 assurance assessments be retained?
The reports are retained on file until the deficiencies have been corrected and for at least five years following the end of the calendar year to which they relate.
356
What is the minimum frequency for formal occupational safety and environmental health inspections for all work spaces?
Annually
357
The purpose of form CG-4903 is to ________.
358
How many Administrative remarks entry types are there?
9
359
A member has requested to be removed voluntarily from the advancement list. Which CG-3307 template would you use?
AR-07 Voluntary Removal from ADV List
360
You have been directed to prepare a CG-3307 to document counseling for inappropriate relationships. Which template would you use?
PD-12 Counseling for Inappropriate Relationships
361
Which template would you use to prepare a General Negative CG-3307?
PD-07 General Negative
362
If a member is not available for signature on a CG-3307, you should ______.
State so in the signature block and date it
363
What should you do if a member refuses to sign a CG-3307?
The words 'member refused to sign' must be entered in the member's signature block along with the date counseled.
364
Where are copies of all form CG-3307 sent for electronic imaging into the IPDR?
The original is filed in the SPO PDR, and the copy is mailed to Commander, Personnel Service Center (psd-mr) for electronic imaging into the IPDR.
365
What is the Thomas-Kilmann definition for conflict?
Any situation in which your concerns or desires differ from those of another person
366
What stage of conflict is it when members actually make overt communications in an attempt to convince the other party of a better solution?
Stage 2 Confrontation
367
In which stage of conflict should peers look for assistance in managing the conflict or look to using a tool for reaching and addressing the concerns of the parties?
Stage-3 - Escalation
368
What is the final stage of conflict?
Stage-5 - Resolution
369
How many stages are there in conflict?
5 stages
370
What training code(s) direct PDCS to ensure members can complete an EPQ or RPQ correctly without assistance, prompting or the use of any job or memory aid?
Train to memory
371
When writing an internal command memo requiring command visibility, ______ lines may be used.
Thru lines
372
What is the primary means of formalized correspondence to communicate both within the Coast Guard and within the framework of the Federal Government?
The Coast Guard Memorandum
373
Where is the SSIC placed on a memorandum?
Above the date
374
Where does the signing official place his/her signature on a memorandum?
The signing official will sign on the 'From' line.
375
Every memorandum must include a _____
Date
376
What is used to comment on a memorandum in routing?
Endorsement
377
When are 'Thru' lines used on a memorandum?
378
What is placed centered two lines below the last paragraph to indicate the end of the memorandum?
# symbol
379
Where can the precise title and staff symbol to include on a memorandum be found?
380
During a meeting, who is required to stay out of content discussion?
Scribe
381
During a meeting, who has the responsibility to capture information as accurately as possible so that non-attendees can follow the group's train of thought?
Recorder
382
What is a responsibility of a timekeeper in a meeting?
Keeps track of time
383
What is a responsibility of a participant in a meeting?
Gives input, ideas, opinions
384
What is a common team member role assigned during a meeting?
Timekeeper, Scribe, Recorder, Co-Facilitator, Participant, Subject Matter Expert
385
Time spent planning your meeting will ensure ______.
Better outcome
386
Which step of meeting facilitation are ground rules established?
Step 3- Establish ground rules
387
Which step in meeting facilitation involves describing how the meeting will be run, and how decisions will be made?
Step 3- Establish ground rules
388
When should the parking lot items from a meeting be discussed?
Establish an Issues, decisions and actions record IDA
389
What is a parking lot within the context of meeting facilitation?
A place where issues that are important but not relevant to the topic at hand can be parked out of the congestion of discussion
390
What is another form of parking lot or board?
Issues Decisions and Actions (IDA) Record
391
After a meeting, action plans should be broken down into manageable chunks that require less than how many hours to complete?
80
392
Consensus discussions are part of what step in facilitating a meeting?
Evaluate the meeting
393
The round robin process is part of what step in meeting facilitation?
Evaluate the meeting
394
What type of meeting evaluation process involves making a chart?
Plus/Delta
395
How many types of meeting evaluation processes are there during the Evaluate the Meeting phase?
4
396
Who has appeal authority for any annual or semiannual evaluation report?
First Flag Officer in the evaluee's chain of command
397
Within the EES, each competency is defined in terms of _________ performance standards.
3 (low, middle, high)
398
Who is responsible for timely processing of an EER so that it may be reviewed by an evaluee no later than 30 days following the report period?
Approving Official
399
How well the supervisor clearly communicates the member's past performance and methods in which to improve are primary to ________.
Ensuring future success
400
How many days does a supervisor have to counsel a reservist evaluee after the end of the evaluation report period ending date?
45 days
401
How many days does a supervisor have to counsel an active duty evaluee after the end of the evaluation report period ending date?
21 days
402
An Individual Development Plan (IDP) is mandatory for __________.
First term military members
403
For first-term members reporting to a new duty station, supervisors conduct the first formal IDP review and counseling session within ________ days of reporting.
30 days
404
An Individual Development Plan is ______.
405
Supervisors have which of the following responsibilities in relation to the IDP?
Become familiar with the IDP process and purpose, implement IDP policies, encourage IDPs, assess mission and staffing needs, act as a coach and mentor, review IDP drafts, provide feedback, and identify unit resources.
406
Where is IDP counseling documented?
407
As a general rule, military members are not entitled to _______.
Cash awards, gratuities, gift certificates or coupons for recognition of superior performance of duty.
408
The individual citation for the Meritorious Service Medal and below (not including the LOC) will be prepared ________.
Landscape orientation
409
Requests for exceptions to policy for awards will be ________.
Approved only in extraordinary circumstances and considered on a case by case basis
410
Where can you look to find examples in writing a citation for a member?
CIM 1650.25 (Series) medals and awards manual Enclosure (24)
411
Which mobile app can you refer members to for information about the Coast Guard support programs and services to members and their families?
HSWL mobile app
412
Which mobile app can be used to find a unit Ombudsman using the 'Ombudsman Locator' feature?
HSWL mobile app
413
Which Office of Work-Life program is responsible for ensuring that necessary financial information and resources are available to Coast Guard personnel and their family members?
Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP)
414
Where can you access a comprehensive list of recovery assistance resources for sexual assault survivors?
RECOVERY ASSISTANCE link on SAPRR program page
415
Where can you print the two-page document from Office of Work-Life Programs, Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP) to provide financial counselling resources?
Office of Work-Life Programs : Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP)
416
Which Office of Work-Life Program can you refer members to who are seeking a business opportunity for their spouse by providing child care in a home environment?
Family Child Care (FCC)
417
At which Office of Work-Life Program site can you find a list of EAPCS?
Office of Work-Life Programs : Critical Incident Stress Response Program
418
Which Health, Safety, and Work-Life staff has the overall objective to support the well-being of active duty, reserve and civilian employees and family members?
Office of Work-Life
419
Which Office of Work-Life Program site offers information on psychological first aid?
Critical Incident Stress Response Program
420
Which Office of Work-Life Program site allows you to download the ACE card?
Office of Work-Life : Suicide Prevention Program
421
Which Work-Life Program site offers a link to download parental leave policy flyers?
Office of Work-Life Programs: Parent Resources
422
Where can you find information on the Ombudsman Program, which has served as a vital link between the Coast Guard commands and families?
Office of work life: ombudsman program
423
What is the purpose of the Sea Legs, found at the Work-Life site?
Help support a smooth transition into military life.
424
What is the purpose of the Critical Incident Stress Response (CISR) program?
Help individuals exposed to critical incidents to identify and cope with their responses to these events.
425
What is the National Suicide Prevention Lifeline number?
1-800-273-TALK (8255)
426
What is the telephone number for the SAPS Duty Line?
757-628-4329
427
What acronym should you use to respond to a member who is contemplating suicide?
ACE: Ask, Care, Escort
428
What are members of the Substance Abuse Prevention Team called?
Substance Abuse Prevention Specialist (SAPS)
429
What is the objective of the Work-Life Subsistence Program?
To provide policy and support to over 1,200 Culinary Specialists; furthermore, to enable the successful and efficient operation of 360 CGDFs service wide.
430
What type of facility provides, on a regularly scheduled basis, developmentally appropriate programs designed to foster social, emotional, physical, creative, and intellectual growth to groups of children from age 6 weeks to kindergarten that are Federally licensed and nationally accredited?
Military Child Development Centers (CDC)
431
Scholarships and school liaison programs within the Office of Work-Life (CG-111) are located under which dropdown tab?
Family support
432
Discussions of individual personal finances with a Personal Financial Manager (PFM) are _______.
Confidential
433
You can download a PDF version to provide members with the SAPRR program's 'How Do I report a Sexual Assault?' from what source?
Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Program (SAPR) - How Do I Report a Sexual Assault?
434
What program can you refer members to improve communications between the command and Coast Guard family members?
Ombudsman program
435
Where can you refer members for information about child care?
Office of Work Life - Child Development Services
436
How can you view information for Nicotine Replacement Therapy (NRT) provided to TRICARE beneficiaries?
Www.Tricare.mil/quittobacco
437
What can you provide to members requesting information about self-referrals and seeking treatment for substance abuse?
438
A friend asks you for help in reporting a sexual assault. How can you find answers about how ALCOAST 292 changed reporting requirements?
Review the FAQs
439
Which Office of Work-Life Program site offers the Coast Guard Nutrition Video Series by LCDR Trocchio?
Office of work-life: personal wellness
440
The Unit Health Promotion Resources site provides a link to which directive, which includes physical fitness responsibilities for all CG AD and SELRES personnel?
Coast Guard Health Promotion Manual - COMDTINST M6200.1E
441
The Health Promotion Program encourages members to utilize Tobacco Cessation services available at what web site?
Www. YCQ2.org
442
If your roommate confides that he/she has been sexually assaulted, what should you do?
Ensure the victim receives info about support options, including how to make a report of sexual assault or where to seek medical help.
443
Who can offer unit-wide tobacco cessation education and training upon request?
Health Promotion Manager (HPM)
444
How can you access tobacco cessation resources available through EAP?
1-855-CGSUPRT (247-8778) or www.CGSUPRT.com
445
What is a fact about quitting smoking found at the Work-Life Tobacco Cessation Program site?
Within 24 hours your lungs will start to clear out mucous
446
Within 48 hours ______.
447
What should you do to support a victim of sexual assault?
Ensure the victim receives info about support options, including how to make a report of sexual assault or where to seek medical help.
## Footnote
Support options may include counseling, legal assistance, and medical care.
448
Who can offer unit-wide tobacco cessation education and training upon request?
Health Promotion Manager (HPM)
## Footnote
The HPM is responsible for promoting health and wellness within the unit.
449
How can you access tobacco cessation resources available through EAP?
1-855-CGSUPRT (247-8778) or www.CGSUPRT.com
## Footnote
EAP stands for Employee Assistance Program.
450
What happens within 24 hours of quitting smoking?
Your lungs will start to clear out mucous.
## Footnote
Quitting smoking leads to immediate health benefits.
451
What improvement occurs within 48 hours of quitting smoking?
Your sense of smell and taste will improve.
## Footnote
Sensory improvements are some of the first benefits of quitting smoking.
452
What can you expect within 72 hours of quitting smoking?
You can breathe easier and have more energy.
## Footnote
Increased energy and improved breathing are significant milestones in the cessation process.
453
What improvements occur within 12 weeks of quitting smoking?
Coughing, breathing, and wheezing problems will improve.
## Footnote
This timeframe marks a significant recovery phase for lung function.
454
What is the reduction in heart disease risk after one year of quitting smoking?
Your risk of heart disease is reduced to 50% of a continuing smoker.
## Footnote
This statistic highlights the long-term health benefits of quitting smoking.
455
What is the risk of cancer after 10-15 years of quitting smoking?
Your risk of cancer is similar to that of someone who never smoked.
## Footnote
Long-term cessation significantly lowers cancer risk.
456
It is Coast Guard policy to ________ tobacco products.
Discourage the use of all forms of tobacco products.
## Footnote
This policy aims to promote health within the Coast Guard community.
457
What is the minimum number of Victim Advocates assigned to a unit with 250 members?
Three.
## Footnote
This ensures adequate support for victims within the unit.
458
What Work-Life resources are available for spouses?
Spouse employment program.
## Footnote
This program assists spouses in finding employment opportunities.
459
Which Work-Life Program offers telephonic assistance for financial and legal concerns?
CG SUPRT.
## Footnote
CG SUPRT provides comprehensive support services to Coast Guard members and their families.
460
What information can be found at the SAPRR program site?
Office of work-life: suicide prevention program.
## Footnote
This program provides resources and support for suicide prevention.
461
What is 'sexual assault' defined as?
intentional sexual contact.
## Footnote
This definition highlights the serious nature of sexual assault.
