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Q Deck Test Flashcards

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1
Q

What is Quality Level I?

A

best quality, highest quality, tightest tolerances

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2
Q

What is Quality Level II?

A

better quality, prestige quality, library quality

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3
Q

What is Quality Level III?

A

good quality, above average quality

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4
Q

What is Quality Level IV?

A

basic quality, informational quality, utility quality

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5
Q

What is Quality Level V?

A

functional quality, lowest usable quality, greatest tolerances

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6
Q

What is an example of a requisition number for the SF-1?

A

9-00001

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7
Q

Who issues the jacket number?

A

Government Publishing Office (GPO) when a SF-1 is received

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8
Q

Who established the terms for quality levels?

A

Quality Assurance Through Attributes Program (QATAP)

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9
Q

What is the criteria for a GREEN score on the PAR?

A

> =98% compliant

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10
Q

What is the criteria for a YELLOW score on the PAR?

A

> =95% and <98% compliant

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11
Q

What is the criteria for a RED score on the PAR?

A

<95% compliant

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12
Q

What is used for assets with no manufacturer?

A

NOMANNO

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13
Q

What is used for assets with no serial number?

A

NOSERNO

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14
Q

What is used for assets with no model number?

A

NOMODNO

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15
Q

What are the six steps to support optimal use of the PAR?

A
  • Review
  • Evaluate
  • Assign
  • Prioritize
  • Correct
  • Report
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16
Q

How often is the PAR updated?

A

monthly

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17
Q

What is used as an entry for a manufacturer that does not comply with reporting requirements?

A

blanks, UNKNOWN, or 0 (zero)

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18
Q

What is used as an entry for a model number that does not comply with reporting requirements?

A

blanks, Various, or UNK

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19
Q

What is used as an entry for a serial number that does not comply with reporting requirements?

A

blanks, VARIOUS, or SILV Creamer

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20
Q

What are the three metric views of the PAR?

A
  • Executive
  • Regional Support Team (RST) or District without BPR
  • Correction Board
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21
Q

What is the written agreement for IRWA required by?

A

Title 31 U.S.C 1501

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22
Q

What is the definition of an Interagency Agreement (IAA)?

A

standard template and communication tool between the Buyer and Seller and enables them to agree on the data elements and terms of the reimbursable transaction before business begins

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23
Q

Interagency acquisitions are under what Economy Act?

A

Economy Act (31 USC 1535)

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24
Q

What are the 5th and 6th digits of the document number for IRWA?

A

FT

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25
What is the definition of a Military Independent Purchase Request (MIPR)?
used by DOD activity to place an order for supplies or non-personal services with a 'servicing agency' that could be either another DOD activity or a non DOD federal activity
26
What FAR part defines IRWAs?
FAR 17.500
27
What is the purpose of General Terms and Conditions (GT&C)?
govern the relationship between CG and the Buyer by defining the roles and responsibilities
28
What is used to determine the marking and labeling of shipments?
MIL-STD-129
29
If damage exists, how long does the TSP have to inspect?
up to 7 calendar days
30
What form is used to document transportation discrepancies?
DD-361, Transportation Discrepancy Report
31
What is used for Bill of Lading corrections for GBLs?
SF-1200, Government Bill of Lading Correction Notice
32
What is used for Bill of Lading corrections for CBLs?
GFM/ETA correction notice
33
Who must issue the required correction notice?
the original Bill of Lading-issuing office
34
What is not authorized to document corrections on Bill of Ladings?
pen and ink changes
35
How many digits is a Transportation Control Number (TCN)?
17 alphanumeric
36
What is the example of a Transportation Control Number (TCN)?
Z3106030010001XXX
37
Who must ensure internal procedures are established to control stocks and assign accountability for GBL issuance and use?
Transportation Officer (TO)
38
GSA mandated the elimination of GBL use for CONUS freight shipments on what date?
April 1, 2002
39
All sensitive AA&E will require what form?
DD-1907, Signature and Tally Form
40
What are classified as small quantity shipments for AA&E?
* 15 or fewer small arms * 200 pounds or less of ammunition
41
If the selected mode is less than a truckload (LTL), shipments (except weapons) must be over-packed to a minimum of what weight for AA&E?
minimum of 200 pounds
42
What form is completed by the person who deposits firearms for mailing?
PS Form 1508, Shipper of Firearms
43
How often is CG HAZMAT employee required to have training?
at least once every two years
44
What governs domestic modes of shipment for hazardous materials?
Title 49 CFR
45
What form is used for emergency response information for all government/MOV vehicles transporting HAZMAT?
DD Form 836, Dangerous Goods Shipping Paper/Declaration and Emergency Response Information for Hazardous Materials Transported by Government Vehicles/Containers or Vessel
46
What are the different Transportation Account Codes (TCN)?
* Coast Guard: Z * Army: A * Air Force: F * Defense Logistics Agency: S * Navy: N * Navy: P (Military Assistance Program and Foreign) * Marine Corps: L (First Destination) * Marine Corps: M (Second Destination)
47
What is the shipment limits of USPS?
weight limit of 70 pounds and a size limit of 108 girth or 130 girth depending on priority or package services
48
Who handles shipments to APO/FPO addresses?
USPS
49
Who gives clearance for overseas airlift?
Air Mobility Command
50
What form is sent to DOD Air Clearance Activity prior to releasing shipment to TSP for movement to applicable aerial port?
DD-1384, Transportation Control and Movement Document
51
What is the Coast Guard export identification number?
52-059221300
52
What is used for all international freight shipments?
Government Bill of Lading (GBL)
53
Government-owned transportation can be used for short distance deliveries within a what mile radius?
50-mile radius
54
What governs the disposal and shipping requirements for HAZWASTE?
40 CFR and 49 CFR
55
Who is responsible for the accurate transfer of information to the Bill of Lading?
TO/TA
56
Who handles the oversight of all Coast Guard appropriations?
CG-83
57
Who handles day-to-day management of appropriated funds?
CG-8D
58
What are the three elements that must be met in order for an obligation/expenditure is legal?
Purpose is one of the three basic elements in determining whether appropriations are legally available for obligation or expenditure . In order for an obligation or expenditure to be legal, each of these three elements must be met: 1. Purpose - The purpose of the obligation or expenditure must make a direct contribution to an authorized Coast Guard function 2. Time - The obligation shall occur within the time limits applicable to the appropriation. 3. Amount - The obligation and expenditure shall be within the amounts Congress has - established.
59
What does the Chief Human Capital Officer (CHCO) do?
establishes and implements procedures and guidelines outlining appropriate disciplinary action for misuse/abuse of the purchase card
60
What happens with a Tier II violation?
the approving official notified the CPOPC to suspend the account
61
What happens with a Tier I violation?
the approving official will issue a written warning to the cardholder and inform the CPOPC in writing
62
What happens with a Tier III violation?
employee will be subject to disciplinary actions up to and including dismissal
63
Who can reinstate suspended cards from Tier violations?
Agency Program Coordinator (APC) or higher
64
What is the purchase cap for decorative items?
$5,000 per year
65
What is the total cost limit for individual awards and recognition?
$100 or less
66
What FAR Part governs micro-purchases?
FAR Part 13
67
What is the maximum amount you can purchase on a purchase card that exceeds the micro-purchase threshold?
$150,000
68
What does the Stafford Act do?
the Chief Procurement Officer (CPO) may authorize the Component head of the contracting activity (HCA) to increase the micro-purchase threshold for emergency procurements
69
Who is authorized to temporarily lift a Merchant Category Code restriction?
Component Primary Organization Program Coordinator (CPOPC)
70
What form is needed for purchase of individual training?
SF-182
71
For freight bills of $100 what is needed?
a separate PR or line item to identify freight charges and a separate carrier receipt
72
What is a Statement of Work (SOW)?
a document that captures and defines the work activities, deliverables, and timeline a vendor must execute in performance of specified work for a client
73
What is a Statement of Objectives (SOO)?
a requirement objective that describes the governments' requirements in terms of overall performance objectives
74
What does Section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 do?
requires that federal employees with disabilities have access and use of electronic and information technology as do federal employees with no disabilities
75
Who must approve all IT procurements over $100k?
USCG Chief Information Officer (CIO)
76
When shall a Contracting Officer Representative (COR) be appointed?
when the procurement exceed the SAT
77
What FAR subpart is used for GPO?
FAR Subpart 8.8
78
What FAR subpart is used for Leased Motor Vehicles?
FAR Subpart 8.11
79
Who must approve maintenance cost for GSA leased vehicles over $100?
GSA Fleet (GSA Maintenance Control Center)
80
What FAR part provides instructions for other than full and open competition purchases exceeding the SAT?
FAR 13.501
81
What does the 'Availability of Funds' clause refer to?
FAR clause 52.232-19
82
How many days does a cardholder have to dispute a charge before the USCG is held liable for the payment?
90 days
83
What is the percentage fee for the face value of each convenience check?
2%
84
What is the allowable surcharge vendors can charge against a purchase card?
no more than 4%
85
How many cardholders/purchases can an AO manage per month?
not to exceed seven cardholders and up to 300 purchases
86
What FAR subpart provides guidance on purchases at or below the MPT?
Far Subpart 13.2
87
SAP files shall be retained for the period specified in what FAR part?
FAR 4.805
88
What clause permits the Government to terminate a contract for commercial items for convenience or for cause?
FAR 52.212-4
89
What form is used for soliciting quotes for commercial items?
SF-1449
90
Construction projects that range between $15k to $35k must be posted locally for what period of time?
no less than 10 days
91
What additional paperwork is needed for a HAZMAT purchase?
Statement of Essential Need (SEN)
92
How many digits is a Procurement Instrument Identifier (PIID)?
17 alphanumeric characters
93
How many FAR Parts are there?
53 Parts
94
Where is the FAR found?
Chapter 1 of Title 48 CFR
95
What is the micro-purchase threshold for construction?
$2,000
96
What is the micro-purchase threshold for services?
$2,500
97
What is the micro-purchase threshold in support of contingency operations or to facilitate defense?
* CONUS - $20,000 * OCONUS - $30,000
98
Contract actions expected to exceed $25,000 must be posted where?
FedBizOpps
99
What FAR Part handles Simplified Acquisition Procedures?
FAR Part 13
100
What is the tax exempt number?
B-239641
101
What is the federal tax id number?
SF-6010204
102
What is the tax exempt form?
SF-1094
103
What is Advice Code 2A?
Item not locally attainable
104
What is Advice Code 2B?
Requested item only will suffice
105
What is Advice Code 2C?
Do not backorder, suitable substitute is acceptable
106
What is Advice Code 2D?
Furnish exact quantity
107
What is Advice Code 2E?
Free issue
108
What is Advice Code 2J?
Do not substitute or backorder any unfilled quantities.
109
What is Advice Code 2L?
Quantity reflected exceed normal demand / valid requirement
110
What is Advice Code 2F?
Obsolete but still required
111
What is Status code BA?
Item being processed for release and shipment
112
What is Status code BB?
Item back ordered against a due-in to stock.
113
What is Status code BF?
No record of your document for which AF_ was submitted for
114
What is Status code BG?
One or more of the following fields have been changed: * Stock Number * Unit of Issue * Requisitioned part has been replaced by another part number
115
What is Status code BS?
Requisition cancelled due to no MOV validation
116
What is Status code BT?
Requisition has been received and will be processed for attempted release
117
What is Status code BK?
Requisition has been modified as requested
118
What is Status code BZ?
Item being processed for direct delivery
119
What is Status code BV?
Item procured and on contract for direct shipment
120
What is Status Code BR?
Cancelled due to MOV response
121
What is Status code BN?
Requisition being processed as free issue
122
What is Shipment Hold Code H?
Act of God
123
What is Shipment Hold Code A?
Shipment unit held for consolidation
124
What is Shipment Hold Code B?
Awaiting carrier equipment
125
What is Shipment Hold Code F?
Embargo
126
What is Shipment Hold Code G?
Strikes, Riots, Civil Commotion
127
What is Shipment Hold Code J?
Delayed due to cancellation request
128
What is Shipment Hold Code C?
Awaiting export/domestic traffic release
129
What is Shipment Hold Code D?
Delay due to air clearance
130
What is Shipment Hold Code N?
Delay due to diversion to air
131
What is Shipment Hold Code Z?
Holding action of less than 24 hours before materiel is available for shipment
132
What is Signal Code A?
Ship to/bill to requisitioner
133
What is Signal Code B?
Ship to requisitioner/bill to supplementary address
134
What is Signal Code D?
Ship to requisitioner/no billing
135
What is Signal Code J?
Ship to supplementary/bill to requisitioner
136
What is Signal Code K?
Ship to/bill to supplementary
137
What is Signal Code M?
Ship to supplementary/no billing
138
What is Signal Code C?
Ship to requisitioner/bill to addressee in rp 52/53
139
What is Signal Code L?
Ship to supplementary/bill to addressee in rp 52/53
140
What is Routing Identifier Code (RIC) SMS?
DLA
141
What is Routing Identifier Code (RIC) NRP?
NAVSUP Weapon Systems Support
142
What is Routing Identifier Code (RIC) GSA?
General Service Administration
143
What is Routing Identifier Code (RIC) ZNC?
ELC (Electronics/General Inventory)
144
What is Routing Identifier Code (RIC) ZQC?
ARSC
145
What is Routing Identifier Code (RIC) ZIC/ZIB?
ELC (Ships Inventory)
146
What is Routing Identifier Code (RIC) B69?
USA Medical Materiel Agency
147
What is Supply Condition Code A?
Serviceable (issuable without qualification)
148
What is Supply Condition Code B?
Serviceable (issuable with qualification)
149
What is Supply Condition Code F?
Unserviceable (reparable)
150
What is Supply Condition Code J?
Suspended (in stock)
151
What is Supply Condition Code K?
Suspended (returns)
152
What is Supply Condition Code S?
Unserviceable (scrap)
153
What is Supply Condition Code D?
Serviceable (test/modification)
154
What is Supply Condition Code C?
Serviceable (priority issue)
155
What is Method of Shipment Codes A?
Motor, truckload
156
What is Method of Shipment Codes B?
Motor, less than truckload
157
What is Method of Shipment Codes C?
Van
158
What is Method of Shipment Codes E?
Bus
159
What is Method of Shipment Codes F?
Air Mobility Command
160
What is Method of Shipment Codes G?
Surface parcel post
161
What is Method of Shipment Codes H?
Air parcel post
162
What is Method of Shipment Codes I?
Government Trucks
163
What is Method of Shipment Codes J?
Air, small package carrier
164
What is Method of Shipment Codes K?
Rail, carload
165
What is Method of Shipment Codes N?
Shipper agent (hand carry)
166
What is Method of Shipment Codes M?
Surface - freight forwarder
167
What is Method of Shipment Codes T?
Air - freight forwarder
168
What is Method of Shipment Codes V?
SEAVAN
169
What is Method of Shipment Codes 7?
Express mail
170
What is Method of Shipment Codes 8?
Pipeline
171
What is Method of Shipment Codes 9?
Local delivery by government or commercial truck
172
What is Method of Shipment Codes 5?
Surface, small package carrier
173
What is Method of Shipment Codes X?
Customer pickup
174
What is Method of Shipment Codes Q?
Commercial air freight
175
What is Force/Activity Designator (FAD) I?
Priority 1 - 4 days CONUS/12-14 days OCONUS/6.5 Express
176
What is Priority 4?
* 7 days CONUS
177
What is the method of shipment code for Express mail?
7
178
What does the method of shipment code 'X' signify?
Customer pickup
179
What is the priority time frame for Priority 1 under Force/Activity Designator (FAD) I?
4 days CONUS/12-14 days OCONUS/6.5 Express
180
What is the priority time frame for Priority 4 under Force/Activity Designator (FAD) I?
7 days CONUS/17-19 days OCONUS/14 days CONUS/37-71 days OCONUS
181
What is the DIC for Requisition overseas with NSN?
A01
182
What is the DIC for Cancellation by requisitioner?
AC1
183
What is the DIC for Materiel Release order domestic with NSN?
A5A
184
What does Media Status code 'A' indicate?
100% supply/shipment status to requisitioner
185
What unit of issue is represented by 'AM'?
Ampoule
186
What does DD-361 stand for?
Transportation Discrepancy Report
187
What is the purpose of FAR Part 1?
Federal Acquisition Regulations System
188
Who is responsible for guidance on the proper care and maintenance for heritage artifacts?
CG-09224
189
What is the timeline for Adjustment Form (CG-3114)?
PC - 10, APO - 10, PA - 10, Overall - 30
190
What items are not eligible for exchange/sale under 41 CFR 102-39?
10 - Weapons, 11 - Nuclear Ordnance, 12 - Fire Control Equipment, 14 - Guided Missiles, 42 - Firefighting, rescue, and safety equipment, 51 - Hand Tools
191
What is a record to floor count?
The comparison of the personal property records to the physical assets identified
192
What is the DIC for Request for Tracking?
AFT
193
What is the DIC for Disposal Shipment Confirmation?
AFZ
194
What is the DIC for Document Modifier overseas with part number?
AM2
195
What unit of issue is represented by 'PT'?
Pint
196
What is the DIC for Follow Up by requisitioner?
AF1
197
What is the final authority approval for Acquisition Costs of Property less than $5,000?
Unit COs, OIC, Supervisors, and Staff Element Office Chiefs
198
What is the DIC for Disposal Release order from ICP?
A5J
199
What is the DIC for MOV request to requisitioner?
AN1
200
What is the DIC for Shipment Status to requisitioner?
AS1
201
Who is notified of an impairment to aircraft/boat/vessel?
CG-41
202
How many days must CG-6 be notified of an impairment to electronics property?
within 15 days or prior to fiscal year end
203
What color letters and numerals are used on white hulls for vessel markings?
Black (17038)
204
What is the DIC for Document Modifier from ICP to change RDD to 555?
AMP
205
What is the maximum number of days for temporary transfers for repairs, maintenance, etc.?
under 30 days ## Footnote Temporary transfers are not recorded in ORACLE.
206
What is the CG-4502 used for?
Report of Exchange/Sale ## Footnote It is also known as the Report of Excess Property CG-4501.
207
Units are required to report lost property within how many hours?
within 24 hours ## Footnote This applies following the discovery of the loss, theft, damage, or destruction.
208
What is the timeline for the Report of Survey CG-5269?
PC - 3 days, Survey Officer - 7 days, Board of Survey - 20 days, CO/OIC/Supervisor - 5 days, Regional/Program manager - 10 days, Final Approving - 15 days ## Footnote Total - 60 days.
209
What is required for a Coast Guard Official Message regarding lost, stolen, damaged, and destroyed property?
Items with a permanent assigned serial number and an acquisition cost of $500 or more ## Footnote This is necessary for reporting such incidents.
210
What are the three processes for the disposition of property?
* Report of Survey * Excess Property * Abandonment and Destruction
211
What is property disposal code 1?
new or unused condition
212
What is property disposal code 4?
some wear but can be used without significant repair
213
What is property disposal code 7?
unusable but can be economically repaired
214
What is property disposal code X?
salvage (has basic material value but repair impractical)
215
What is property disposal code S?
scrap (no value for its basic material content)
216
What property disposal code/condition code is not a candidate for the Abandonment and Destruction process?
7 or higher (1,4,7)
217
What is the supplemental form for all aircraft and vehicles for excess property?
SF-120, Report of Excess Personal Property
218
What is the timeline for Report of Excess Personal Property?
PC - 10 days, APO - 5 days, CO/OIC/Supervisor - 5 days, Regional/Program manager - 5 days, Final Approving - 5 days ## Footnote Total - 30 days.
219
How long must property be reported to the SFLC Bulletin?
minimum of 20 days
220
What form is needed to transfer excess property to other CG units?
DD-1149
221
What form is used to report transfer of property to Federal Agencies other than DHS?
SF-122, Transfer Order Excess Personal Property
222
What form is used to report the donation of property?
SF-123, Transfer Order Surplus Personal Property
223
What form is used to report the sale of property?
SF-126, Report of Personal Property for Sale
224
What is the CG-5598 used for?
Abandonment and Destruction of Personal Property Form
225
What disposal code shall a CG-5598 be used for?
Disposal code S
226
What is the timeline for CG-5598?
PC - 6 days, APO - 5 days, HAZMAT - 2 days (if applicable), Security Officer - 2 days (if applicable), CO/OIC/Supervisor - 5 days, Regional/Program manager - 5 days (if applicable), Final Approving - 5 days ## Footnote Total - 30 days.
227
What is the policy that Coast Guard follows for demilitarization of assets?
DOD Manual, M4160.28 Volume 1
228
What is the value for Government Furnished Equipment (GFE) that must be reported to the APO?
$25,000
229
What is the depreciation time for Aircraft?
20-35 years
230
What is the depreciation time for Boats, standard?
5-30 years
231
What is characterized as Sensitive Personal Property?
* Dangerous and hazardous property * Drill weapons * Property with data storage capabilities * All property authorized for processing and/or storing classified information
232
What is the value of Internal-Use Software for mandatory reporting?
$25,000 or more
233
What form is used if a gift is not retained for official use or returned to the donor?
CG-4501
234
How long must the CG retain forfeited/seized or abandoned property before retention or disposal action can begin?
45 days
235
What is Category A for aircraft acquisition?
authorized for sale and exchange for commercial use
236
Who serves as the acquisition branch for aircraft?
CG-931
237
What report is used for receipting for aircraft?
DD-250, Material Inspection and Receiving Report
238
What form is used for a unit to accept a boat from non-CG sources?
CG-2580A, Boat Record
239
What is the capitalization threshold for Personal Property like Aircrafts, Vessels, Electronics Systems?
$200,000
240
What is the required Sources of Supplies and Services?
Unit's weapons officer
241
What is the Surf Requisition Log form?
CG-4940
242
What DIC series is used when cancellation is not possible due to materiel being shipped?
AU_ series
243
What DIC is used for acknowledging non-receipt of the count if the MOV is incorrect?
APX
244
What are the timeframes for MOV validations?
PD 01-08 after 30 days, PD 09-15 after 75 days
245
What DIC code is used for MOV Control transaction?
AN9
246
What DIC series is used for MOVs?
AN_ series
247
What DIC is used for acknowledging receipt of the count is correct for a MOV?
AP9
248
What DIC series is used in response to MOVs?
AP_ series
249
What are the timeframes for MOV validations?
250
When ordering with a NGA Reference Number, what DICs should be used for CONUS?
A0D
251
When ordering with a NGA Reference Number, what DICs should be used for OCONUS?
A04
252
What form is used to report any configuration change of Navy owned equipment to ELC?
OPNAV 4790/CK, Ship's Configuration Change Form
253
What is the first source of supply for all CASREP/AOG requirements?
parts pooling
254
What form is used to purchase items from SERVMART?
NAVSUP 1314, SERVMART Shopping List
255
What must be included when ordering Flag Officer Stationary?
the title and address to be printed on accompanying envelopes
256
On what stationary is the Coast Guard emblem printed?
* Invitations * Place Cards * Letter and Letterhead * Informal Notes
257
Who is Flag Officer stationary used for?
Flag Officers O-7 through O-10
258
What is used for column 67-69 on the DD-1348-1A for requisitioning Ozone Depleting Substances (ODS)?
SRG
259
What is used for column 57-59 on the DD-1348-1A for requisitioning Ozone Depleting Substances (ODS)?
GDB
260
What is used for column 4-6 on the DD-1348-1A for requisitioning Ozone Depleting Substances (ODS)?
S9G
261
What signal code is used for when FINCEN is the billing address?
A
262
What can a DD-1149 be used for?
263
Who maintains the Intermediate Repair (IR) engine serial numbers?
cognizant MLC
264
Who can authorize the zeroing of engine hours via the installing of a remanufactured engine?
ELC Central Engine Overhaul (CEO)
265
Who is the only activity authorized to contract remanufacturing service?
ELC
266
When the cost of intermediate repair exceeds 50% of the priced asset, what must be done with the engine?
Sent back to ELC for remanufacture
267
Who determines engine overhaul costs?
ELC
268
Engine remanufacture cost is not to exceed what percent of the total cost?
65%
269
What website provides barcoding information?
Coast Guard's Vessel Logistics Systems (VLS)
270
What CG branch handles barcode equipment?
CG-442
271
Local CAGE codes start with what?
00001
272
The placement of a Configuration Item (CI) relates to what?
Form, Fit, and Function of the item
273
Who reviews new items introduced into the supply system to determine whether items already exist that can do the job?
ELC and ARSC
274
What is the Federal Supply Classification System?
designed to classify all items of supply used by the Federal Government
275
How many FSC groups are there?
78 groups
276
What is the breakdown of a FSC?
first two digits are group and last two digits are class
277
How many classes are assigned to FSCs?
642 classes
278
What is the National Codification Bureau (NCB) code?
identifies the country that assigned the stock number or indicates that two or more countries use the stock number
279
What does NCB code 00 mean?
identifies all NIINs assigned before 31 March 1975
280
What does NCB code 01 mean?
identifies all NIINs assigned after 31 March 1975
281
What does NCB code DW mean?
identifies Deepwater assets
282
How many digits are in the National Stock Number (NSN)?
13 digits
283
How many digits are in the National Item Identification Code (NIIN)?
9 digits
284
Who assigns a NSN to an item?
Defense Logistics Information Service (DLIS)
285
Who is responsible for cataloging and maintaining any Coast Guard managed materiel within the Federal Supply System?
ELC and ARSC
286
What is a Cognizance Symbol (COG)?
two-position numeric-alpha code identifying a stock number's item with the Coast Guard or Navy inventory manager of a specific category of materiel
287
What is Activity Code XG?
ELC
288
What is Activity Code XH?
ARSC (think H for helicopter)
289
What is a Coast Guard Activity Code?
provides field units with points of contact for cataloging requests and assistance
290
When is cataloging not needed?
291
What are Activity Control Numbers (ACNs)?
items that are stocked at Coast Guard ICPs (similar to NSNs but not all numeric)
292
What are Navy Item Control Numbers (NICNs)?
assigned to items not included in the FCS but stocked and monitored by Navy Supply Centers
293
What is the value of Pre-Expended Bin items?
$50 or less/one month usage with the exception of items such as bolts/nuts/screws
294
What cannot be in the Pre-Expended Bin?
Depot Level Repairable (DLR)
295
What is the value of shop stock items?
$50 or less
296
Who reviews the items listed for the Pre-Expended Bin?
the Supply Officer (quarterly)
297
Storeroom Items (SRI) of less than $50 are considered what?
not to be expended and considered shop stock to avoid maintaining them on inventory
298
What month supply can shop stock items cover?
no more than 6 month supply
299
What are the requirements for storing inventory?
* Demand * Demand Frequency * Maintenance plans and/or a predetermined allowance * Parts belonging to a Rotatable Pool
300
What are the activities in the Coast Guard that maintain inventory?
301
What Condition Code is used if the ICP is unable to determine the present condition?
Condition Code J
302
What must ELC or ARSC complete upon the receipt of a Controlled Materiel Report of Condition Change?
CG-5269, Report of Survey
303
Who has unit materiel management and accountability?
Commanding Officer or Officer in Charge
304
Unit inventory consists of what?
storeroom items (SRI), that can be DLRs and repair parts
305
Aviation units shall maintain a stock record of what items that are not accounted for in the Aviation Material Management Information System (AMMIS)?
* Type 3 - Non-avionics Aeronautical materiel with a unit price less than $250 * Type 5 - Avionics materiel with a unit price less than $800
306
Who authorizes allowance quantity changes for aviation DLR and repair parts?
ARSC
307
DLR/MTI items are ordered on a what basis?
one-for-one basis (send old one back when new one gets in)
308
What is considered Selected Item Management (SIM) items?
items that have two or more demands recorded in the last six months
309
What is the demand frequency for PEB?
5 or more times per month unit-wide (used for maintenance tasks)
310
What items are not eligible for SIM?
311
What is the frequency for Not Carried items before it can be added to stock?
two demands of a recurring nature with a one year period
312
What is classified as a Non-SIM item?
items that do not have a high usage demand, are not of the allowance list, and usually are not high dollar or reparable
313
When is a SIM item considered a Non-SIM item?
when there has been no demand in the last 6 months
314
What are the three stocking levels?
* Operating Level (OL) * Order & Ship Time Level (O&ST) * Safety Level (SL)
315
How many days of supply are for Operating Level stocking?
75 days
316
What is the Economic Order Quantity (EOQ)?
317
How many days should mini-random physical inventories be separated?
at least 60 calendar days
318
If a unit fails the 4th quarter statistical random samples, within how many days must a wall to wall be completed?
45 days of the signature date for Year End Certification Memorandum
319
If a unit fails two back-to-back mini-random physical inventories, within how many days must a wall to wall be completed?
45 days
320
Who approves waivers for physical inventories?
CG-441, Logistics Program Management
321
What type of discrepancy does not count towards inventory accuracy?
price discrepancy
322
What are the two ways to validate accuracy of inventory?
* wall-to-wall * sample
323
What is the 'blind count' method for Count Team?
CT will not have access to stock record on-hand quantities before or during the count phase
324
How many people are on the count team?
two or more
325
If a 2nd count is needed, who is used for the 2nd count team?
At least one person not assigned to the first count and not involved in issues, receipts, or physical custody of inventory
326
Within how many days of inventory completion does the PICO forward the memo with attachments?
within 3 days
327
How long is year end certification documentation kept for physical inventories?
3 fiscal years plus current year
328
What is used to document inventory and/or price changes?
CG-3114, Adjustment Form
329
How many days does the unit have to complete a wall-to-wall after failing two consecutive wall-to-wall inventories?
20 days
330
How long are physical inventories kept?
3 years plus current fiscal year
331
What are the three types of research for physical inventory discrepancies?
* Post Count Validation * Pre-Adjustment Research * Causative Research
332
When does causative research end?
when the cause of the discrepancy has been discovered or when, after review of the transactions, no conclusive findings are possible
333
When shall the results of the physical inventory be reported?
within 15 days or by the end of the second month of each quarter
334
How many days does the unit have for the reconciliation phase?
15 days
335
What are the 5 phases of a physical inventory?
* Preparation * Count * Reconciliation * Reporting * Documentation
336
Discrepancies after the 3rd count verification are counted as what?
errors
337
Who must have access to the inventory records and the storeroom/warehouse locations at all times?
Physical Inventory Control Officer (PICO)
338
Who designates the Physical Inventory Control Officer (PICO)?
CO/OIC
339
Who do the count team report directly to?
PICO
340
Who has access to the inventory records but not the storeroom/warehouse during the count?
Research Analyst (RA)
341
If a unit fails the statistical random sample, who does the PICO contact?
CG-441
342
What is the variance allowed for on hand quantities for weighted or measured items?
(+/-) 5%
343
What is Type I shelf-life items?
items expired on the expiration date are unfit for use
344
What is Type II shelf-life items?
items that are visually inspected, laboratory tested, or other restorative actions taken to extend shelf-life storage periods
345
Who ensures that shelf-life items/materiel meet the requisitioner's requirements?
Wholesale-level Supply Activities (SA)
346
What is the shelf-life code for Type I items?
alpha character (except x)
347
What is the shelf-life code for Type II items?
numeric character and alpha character (Example: 1X)
348
What is the First-In-First-Out (FIFO) method?
349
What percentage of remaining shelf-life is required at time of receipt?
minimum of 85%
350
What is the Shelf-Life Extension Notice?
DD-2477
351
What class of shelf-life items are not authorized for return?
Class II perishable subsistence and Class VIII medical
352
What management code is used on DD-1348-1A/DD-1348-2 for expired shelf-life items?
T (rp 72)
353
What goes in block 27 on DD-1348-1A/DD-1348-2 for shelf-life items?
Shelf-Life Property
354
What is Cognizance Code XB?
for electronic equipment owned and managed by ELC
355
What condition code is used for discrepant materiel received?
L
356
What DIC is used for receipt transaction?
DRA or D4S
357
When is a Supply Discrepancy Report (SDR) used?
upon receipt of incorrect items, quantities, shelf-life issues, and poor packaging
358
When is a Quality Deficiency Report (QDR) used?
when procured CG and OGA items do not meet the fit, form, or function of the mission for which they were intended
359
What is the minimum number of days from the date of the SDR response that a follow up can be initiated?
60 days
360
What DIC and Advice Code is used for billing adjustments for SDRs?
GAE and 26
361
What is annotated above the Date block on an invalid SDR?
"CANCELLED" or "CORRECTED"
362
What is the reply timeframe for shipments of controlled inventory items with a SDR?
30 calendar days from date of receipt of report
363
What is the reply timeframe for non-controlled inventory items with a SDR?
55 calendar days from date of receipt of report
364
What is the dollar value a credit is not generally given for QDR materials?
under $100
365
Who assists with finding adequate storage facilities for QDR materiel?
the cognizant MLC or District Commander
366
What Advice Code is used to denote a free issue item where a defective carcass is available to turn in?
5G
367
What Advice Code denotes cost items where additional equipment is requested and no defective carcass is available to turn in?
5D
368
What Advice Code denotes a replacement is requested and no defective carcass is available for turn in?
5A
369
What is the follow up timeframe for MRP credits?
60 calendar days of receipt status FTZ
370
What DIC is used for follow up of MRP credits?
FTP
371
Within what time shall a unit package the unserviceable DLR item?
within 48 hours of receipt of replacement item
372
What Advice Code series is used for DLR items?
"5_" series
373
How are DOD owned/managed items identified?
by their "7" series cogniz
374
What status codes are used for MRP items for credits?
TA (creditable return) or TB (noncreditable return) ## Footnote TA and TB are specific codes indicating the type of return status for MRP items.
375
What is the follow up timeframe for MRP credits?
60 calendar days of receipt status FTZ ## Footnote FTZ refers to the Foreign Trade Zone status for tracking MRP credits.
376
What DIC is used for follow up of MRP credits?
FTP ## Footnote FTP stands for a specific Document Identifier Code used in the follow-up process.
377
Within what time shall a unit package the unservicable DLR item?
within 48 hours of receipt of replacement item ## Footnote This timeframe is critical for maintaining inventory and operational readiness.
378
What Advice Code series is used for DLR items?
"5_" series ## Footnote The '5_' series is designated for specific advice regarding DLR items.
379
How are DOD owned/managed items identified?
by their "7" series cognizant symbol ## Footnote The '7' series indicates items that are owned or managed by the Department of Defense.
380
What DIC series is used to track returns?
BK_ series ## Footnote The BK_ series is specifically for tracking the return of items.
381
What form is used for the Identification Tag?
DD-1577-2 ## Footnote This form is used to tag items for identification purposes.
382
What form is used for the Identification Label?
DD-1577-3 ## Footnote This form serves to label items for identification.
383
What must accompany a tag or label for DLR items?
BC1 document ## Footnote The BC1 document provides necessary information for DLR items.
384
What kind of shipping is used for PRI 03 and 06 items?
via traceable means (FedEx, AWB, etc.) ## Footnote Traceable shipping ensures accountability for these priority items.
385
What kind of shipping is used for PRI 13 items?
certified mail ## Footnote Certified mail is used for secure and verifiable shipping of PRI 13 items.
386
What is notated in AMMIS when a DLR is received by an Air Station and put into storage until use?
REC for received ## Footnote REC indicates that the DLR item has been received and stored.
387
What is entered into AMMIS when supply has NRFI item to ship?
BK1 ## Footnote BK1 is the code for entering non-ready for issue items in the system.
388
What is entered into AMMIS when supply ships NRFI to ARSC?
AS2 ## Footnote AS2 is the code used when shipping non-ready for issue items to the Army Reserve Support Command.
389
Within how many days must a unit return a carcass for a DLR?
within 30 days ## Footnote Timely return of carcasses is important for inventory management.
390
Within how many days must a DLR be returned to DOD?
10 days ## Footnote This quick turnaround is essential for maintaining DOD resources.
391
What is the Allowance Change Request form?
NAVSUP 1220-2 ## Footnote This form is used for requesting changes in allowances.
392
For units with more than 99 storage locations, what comes after 99Z9Z?
100A1A ## Footnote This format continues the numbering for storage locations.
393
For units with more than 9 locations across, what is the next location after 01A9A?
01A10A ## Footnote This format is used to designate additional drawer locations.
394
For unit shore side storage, what is used for warehouse?
W ## Footnote The letter 'W' designates warehouse storage locations.
395
For unit shore side storage, what is used for shed?
S ## Footnote The letter 'S' indicates shed storage locations.
396
For unit shore side storage, what is used for trailer?
T ## Footnote The letter 'T' is used for trailer storage locations.
397
What size is the font lettering on storage locations?
approximately 1 inch ## Footnote This size ensures visibility and readability of storage location markings.
398
What is the minimum amount of digits on a storage location?
minimum of 5 digits (not to exceed 8) ## Footnote This ensures a standardized format for storage locations.
399
What is the sample size for inventory line items of 1-150?
20 ## Footnote This sample size is used for auditing purposes.
400
What is the sample size for inventory line items of 151-280?
32 ## Footnote This sample size is used for auditing purposes.
401
What is the sample size for inventory line items of 281-500?
40 ## Footnote This sample size is used for auditing purposes.
402
What is the sample size for inventory line items of 501-1,200?
80 ## Footnote This sample size is used for auditing purposes.
403
What is the sample size for inventory line items of 1,201-3,200?
120 ## Footnote This sample size is used for auditing purposes.
404
What is the sample size for inventory line items of 3,201-10,000?
200 ## Footnote This sample size is used for auditing purposes.
405
What is the sample size for inventory line items of 10,001-35,000?
315 ## Footnote This sample size is used for auditing purposes.
406
What is the 'Record to Floor' sample size for inventory line items of 501-1,200?
8 ## Footnote This refers to the number of items to be sampled.
407
What is the 'Floor to Record' sample size for inventory line items of 1,201-3,200?
12 ## Footnote This refers to the number of items to be sampled.
408
What is the total number of errors allowed for inventory line items of 3,201-10,000?
11 ## Footnote This indicates the maximum allowable discrepancies.
409
What is the total number of errors allowed for inventory line items of 1,201-3,200?
6 ## Footnote This indicates the maximum allowable discrepancies.
410
What is the total number of errors allowed for inventory line items of 501-1,200?
4
411
What is the total number of errors allowed for inventory line items of 10,001-35,000?
17 ## Footnote This indicates the maximum allowable discrepancies.

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