MEGA GAUNTLET Flashcards

Everything Everywhere All At One time (Legally it's different lol) (1275 cards)

1
Q

What is Quality Level I?

A

best quality, highest quality, tightest tolerances

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2
Q

What is Quality Level II?

A

better quality, prestige quality, library quality

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3
Q

What is Quality Level III?

A

good quality, above average quality

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4
Q

What is Quality Level IV?

A

basic quality, informational quality, utility quality

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5
Q

What is Quality Level V?

A

functional quality, lowest usable quality, greatest tolerances

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6
Q

What is an example of a requisition number for the SF-1?

A

9-00001

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7
Q

Who issues the jacket number?

A

Government Publishing Office (GPO) when a SF-1 is received

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8
Q

Who established the terms for quality levels?

A

Quality Assurance Through Attributes Program (QATAP)

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9
Q

What is the criteria for a GREEN score on the PAR?

A

> =98% compliant

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10
Q

What is the criteria for a YELLOW score on the PAR?

A

> =95% and <98% compliant

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11
Q

What is the criteria for a RED score on the PAR?

A

<95% compliant

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12
Q

What is used for assets with no manufacturer?

A

NOMANNO

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13
Q

What is used for assets with no serial number?

A

NOSERNO

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14
Q

What is used for assets with no model number?

A

NOMODNO

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15
Q

What are the six steps to support optimal use of the PAR?

A
  • Review
  • Evaluate
  • Assign
  • Prioritize
  • Correct
  • Report
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16
Q

How often is the PAR updated?

A

monthly

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17
Q

What is used as an entry for a manufacturer that does not comply with reporting requirements?

A

blanks, UNKNOWN, or 0 (zero)

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18
Q

What is used as an entry for a model number that does not comply with reporting requirements?

A

blanks, Various, or UNK

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19
Q

What is used as an entry for a serial number that does not comply with reporting requirements?

A

blanks, VARIOUS, or SILV Creamer

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20
Q

What are the three metric views of the PAR?

A
  • Executive
  • Regional Support Team (RST) or District without BPR
  • Correction Board
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21
Q

What is the written agreement for IRWA required by?

A

Title 31 U.S.C 1501

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22
Q

What is the definition of an Interagency Agreement (IAA)?

A

standard template and communication tool between the Buyer and Seller and enables them to agree on the data elements and terms of the reimbursable transaction before business begins

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23
Q

Interagency acquisitions are under what Economy Act?

A

Economy Act (31 USC 1535)

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24
Q

What are the 5th and 6th digits of the document number for IRWA?

A

FT

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25
What is the definition of a Military Independent Purchase Request (MIPR)?
used by DOD activity to place an order for supplies or non-personal services with a 'servicing agency' that could be either another DOD activity or a non DOD federal activity
26
What FAR part defines IRWAs?
FAR 17.500
27
What is the purpose of General Terms and Conditions (GT&C)?
govern the relationship between CG and the Buyer by defining the roles and responsibilities
28
What is used to determine the marking and labeling of shipments?
MIL-STD-129
29
If damage exists, how long does the TSP have to inspect?
up to 7 calendar days
30
What form is used to document transportation discrepancies?
DD-361, Transportation Discrepancy Report
31
What is used for Bill of Lading corrections for GBLs?
SF-1200, Government Bill of Lading Correction Notice
32
What is used for Bill of Lading corrections for CBLs?
GFM/ETA correction notice
33
Who must issue the required correction notice?
the original Bill of Lading-issuing office
34
What is not authorized to document corrections on Bill of Ladings?
pen and ink changes
35
How many digits is a Transportation Control Number (TCN)?
17 alphanumeric
36
What is the example of a Transportation Control Number (TCN)?
Z3106030010001XXX
37
Who must ensure internal procedures are established to control stocks and assign accountability for GBL issuance and use?
Transportation Officer (TO)
38
GSA mandated the elimination of GBL use for CONUS freight shipments on what date?
April 1, 2002
39
All sensitive AA&E will require what form?
DD-1907, Signature and Tally Form
40
What are classified as small quantity shipments for AA&E?
* 15 or fewer small arms * 200 pounds or less of ammunition
41
If the selected mode is less than a truckload (LTL), shipments (except weapons) must be over-packed to a minimum of what weight for AA&E?
minimum of 200 pounds
42
What form is completed by the person who deposits firearms for mailing?
PS Form 1508, Shipper of Firearms
43
How often is CG HAZMAT employee required to have training?
at least once every two years
44
What governs domestic modes of shipment for hazardous materials?
Title 49 CFR
45
What form is used for emergency response information for all government/MOV vehicles transporting HAZMAT?
DD Form 836, Dangerous Goods Shipping Paper/Declaration and Emergency Response Information for Hazardous Materials Transported by Government Vehicles/Containers or Vessel
46
What are the different Transportation Account Codes (TCN)?
* Coast Guard: Z * Army: A * Air Force: F * Defense Logistics Agency: S * Navy: N * Navy: P (Military Assistance Program and Foreign) * Marine Corps: L (First Destination) * Marine Corps: M (Second Destination)
47
What is the shipment limits of USPS?
weight limit of 70 pounds and a size limit of 108 girth or 130 girth depending on priority or package services
48
Who handles shipments to APO/FPO addresses?
USPS
49
Who gives clearance for overseas airlift?
Air Mobility Command
50
What form is sent to DOD Air Clearance Activity prior to releasing shipment to TSP for movement to applicable aerial port?
DD-1384, Transportation Control and Movement Document
51
What is the Coast Guard export identification number?
52-059221300
52
What is used for all international freight shipments?
Government Bill of Lading (GBL)
53
Government-owned transportation can be used for short distance deliveries within a what mile radius?
50-mile radius
54
What governs the disposal and shipping requirements for HAZWASTE?
40 CFR and 49 CFR
55
Who is responsible for the accurate transfer of information to the Bill of Lading?
TO/TA
56
Who handles the oversight of all Coast Guard appropriations?
CG-83
57
Who handles day-to-day management of appropriated funds?
CG-8D
58
What are the three elements that must be met in order for an obligation/expenditure is legal?
Purpose is one of the three basic elements in determining whether appropriations are legally available for obligation or expenditure . In order for an obligation or expenditure to be legal, each of these three elements must be met: 1. Purpose - The purpose of the obligation or expenditure must make a direct contribution to an authorized Coast Guard function 2. Time - The obligation shall occur within the time limits applicable to the appropriation. 3. Amount - The obligation and expenditure shall be within the amounts Congress has - established.
59
What does the Chief Human Capital Officer (CHCO) do?
establishes and implements procedures and guidelines outlining appropriate disciplinary action for misuse/abuse of the purchase card
60
What happens with a Tier II violation?
the approving official notified the CPOPC to suspend the account
61
What happens with a Tier I violation?
the approving official will issue a written warning to the cardholder and inform the CPOPC in writing
62
What happens with a Tier III violation?
employee will be subject to disciplinary actions up to and including dismissal
63
Who can reinstate suspended cards from Tier violations?
Agency Program Coordinator (APC) or higher
64
What is the purchase cap for decorative items?
$5,000 per year
65
What is the total cost limit for individual awards and recognition?
$100 or less
66
What FAR Part governs micro-purchases?
FAR Part 13
67
What is the maximum amount you can purchase on a purchase card that exceeds the micro-purchase threshold?
$150,000
68
What does the Stafford Act do?
the Chief Procurement Officer (CPO) may authorize the Component head of the contracting activity (HCA) to increase the micro-purchase threshold for emergency procurements
69
Who is authorized to temporarily lift a Merchant Category Code restriction?
Component Primary Organization Program Coordinator (CPOPC)
70
What form is needed for purchase of individual training?
SF-182
71
For freight bills of $100 what is needed?
a separate PR or line item to identify freight charges and a separate carrier receipt
72
What is a Statement of Work (SOW)?
a document that captures and defines the work activities, deliverables, and timeline a vendor must execute in performance of specified work for a client
73
What is a Statement of Objectives (SOO)?
a requirement objective that describes the governments' requirements in terms of overall performance objectives
74
What does Section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 do?
requires that federal employees with disabilities have access and use of electronic and information technology as do federal employees with no disabilities
75
Who must approve all IT procurements over $100k?
USCG Chief Information Officer (CIO)
76
When shall a Contracting Officer Representative (COR) be appointed?
when the procurement exceed the SAT
77
What FAR subpart is used for GPO?
FAR Subpart 8.8
78
What FAR subpart is used for Leased Motor Vehicles?
FAR Subpart 8.11
79
Who must approve maintenance cost for GSA leased vehicles over $100?
GSA Fleet (GSA Maintenance Control Center)
80
What FAR part provides instructions for other than full and open competition purchases exceeding the SAT?
FAR 13.501
81
What does the 'Availability of Funds' clause refer to?
FAR clause 52.232-19
82
How many days does a cardholder have to dispute a charge before the USCG is held liable for the payment?
90 days
83
What is the percentage fee for the face value of each convenience check?
2%
84
What is the allowable surcharge vendors can charge against a purchase card?
no more than 4%
85
How many cardholders/purchases can an AO manage per month?
not to exceed seven cardholders and up to 300 purchases
86
What FAR subpart provides guidance on purchases at or below the MPT?
Far Subpart 13.2
87
SAP files shall be retained for the period specified in what FAR part?
FAR 4.805
88
What clause permits the Government to terminate a contract for commercial items for convenience or for cause?
FAR 52.212-4
89
What form is used for soliciting quotes for commercial items?
SF-1449
90
Construction projects that range between $15k to $35k must be posted locally for what period of time?
no less than 10 days
91
What additional paperwork is needed for a HAZMAT purchase?
Statement of Essential Need (SEN)
92
How many digits is a Procurement Instrument Identifier (PIID)?
17 alphanumeric characters
93
How many FAR Parts are there?
53 Parts
94
Where is the FAR found?
Chapter 1 of Title 48 CFR
95
What is the micro-purchase threshold for construction?
$2,000
96
What is the micro-purchase threshold for services?
$2,500
97
What is the micro-purchase threshold in support of contingency operations or to facilitate defense?
* CONUS - $20,000 * OCONUS - $30,000
98
Contract actions expected to exceed $25,000 must be posted where?
FedBizOpps
99
What FAR Part handles Simplified Acquisition Procedures?
FAR Part 13
100
What is the tax exempt number?
B-239641
101
What is the federal tax id number?
SF-6010204
102
What is the tax exempt form?
SF-1094
103
What is Advice Code 2A?
Item not locally attainable
104
What is Advice Code 2B?
Requested item only will suffice
105
What is Advice Code 2C?
Do not backorder, suitable substitute is acceptable
106
What is Advice Code 2D?
Furnish exact quantity
107
What is Advice Code 2E?
Free issue
108
What is Advice Code 2J?
Do not substitute or backorder any unfilled quantities.
109
What is Advice Code 2L?
Quantity reflected exceed normal demand / valid requirement
110
What is Advice Code 2F?
Obsolete but still required
111
What is Status code BA?
Item being processed for release and shipment
112
What is Status code BB?
Item back ordered against a due-in to stock.
113
What is Status code BF?
No record of your document for which AF_ was submitted for
114
What is Status code BG?
One or more of the following fields have been changed: * Stock Number * Unit of Issue * Requisitioned part has been replaced by another part number
115
What is Status code BS?
Requisition cancelled due to no MOV validation
116
What is Status code BT?
Requisition has been received and will be processed for attempted release
117
What is Status code BK?
Requisition has been modified as requested
118
What is Status code BZ?
Item being processed for direct delivery
119
What is Status code BV?
Item procured and on contract for direct shipment
120
What is Status Code BR?
Cancelled due to MOV response
121
What is Status code BN?
Requisition being processed as free issue
122
What is Shipment Hold Code H?
Act of God
123
What is Shipment Hold Code A?
Shipment unit held for consolidation
124
What is Shipment Hold Code B?
Awaiting carrier equipment
125
What is Shipment Hold Code F?
Embargo
126
What is Shipment Hold Code G?
Strikes, Riots, Civil Commotion
127
What is Shipment Hold Code J?
Delayed due to cancellation request
128
What is Shipment Hold Code C?
Awaiting export/domestic traffic release
129
What is Shipment Hold Code D?
Delay due to air clearance
130
What is Shipment Hold Code N?
Delay due to diversion to air
131
What is Shipment Hold Code Z?
Holding action of less than 24 hours before materiel is available for shipment
132
What is Signal Code A?
Ship to/bill to requisitioner
133
What is Signal Code B?
Ship to requisitioner/bill to supplementary address
134
What is Signal Code D?
Ship to requisitioner/no billing
135
What is Signal Code J?
Ship to supplementary/bill to requisitioner
136
What is Signal Code K?
Ship to/bill to supplementary
137
What is Signal Code M?
Ship to supplementary/no billing
138
What is Signal Code C?
Ship to requisitioner/bill to addressee in rp 52/53
139
What is Signal Code L?
Ship to supplementary/bill to addressee in rp 52/53
140
What is Routing Identifier Code (RIC) SMS?
DLA
141
What is Routing Identifier Code (RIC) NRP?
NAVSUP Weapon Systems Support
142
What is Routing Identifier Code (RIC) GSA?
General Service Administration
143
What is Routing Identifier Code (RIC) ZNC?
ELC (Electronics/General Inventory)
144
What is Routing Identifier Code (RIC) ZQC?
ARSC
145
What is Routing Identifier Code (RIC) ZIC/ZIB?
ELC (Ships Inventory)
146
What is Routing Identifier Code (RIC) B69?
USA Medical Materiel Agency
147
What is Supply Condition Code A?
Serviceable (issuable without qualification)
148
What is Supply Condition Code B?
Serviceable (issuable with qualification)
149
What is Supply Condition Code F?
Unserviceable (reparable)
150
What is Supply Condition Code J?
Suspended (in stock)
151
What is Supply Condition Code K?
Suspended (returns)
152
What is Supply Condition Code S?
Unserviceable (scrap)
153
What is Supply Condition Code D?
Serviceable (test/modification)
154
What is Supply Condition Code C?
Serviceable (priority issue)
155
What is Method of Shipment Codes A?
Motor, truckload
156
What is Method of Shipment Codes B?
Motor, less than truckload
157
What is Method of Shipment Codes C?
Van
158
What is Method of Shipment Codes E?
Bus
159
What is Method of Shipment Codes F?
Air Mobility Command
160
What is Method of Shipment Codes G?
Surface parcel post
161
What is Method of Shipment Codes H?
Air parcel post
162
What is Method of Shipment Codes I?
Government Trucks
163
What is Method of Shipment Codes J?
Air, small package carrier
164
What is Method of Shipment Codes K?
Rail, carload
165
What is Method of Shipment Codes N?
Shipper agent (hand carry)
166
What is Method of Shipment Codes M?
Surface - freight forwarder
167
What is Method of Shipment Codes T?
Air - freight forwarder
168
What is Method of Shipment Codes V?
SEAVAN
169
What is Method of Shipment Codes 7?
Express mail
170
What is Method of Shipment Codes 8?
Pipeline
171
What is Method of Shipment Codes 9?
Local delivery by government or commercial truck
172
What is Method of Shipment Codes 5?
Surface, small package carrier
173
What is Method of Shipment Codes X?
Customer pickup
174
What is Method of Shipment Codes Q?
Commercial air freight
175
What is Force/Activity Designator (FAD) I?
Priority 1 - 4 days CONUS/12-14 days OCONUS/6.5 Express
176
What is Priority 4?
* 7 days CONUS
177
What is the method of shipment code for Express mail?
7
178
What does the method of shipment code 'X' signify?
Customer pickup
179
What is the priority time frame for Priority 1 under Force/Activity Designator (FAD) I?
4 days CONUS/12-14 days OCONUS/6.5 Express
180
What is the priority time frame for Priority 4 under Force/Activity Designator (FAD) I?
7 days CONUS/17-19 days OCONUS/14 days CONUS/37-71 days OCONUS
181
What is the DIC for Requisition overseas with NSN?
A01
182
What is the DIC for Cancellation by requisitioner?
AC1
183
What is the DIC for Materiel Release order domestic with NSN?
A5A
184
What does Media Status code 'A' indicate?
100% supply/shipment status to requisitioner
185
What unit of issue is represented by 'AM'?
Ampoule
186
What does DD-361 stand for?
Transportation Discrepancy Report
187
What is the purpose of FAR Part 1?
Federal Acquisition Regulations System
188
Who is responsible for guidance on the proper care and maintenance for heritage artifacts?
CG-09224
189
What is the timeline for Adjustment Form (CG-3114)?
PC - 10, APO - 10, PA - 10, Overall - 30
190
What items are not eligible for exchange/sale under 41 CFR 102-39?
10 - Weapons, 11 - Nuclear Ordnance, 12 - Fire Control Equipment, 14 - Guided Missiles, 42 - Firefighting, rescue, and safety equipment, 51 - Hand Tools
191
What is a record to floor count?
The comparison of the personal property records to the physical assets identified
192
What is the DIC for Request for Tracking?
AFT
193
What is the DIC for Disposal Shipment Confirmation?
AFZ
194
What is the DIC for Document Modifier overseas with part number?
AM2
195
What unit of issue is represented by 'PT'?
Pint
196
What is the DIC for Follow Up by requisitioner?
AF1
197
What is the final authority approval for Acquisition Costs of Property less than $5,000?
Unit COs, OIC, Supervisors, and Staff Element Office Chiefs
198
What is the DIC for Disposal Release order from ICP?
A5J
199
What is the DIC for MOV request to requisitioner?
AN1
200
What is the DIC for Shipment Status to requisitioner?
AS1
201
Who is notified of an impairment to aircraft/boat/vessel?
CG-41
202
How many days must CG-6 be notified of an impairment to electronics property?
within 15 days or prior to fiscal year end
203
What color letters and numerals are used on white hulls for vessel markings?
Black (17038)
204
What is the DIC for Document Modifier from ICP to change RDD to 555?
AMP
205
What is the maximum number of days for temporary transfers for repairs, maintenance, etc.?
under 30 days ## Footnote Temporary transfers are not recorded in ORACLE.
206
What is the CG-4502 used for?
Report of Exchange/Sale ## Footnote It is also known as the Report of Excess Property CG-4501.
207
Units are required to report lost property within how many hours?
within 24 hours ## Footnote This applies following the discovery of the loss, theft, damage, or destruction.
208
What is the timeline for the Report of Survey CG-5269?
PC - 3 days, Survey Officer - 7 days, Board of Survey - 20 days, CO/OIC/Supervisor - 5 days, Regional/Program manager - 10 days, Final Approving - 15 days ## Footnote Total - 60 days.
209
What is required for a Coast Guard Official Message regarding lost, stolen, damaged, and destroyed property?
Items with a permanent assigned serial number and an acquisition cost of $500 or more ## Footnote This is necessary for reporting such incidents.
210
What are the three processes for the disposition of property?
* Report of Survey * Excess Property * Abandonment and Destruction
211
What is property disposal code 1?
new or unused condition
212
What is property disposal code 4?
some wear but can be used without significant repair
213
What is property disposal code 7?
unusable but can be economically repaired
214
What is property disposal code X?
salvage (has basic material value but repair impractical)
215
What is property disposal code S?
scrap (no value for its basic material content)
216
What property disposal code/condition code is not a candidate for the Abandonment and Destruction process?
7 or higher (1,4,7)
217
What is the supplemental form for all aircraft and vehicles for excess property?
SF-120, Report of Excess Personal Property
218
What is the timeline for Report of Excess Personal Property?
PC - 10 days, APO - 5 days, CO/OIC/Supervisor - 5 days, Regional/Program manager - 5 days, Final Approving - 5 days ## Footnote Total - 30 days.
219
How long must property be reported to the SFLC Bulletin?
minimum of 20 days
220
What form is needed to transfer excess property to other CG units?
DD-1149
221
What form is used to report transfer of property to Federal Agencies other than DHS?
SF-122, Transfer Order Excess Personal Property
222
What form is used to report the donation of property?
SF-123, Transfer Order Surplus Personal Property
223
What form is used to report the sale of property?
SF-126, Report of Personal Property for Sale
224
What is the CG-5598 used for?
Abandonment and Destruction of Personal Property Form
225
What disposal code shall a CG-5598 be used for?
Disposal code S
226
What is the timeline for CG-5598?
PC - 6 days, APO - 5 days, HAZMAT - 2 days (if applicable), Security Officer - 2 days (if applicable), CO/OIC/Supervisor - 5 days, Regional/Program manager - 5 days (if applicable), Final Approving - 5 days ## Footnote Total - 30 days.
227
What is the policy that Coast Guard follows for demilitarization of assets?
DOD Manual, M4160.28 Volume 1
228
What is the value for Government Furnished Equipment (GFE) that must be reported to the APO?
$25,000
229
What is the depreciation time for Aircraft?
20-35 years
230
What is the depreciation time for Boats, standard?
5-30 years
231
What is characterized as Sensitive Personal Property?
* Dangerous and hazardous property * Drill weapons * Property with data storage capabilities * All property authorized for processing and/or storing classified information
232
What is the value of Internal-Use Software for mandatory reporting?
$25,000 or more
233
What form is used if a gift is not retained for official use or returned to the donor?
CG-4501
234
How long must the CG retain forfeited/seized or abandoned property before retention or disposal action can begin?
45 days
235
What is Category A for aircraft acquisition?
authorized for sale and exchange for commercial use
236
Who serves as the acquisition branch for aircraft?
CG-931
237
What report is used for receipting for aircraft?
DD-250, Material Inspection and Receiving Report
238
What form is used for a unit to accept a boat from non-CG sources?
CG-2580A, Boat Record
239
What is the capitalization threshold for Personal Property like Aircrafts, Vessels, Electronics Systems?
$200,000
240
What is the required Sources of Supplies and Services?
Unit's weapons officer
241
What is the Surf Requisition Log form?
CG-4940
242
What DIC series is used when cancellation is not possible due to materiel being shipped?
AU_ series
243
What DIC is used for acknowledging non-receipt of the count if the MOV is incorrect?
APX
244
What are the timeframes for MOV validations?
PD 01-08 after 30 days, PD 09-15 after 75 days
245
What DIC code is used for MOV Control transaction?
AN9
246
What DIC series is used for MOVs?
AN_ series
247
What DIC is used for acknowledging receipt of the count is correct for a MOV?
AP9
248
What DIC series is used in response to MOVs?
AP_ series
249
What are the timeframes for MOV validations?
250
When ordering with a NGA Reference Number, what DICs should be used for CONUS?
A0D
251
When ordering with a NGA Reference Number, what DICs should be used for OCONUS?
A04
252
What form is used to report any configuration change of Navy owned equipment to ELC?
OPNAV 4790/CK, Ship's Configuration Change Form
253
What is the first source of supply for all CASREP/AOG requirements?
parts pooling
254
What form is used to purchase items from SERVMART?
NAVSUP 1314, SERVMART Shopping List
255
What must be included when ordering Flag Officer Stationary?
the title and address to be printed on accompanying envelopes
256
On what stationary is the Coast Guard emblem printed?
* Invitations * Place Cards * Letter and Letterhead * Informal Notes
257
Who is Flag Officer stationary used for?
Flag Officers O-7 through O-10
258
What is used for column 67-69 on the DD-1348-1A for requisitioning Ozone Depleting Substances (ODS)?
SRG
259
What is used for column 57-59 on the DD-1348-1A for requisitioning Ozone Depleting Substances (ODS)?
GDB
260
What is used for column 4-6 on the DD-1348-1A for requisitioning Ozone Depleting Substances (ODS)?
S9G
261
What signal code is used for when FINCEN is the billing address?
A
262
What can a DD-1149 be used for?
263
Who maintains the Intermediate Repair (IR) engine serial numbers?
cognizant MLC
264
Who can authorize the zeroing of engine hours via the installing of a remanufactured engine?
ELC Central Engine Overhaul (CEO)
265
Who is the only activity authorized to contract remanufacturing service?
ELC
266
When the cost of intermediate repair exceeds 50% of the priced asset, what must be done with the engine?
Sent back to ELC for remanufacture
267
Who determines engine overhaul costs?
ELC
268
Engine remanufacture cost is not to exceed what percent of the total cost?
65%
269
What website provides barcoding information?
Coast Guard's Vessel Logistics Systems (VLS)
270
What CG branch handles barcode equipment?
CG-442
271
Local CAGE codes start with what?
00001
272
The placement of a Configuration Item (CI) relates to what?
Form, Fit, and Function of the item
273
Who reviews new items introduced into the supply system to determine whether items already exist that can do the job?
ELC and ARSC
274
What is the Federal Supply Classification System?
designed to classify all items of supply used by the Federal Government
275
How many FSC groups are there?
78 groups
276
What is the breakdown of a FSC?
first two digits are group and last two digits are class
277
How many classes are assigned to FSCs?
642 classes
278
What is the National Codification Bureau (NCB) code?
identifies the country that assigned the stock number or indicates that two or more countries use the stock number
279
What does NCB code 00 mean?
identifies all NIINs assigned before 31 March 1975
280
What does NCB code 01 mean?
identifies all NIINs assigned after 31 March 1975
281
What does NCB code DW mean?
identifies Deepwater assets
282
How many digits are in the National Stock Number (NSN)?
13 digits
283
How many digits are in the National Item Identification Code (NIIN)?
9 digits
284
Who assigns a NSN to an item?
Defense Logistics Information Service (DLIS)
285
Who is responsible for cataloging and maintaining any Coast Guard managed materiel within the Federal Supply System?
ELC and ARSC
286
What is a Cognizance Symbol (COG)?
two-position numeric-alpha code identifying a stock number's item with the Coast Guard or Navy inventory manager of a specific category of materiel
287
What is Activity Code XG?
ELC
288
What is Activity Code XH?
ARSC (think H for helicopter)
289
What is a Coast Guard Activity Code?
provides field units with points of contact for cataloging requests and assistance
290
When is cataloging not needed?
291
What are Activity Control Numbers (ACNs)?
items that are stocked at Coast Guard ICPs (similar to NSNs but not all numeric)
292
What are Navy Item Control Numbers (NICNs)?
assigned to items not included in the FCS but stocked and monitored by Navy Supply Centers
293
What is the value of Pre-Expended Bin items?
$50 or less/one month usage with the exception of items such as bolts/nuts/screws
294
What cannot be in the Pre-Expended Bin?
Depot Level Repairable (DLR)
295
What is the value of shop stock items?
$50 or less
296
Who reviews the items listed for the Pre-Expended Bin?
the Supply Officer (quarterly)
297
Storeroom Items (SRI) of less than $50 are considered what?
not to be expended and considered shop stock to avoid maintaining them on inventory
298
What month supply can shop stock items cover?
no more than 6 month supply
299
What are the requirements for storing inventory?
* Demand * Demand Frequency * Maintenance plans and/or a predetermined allowance * Parts belonging to a Rotatable Pool
300
What are the activities in the Coast Guard that maintain inventory?
301
What Condition Code is used if the ICP is unable to determine the present condition?
Condition Code J
302
What must ELC or ARSC complete upon the receipt of a Controlled Materiel Report of Condition Change?
CG-5269, Report of Survey
303
Who has unit materiel management and accountability?
Commanding Officer or Officer in Charge
304
Unit inventory consists of what?
storeroom items (SRI), that can be DLRs and repair parts
305
Aviation units shall maintain a stock record of what items that are not accounted for in the Aviation Material Management Information System (AMMIS)?
* Type 3 - Non-avionics Aeronautical materiel with a unit price less than $250 * Type 5 - Avionics materiel with a unit price less than $800
306
Who authorizes allowance quantity changes for aviation DLR and repair parts?
ARSC
307
DLR/MTI items are ordered on a what basis?
one-for-one basis (send old one back when new one gets in)
308
What is considered Selected Item Management (SIM) items?
items that have two or more demands recorded in the last six months
309
What is the demand frequency for PEB?
5 or more times per month unit-wide (used for maintenance tasks)
310
What items are not eligible for SIM?
311
What is the frequency for Not Carried items before it can be added to stock?
two demands of a recurring nature with a one year period
312
What is classified as a Non-SIM item?
items that do not have a high usage demand, are not of the allowance list, and usually are not high dollar or reparable
313
When is a SIM item considered a Non-SIM item?
when there has been no demand in the last 6 months
314
What are the three stocking levels?
* Operating Level (OL) * Order & Ship Time Level (O&ST) * Safety Level (SL)
315
How many days of supply are for Operating Level stocking?
75 days
316
What is the Economic Order Quantity (EOQ)?
317
How many days should mini-random physical inventories be separated?
at least 60 calendar days
318
If a unit fails the 4th quarter statistical random samples, within how many days must a wall to wall be completed?
45 days of the signature date for Year End Certification Memorandum
319
If a unit fails two back-to-back mini-random physical inventories, within how many days must a wall to wall be completed?
45 days
320
Who approves waivers for physical inventories?
CG-441, Logistics Program Management
321
What type of discrepancy does not count towards inventory accuracy?
price discrepancy
322
What are the two ways to validate accuracy of inventory?
* wall-to-wall * sample
323
What is the 'blind count' method for Count Team?
CT will not have access to stock record on-hand quantities before or during the count phase
324
How many people are on the count team?
two or more
325
If a 2nd count is needed, who is used for the 2nd count team?
At least one person not assigned to the first count and not involved in issues, receipts, or physical custody of inventory
326
Within how many days of inventory completion does the PICO forward the memo with attachments?
within 3 days
327
How long is year end certification documentation kept for physical inventories?
3 fiscal years plus current year
328
What is used to document inventory and/or price changes?
CG-3114, Adjustment Form
329
How many days does the unit have to complete a wall-to-wall after failing two consecutive wall-to-wall inventories?
20 days
330
How long are physical inventories kept?
3 years plus current fiscal year
331
What are the three types of research for physical inventory discrepancies?
* Post Count Validation * Pre-Adjustment Research * Causative Research
332
When does causative research end?
when the cause of the discrepancy has been discovered or when, after review of the transactions, no conclusive findings are possible
333
When shall the results of the physical inventory be reported?
within 15 days or by the end of the second month of each quarter
334
How many days does the unit have for the reconciliation phase?
15 days
335
What are the 5 phases of a physical inventory?
* Preparation * Count * Reconciliation * Reporting * Documentation
336
Discrepancies after the 3rd count verification are counted as what?
errors
337
Who must have access to the inventory records and the storeroom/warehouse locations at all times?
Physical Inventory Control Officer (PICO)
338
Who designates the Physical Inventory Control Officer (PICO)?
CO/OIC
339
Who do the count team report directly to?
PICO
340
Who has access to the inventory records but not the storeroom/warehouse during the count?
Research Analyst (RA)
341
If a unit fails the statistical random sample, who does the PICO contact?
CG-441
342
What is the variance allowed for on hand quantities for weighted or measured items?
(+/-) 5%
343
What is Type I shelf-life items?
items expired on the expiration date are unfit for use
344
What is Type II shelf-life items?
items that are visually inspected, laboratory tested, or other restorative actions taken to extend shelf-life storage periods
345
Who ensures that shelf-life items/materiel meet the requisitioner's requirements?
Wholesale-level Supply Activities (SA)
346
What is the shelf-life code for Type I items?
alpha character (except x)
347
What is the shelf-life code for Type II items?
numeric character and alpha character (Example: 1X)
348
What is the First-In-First-Out (FIFO) method?
349
What percentage of remaining shelf-life is required at time of receipt?
minimum of 85%
350
What is the Shelf-Life Extension Notice?
DD-2477
351
What class of shelf-life items are not authorized for return?
Class II perishable subsistence and Class VIII medical
352
What management code is used on DD-1348-1A/DD-1348-2 for expired shelf-life items?
T (rp 72)
353
What goes in block 27 on DD-1348-1A/DD-1348-2 for shelf-life items?
Shelf-Life Property
354
What is Cognizance Code XB?
for electronic equipment owned and managed by ELC
355
What condition code is used for discrepant materiel received?
L
356
What DIC is used for receipt transaction?
DRA or D4S
357
When is a Supply Discrepancy Report (SDR) used?
upon receipt of incorrect items, quantities, shelf-life issues, and poor packaging
358
When is a Quality Deficiency Report (QDR) used?
when procured CG and OGA items do not meet the fit, form, or function of the mission for which they were intended
359
What is the minimum number of days from the date of the SDR response that a follow up can be initiated?
60 days
360
What DIC and Advice Code is used for billing adjustments for SDRs?
GAE and 26
361
What is annotated above the Date block on an invalid SDR?
"CANCELLED" or "CORRECTED"
362
What is the reply timeframe for shipments of controlled inventory items with a SDR?
30 calendar days from date of receipt of report
363
What is the reply timeframe for non-controlled inventory items with a SDR?
55 calendar days from date of receipt of report
364
What is the dollar value a credit is not generally given for QDR materials?
under $100
365
Who assists with finding adequate storage facilities for QDR materiel?
the cognizant MLC or District Commander
366
What Advice Code is used to denote a free issue item where a defective carcass is available to turn in?
5G
367
What Advice Code denotes cost items where additional equipment is requested and no defective carcass is available to turn in?
5D
368
What Advice Code denotes a replacement is requested and no defective carcass is available for turn in?
5A
369
What is the follow up timeframe for MRP credits?
60 calendar days of receipt status FTZ
370
What DIC is used for follow up of MRP credits?
FTP
371
Within what time shall a unit package the unserviceable DLR item?
within 48 hours of receipt of replacement item
372
What Advice Code series is used for DLR items?
"5_" series
373
How are DOD owned/managed items identified?
by their "7" series cogniz
374
What status codes are used for MRP items for credits?
TA (creditable return) or TB (noncreditable return) ## Footnote TA and TB are specific codes indicating the type of return status for MRP items.
375
What is the follow up timeframe for MRP credits?
60 calendar days of receipt status FTZ ## Footnote FTZ refers to the Foreign Trade Zone status for tracking MRP credits.
376
What DIC is used for follow up of MRP credits?
FTP ## Footnote FTP stands for a specific Document Identifier Code used in the follow-up process.
377
Within what time shall a unit package the unservicable DLR item?
within 48 hours of receipt of replacement item ## Footnote This timeframe is critical for maintaining inventory and operational readiness.
378
What Advice Code series is used for DLR items?
"5_" series ## Footnote The '5_' series is designated for specific advice regarding DLR items.
379
How are DOD owned/managed items identified?
by their "7" series cognizant symbol ## Footnote The '7' series indicates items that are owned or managed by the Department of Defense.
380
What DIC series is used to track returns?
BK_ series ## Footnote The BK_ series is specifically for tracking the return of items.
381
What form is used for the Identification Tag?
DD-1577-2 ## Footnote This form is used to tag items for identification purposes.
382
What form is used for the Identification Label?
DD-1577-3 ## Footnote This form serves to label items for identification.
383
What must accompany a tag or label for DLR items?
BC1 document ## Footnote The BC1 document provides necessary information for DLR items.
384
What kind of shipping is used for PRI 03 and 06 items?
via traceable means (FedEx, AWB, etc.) ## Footnote Traceable shipping ensures accountability for these priority items.
385
What kind of shipping is used for PRI 13 items?
certified mail ## Footnote Certified mail is used for secure and verifiable shipping of PRI 13 items.
386
What is notated in AMMIS when a DLR is received by an Air Station and put into storage until use?
REC for received ## Footnote REC indicates that the DLR item has been received and stored.
387
What is entered into AMMIS when supply has NRFI item to ship?
BK1 ## Footnote BK1 is the code for entering non-ready for issue items in the system.
388
What is entered into AMMIS when supply ships NRFI to ARSC?
AS2 ## Footnote AS2 is the code used when shipping non-ready for issue items to the Army Reserve Support Command.
389
Within how many days must a unit return a carcass for a DLR?
within 30 days ## Footnote Timely return of carcasses is important for inventory management.
390
Within how many days must a DLR be returned to DOD?
10 days ## Footnote This quick turnaround is essential for maintaining DOD resources.
391
What is the Allowance Change Request form?
NAVSUP 1220-2 ## Footnote This form is used for requesting changes in allowances.
392
For units with more than 99 storage locations, what comes after 99Z9Z?
100A1A ## Footnote This format continues the numbering for storage locations.
393
For units with more than 9 locations across, what is the next location after 01A9A?
01A10A ## Footnote This format is used to designate additional drawer locations.
394
For unit shore side storage, what is used for warehouse?
W ## Footnote The letter 'W' designates warehouse storage locations.
395
For unit shore side storage, what is used for shed?
S ## Footnote The letter 'S' indicates shed storage locations.
396
For unit shore side storage, what is used for trailer?
T ## Footnote The letter 'T' is used for trailer storage locations.
397
What size is the font lettering on storage locations?
approximately 1 inch ## Footnote This size ensures visibility and readability of storage location markings.
398
What is the minimum amount of digits on a storage location?
minimum of 5 digits (not to exceed 8) ## Footnote This ensures a standardized format for storage locations.
399
What is the sample size for inventory line items of 1-150?
20 ## Footnote This sample size is used for auditing purposes.
400
What is the sample size for inventory line items of 151-280?
32 ## Footnote This sample size is used for auditing purposes.
401
What is the sample size for inventory line items of 281-500?
40 ## Footnote This sample size is used for auditing purposes.
402
What is the sample size for inventory line items of 501-1,200?
80 ## Footnote This sample size is used for auditing purposes.
403
What is the sample size for inventory line items of 1,201-3,200?
120 ## Footnote This sample size is used for auditing purposes.
404
What is the sample size for inventory line items of 3,201-10,000?
200 ## Footnote This sample size is used for auditing purposes.
405
What is the sample size for inventory line items of 10,001-35,000?
315 ## Footnote This sample size is used for auditing purposes.
406
What is the 'Record to Floor' sample size for inventory line items of 501-1,200?
8 ## Footnote This refers to the number of items to be sampled.
407
What is the 'Floor to Record' sample size for inventory line items of 1,201-3,200?
12 ## Footnote This refers to the number of items to be sampled.
408
What is the total number of errors allowed for inventory line items of 3,201-10,000?
11 ## Footnote This indicates the maximum allowable discrepancies.
409
What is the total number of errors allowed for inventory line items of 1,201-3,200?
6 ## Footnote This indicates the maximum allowable discrepancies.
410
What is the total number of errors allowed for inventory line items of 501-1,200?
4
411
What is the total number of errors allowed for inventory line items of 10,001-35,000?
17 ## Footnote This indicates the maximum allowable discrepancies.
412
How many total days for ROS Team investigation?
20 Days
413
What is Post Count Validation?
A comparison of physical count with recorded balances and consideration of transactions that have occurred during the time of the physical count but have not been posted to the records ## Footnote The purpose is to determine the validity of the count.
414
What ends Post Count Validation research?
When the accuracy of the count has been verified ## Footnote If a discrepancy still exists, further research is required.
415
What is the purpose of Pre-Adjustment Research?
To determine the correct balance ## Footnote Involves storeroom/warehouse search counts, recent transactions, and verification of FED LOG data.
416
What is Causative Research?
An investigation of discrepancies consisting of a complete review of all transactions and supporting documentation ## Footnote Aims to identify, analyze, and evaluate the cause of inventory discrepancies.
417
What are the three views of the Personal Property PAR?
Executive, RST/District/Correction Boards ## Footnote The PAR color code indicates performance levels.
418
What does the PAR color code signify?
Red < 95%, Yellow 95-97%, Green 98-100% ## Footnote Indicates the performance level of the personal property management.
419
What are the six steps in Corrective Action?
* Review * Evaluate * Assign * Prioritize * Correct * Report ## Footnote These steps guide the corrective action process.
420
What is FAR Part 1 about?
Federal Acquisition Regulations System ## Footnote Establishes the framework for federal acquisition regulations.
421
What is the focus of FAR Part 3?
Improper Business Practices and Personal Conflicts of Interest ## Footnote Addresses ethical standards in government contracting.
422
What are Tier I violations?
* Purchasing inappropriate supplies * Making a split purchase * Carelessly making an unauthorized purchase * Violating DHS or Component level purchase card policies * Neglecting to record purchases in the Bank purchase card log * Failing to complete the review and/or approval process ## Footnote These are minor violations that require written warnings.
423
What actions are taken for Tier II violations?
Notify the CPOPC to suspend the account and require additional training for cardholders ## Footnote An action plan for corrective action must be submitted to reinstate the account.
424
What constitutes a Tier III violation?
* Use of the purchase card for unofficial purposes * Making false statements or committing fraud * Negligence in performing official duties * Purchasing personal items * Allowing a non-cardholder to use the purchase card ## Footnote These are serious violations subject to disciplinary actions, including dismissal.
425
What is the new reportable property threshold?
$5,000.00 ## Footnote Previously, the threshold was $2,500.00.
426
What does PEACE stand for in risk management?
* Planning * Event Complexity * Assets * Communication and Supervision * Environment ## Footnote Essential elements for safe and effective mission execution.
427
What is the acronym STAAR in risk mitigation/control?
* Spread Out * Transfer * Avoid * Accept * Reduce ## Footnote Strategies used to mitigate/control risk.
428
What does ACE stand for in suicide prevention?
* Ace * Care * Escort ## Footnote A framework for responding to individuals in crisis.
429
What does FAR Part 1 cover?
Federal Acquisition Regulations System ## Footnote This part establishes the overall structure and authority of the FAR.
430
What is addressed in FAR Part 2?
Definitions of Words and Terms ## Footnote This part provides specific definitions critical for understanding the FAR.
431
What is the focus of FAR Part 3?
Improper Business Practices and Personal Conflicts of Interest ## Footnote This part outlines regulations to avoid unethical practices in government contracting.
432
What does FAR Part 4 pertain to?
Administrative and Information Matters ## Footnote This part deals with administrative processes related to government acquisitions.
433
What is the purpose of FAR Part 5?
Publicizing Contract Actions ## Footnote This part mandates how contract actions should be announced to promote transparency.
434
What does FAR Part 6 cover?
Competition Requirements ## Footnote This part establishes the need for competition in government contracts to ensure fairness.
435
What is the focus of FAR Part 7?
Acquisition Planning ## Footnote This part emphasizes the importance of planning in the acquisition process.
436
What does FAR Part 8 address?
Required Sources of Supplies and Services ## Footnote This part lists mandatory sources from which government agencies must procure supplies and services.
437
What is the subject of FAR Part 9?
Contractor Qualifications ## Footnote This part outlines the criteria that contractors must meet to be eligible for government contracts.
438
What does FAR Part 10 focus on?
Market Research ## Footnote This part outlines the need for conducting market research to inform acquisition decisions.
439
What is the emphasis of FAR Part 11?
Describing Agency Needs ## Footnote This part provides guidance on how agencies should articulate their procurement needs.
440
What does FAR Part 12 pertain to?
Acquisition of Commercial Products and Commercial Services ## Footnote This part facilitates the procurement of commercial items by the government.
441
What is the focus of FAR Part 13?
Simplified Acquisition Procedures ## Footnote This part describes streamlined procedures for acquiring goods and services under a certain dollar threshold.
442
What does FAR Part 14 cover?
Sealed Bidding ## Footnote This part outlines the process for obtaining bids in a sealed manner to ensure confidentiality and fairness.
443
What is the subject of FAR Part 15?
Contracting by Negotiation ## Footnote This part discusses the processes and policies related to negotiating contracts.
444
What does FAR Part 16 define?
Types of Contracts ## Footnote This part categorizes the various types of contracts available for government procurement.
445
What is addressed in FAR Part 17?
Special Contracting Methods ## Footnote This part focuses on alternative methods of contracting that may be employed under specific circumstances.
446
What does FAR Part 18 cover?
Emergency Acquisitions ## Footnote This part provides guidelines for expedited acquisition processes during emergencies.
447
What is the focus of FAR Part 19?
Small Business Programs ## Footnote This part promotes the inclusion of small businesses in government contracting opportunities.
448
What does FAR Part 22 discuss?
Application of Labor Laws to Government Acquisitions ## Footnote This part outlines how labor laws apply to contracts awarded by the government.
449
What is the emphasis of FAR Part 23?
Environment, Energy and Water Efficiency, Renewable Energy Technologies, Occupational Safety, and Drug-Free Workplace ## Footnote This part addresses sustainable practices and safety in government acquisitions.
450
What does FAR Part 24 focus on?
Protection of Privacy and Freedom of Information ## Footnote This part outlines regulations concerning the safeguarding of private and sensitive information.
451
What is covered in FAR Part 25?
Foreign Acquisition ## Footnote This part provides guidelines for acquiring goods and services from foreign sources.
452
What is the subject of FAR Part 26?
Other Socioeconomic Programs ## Footnote This part discusses various socioeconomic initiatives related to government contracting.
453
What does FAR Part 27 pertain to?
Patents, Data, and Copyrights ## Footnote This part addresses the management and rights related to intellectual property in government contracts.
454
What is the focus of FAR Part 28?
Bonds and Insurance ## Footnote This part outlines requirements for bonds and insurance related to government contracts.
455
What does FAR Part 29 cover?
Taxes ## Footnote This part specifies the tax obligations associated with government contracts.
456
What is addressed in FAR Part 30?
Cost Accounting Standards Administration ## Footnote This part governs the administration of cost accounting standards for contractors.
457
What does FAR Part 31 define?
Contract Cost Principles and Procedures ## Footnote This part outlines the principles and procedures for determining allowable costs under government contracts.
458
What is the subject of FAR Part 32?
Contract Financing ## Footnote This part discusses the financing options available for government contracts.
459
What does FAR Part 33 cover?
Protests, Disputes, and Appeals ## Footnote This part provides procedures for resolving conflicts related to government contracts.
460
What is the focus of FAR Part 34?
Major System Acquisition ## Footnote This part outlines the processes for acquiring major systems in government procurement.
461
What does FAR Part 35 pertain to?
Research and Development Contracting ## Footnote This part discusses the specific regulations for contracting in R&D projects.
462
What is addressed in FAR Part 36?
Construction and Architect-Engineer Contracts ## Footnote This part outlines the requirements for contracts related to construction and engineering services.
463
What is the emphasis of FAR Part 37?
Service Contracting ## Footnote This part focuses on the regulations governing service contracts in government procurement.
464
What does FAR Part 38 cover?
Federal Supply Schedule Contracting ## Footnote This part details the procedures for contracting under the Federal Supply Schedule.
465
What is the focus of FAR Part 39?
Acquisition of Information Technology ## Footnote This part outlines the regulations for acquiring IT products and services.
466
What does FAR Part 40 pertain to?
Information Security and Supply Chain Security ## Footnote This part addresses security requirements for information and supply chains in government contracting.
467
What is covered in FAR Part 41?
Acquisition of Utility Services ## Footnote This part outlines the procedures for procuring utility services by the government.
468
What is the subject of FAR Part 42?
Contract Administration and Audit Services ## Footnote This part discusses the administration and auditing processes for government contracts.
469
What does FAR Part 43 cover?
Contract Modifications ## Footnote This part outlines the procedures for modifying existing contracts.
470
What is the focus of FAR Part 44?
Subcontracting Policies and Procedures ## Footnote This part provides guidelines for subcontracting within government contracts.
471
What does FAR Part 45 address?
Government Property ## Footnote This part outlines the management and use of government property in contracts.
472
What is the emphasis of FAR Part 46?
Quality Assurance ## Footnote This part discusses the quality assurance measures required in government contracting.
473
What does FAR Part 47 cover?
Transportation ## Footnote This part outlines the regulations governing the transportation of goods in government contracts.
474
What is the subject of FAR Part 48?
Value Engineering ## Footnote This part discusses methods to improve the value of projects through cost-effective practices.
475
What does FAR Part 49 address?
Termination of Contracts ## Footnote This part outlines the procedures for terminating government contracts.
476
What is the focus of FAR Part 50?
Extraordinary Contractual Actions and the safety act ## Footnote This part provides guidelines for unusual contractual actions and safety requirements.
477
What does FAR Part 51 cover?
Use of Government Sources by Contractors ## Footnote This part outlines the regulations regarding contractors' use of government resources.
478
What is the subject of FAR Part 52?
Solicitation Provisions and Contract Clauses ## Footnote This part includes the standard provisions and clauses used in government solicitations and contracts.
479
What does FAR Part 53 pertain to?
Forms ## Footnote This part provides the necessary forms used in federal procurement processes.
480
What can cause materials to be rejected?
When materials fail to meet requirements ## Footnote Rejection may occur at the end of the performance period.
481
Where can further clarification about material rejection be found?
FAR 46.2 and in CGAP3046
482
True or False: Only KO can make deviations or substitutions.
True
483
When may the rejection of materials occur?
At the end of the performance period
484
What does the Office of Procurement Policy & Oversight (CG-913) issue regarding procurement procedures?
Procurement procedures that require contracting officers (KOs) to deobligate outstanding UDO balances based on assessment of receipt of services or goods, billings, or cancellations of orders.
485
What is monitored to verify compliance with the required delivery date (RDD)?
Receipt of goods and services.
486
What happens if the receipt of goods and services does not occur by the RDD for simplified acquisition procedures?
The supplier is contacted for delivery status.
487
Who is contacted for follow-up if material is not received under major contracts by the required delivery date?
The contracting officer (KO) responsible for the buyer.
488
Fill in the blank: The Office of Procurement Policy & Oversight requires contracting officers to _______ outstanding UDO balances.
deobligate
489
True or False: The Office of Procurement Policy & Oversight does not monitor the receipt of goods and services.
False
490
What is the retention period for contracts and related records after final payment?
6 years after final payment ## Footnote This includes successful and unsuccessful proposals.
491
How long must contractor payrolls submitted under construction contracts be retained?
3 years after contract completion ## Footnote This applies unless the contract performance is the subject of an enforcement action on that date.
492
What is the retention period for files of canceled solicitations?
6 years after cancellation.
493
When should other copies of procurement file records used for administrative purposes be retained until?
When business use ceases.
494
How long should documents pertaining generally to the contractor be retained?
Until superseded or obsolete.
495
What is FPDS?
Electronic data file maintained by fiscal year, containing unclassified records of all procurements exceeding the micro-purchase threshold.
496
What is the retention period for records submitted to FPDS?
6 years after submittal to FPDS.
497
How long should investigations, cases pending or in litigation be retained?
Until final clearance or settlement, or for the retention period specified for related documents, whichever is later.
498
What is the responsibility of the requisitioning activity in procurement?
The PR is the responsibility of the requisitioning activity (customer)
499
What must the Purchase Request (PR) contain regarding funding information?
Complete, accurate, and current funding information
500
What specific accounting data must be included in the PR?
Fiscal year and Treasury Account Symbol (TAS) information
501
Who is responsible for initiating the Purchase Request?
Purchase Request Initiator (Requester)
502
Who must authorize the Purchase Request?
Purchase Request Authorizer (Supervisor)
503
Who certifies the availability of funds in the PR process?
Funds Manager
504
True or False: The supervisor, requester, and funds manager can be the same individual.
False
505
What is required if any changes are initiated by the requisitioner after a PR has been fully executed?
A complete PR modification in the system
506
What must be approved, certified, and dated by the funds manager for PR changes?
All changes to the PR
507
What detailed information must be included in the PR?
Detailed description of the purchase
508
What documentation outlines the requirements and specifications for the purchase?
SOW or SOO/Specifications and Drawings
509
What must be specified regarding the timing of the purchase?
Required delivery date and terms or period of performance
510
What type of research must be included in the PR?
Market research including suggested sources list
511
What is necessary for sole source or brand name requirements?
Justification and Approval
512
What evidence must be included in the PR related to hazardous materials?
Evidence of customer’s hazardous material coordinator and pollution prevention coordinator’s (PPC) review
513
What documentation is required for Section 508 compliance?
Section 508 Compliance/Exception Documentation
514
What type of approvals are necessary for Information Technology (IT)?
Special Information Technology (IT) Approvals
515
What considerations must be made regarding green purchasing?
Green Purchase Considerations Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) Designated Materials
516
What type of memo is required for office furniture or machine purchases?
Memo signed by the commanding officer/OIC endorsement
517
What is the purpose of the Independent Government Estimate (IGE)?
To estimate the cost of the procurement
518
What form is required when the customer is purchasing individual training?
SF-182
519
What does TAS stand for?
Treasury Account Symbol
520
Fill in the blank: Example of The Treasury Account Symbol (TAS) is _______.
070 2025 2025 0610000
521
What is required for freight bills over $100?
A separate carrier receipt must be provided. ## Footnote This ensures proper documentation of freight charges.
522
What must a PR reflect prior to award?
It must reflect at least the amount of the IGE. ## Footnote IGE stands for Independent Government Estimate.
523
Is funding in excess of the award amount acceptable?
Yes, funding in excess of the award amount is acceptable. ## Footnote This allows for flexibility in budget management.
524
What is considered a potential violation of the Anti-Deficiency Act (ADA)?
Making a purchase prior to receiving sufficient funding is considered a violation. ## Footnote The ADA prohibits federal agencies from obligating funds in excess of appropriated amounts.
525
Who must certify and date any changes made to the PR?
The Funds Manager must certify and date any changes. ## Footnote This ensures accountability and proper record-keeping.
526
What must happen to all changes made to the PR?
All changes must be updated in the financial system of record. ## Footnote This maintains accurate financial tracking and reporting.
527
What must the IGE include for supplies?
The IGE must include: * Estimated price for each item (one item per line item) * The quantity of each item to be procured * Any desired warranty * Technical specifications of the item * Any other anticipated direct charges associated with the items being procured
528
What additional charges should be anticipated in the IGE?
Any other anticipated direct charges associated with the items being procured, such as: * Equipment * Patterns * Consultants * Maintenance * Spare parts * Training
529
What should be included in a line item for each labor category?
Associated labor hours, labor rates and anticipated labor categories ## Footnote This outlines the effort required for successful performance.
530
What are examples of anticipated other direct costs?
Travel, software, materials ## Footnote These costs are necessary for project execution.
531
What must be specified for each period of performance?
Price for each period of performance required ## Footnote This includes the Base period and option period.
532
For Services: Independent Government Estimate (IGE)
A line item for each labor category with associated labor hours, labor rates and anticipated labor categories that outline the effort required for successful performance. · Any other anticipated other direct costs, such as travel, software, materials. · Price for each period of performance required (i.e., Base period, option period).
533
What is a SOW?
A document that captures and defines the work activities, deliverables, and timeline a vendor must execute for a client ## Footnote SOW stands for Statement of Work.
534
What does a SOW usually include?
Detailed requirements with standard regulatory and governance terms and conditions.
535
What is a SOO?
A requirement objective that describes the government's requirements in terms of overall performance objectives ## Footnote SOO stands for Statement of Objectives.
536
What is the purpose of a SOO?
To identify broad, basic, top-level objectives of a procurement and provide flexibility for innovative solutions.
537
What must documents describing the government's requirement do?
Foster competition, clearly describe requirements, include specifications and drawings, contain shipping address, and include a SOW or SOO ## Footnote These documents are essential for ensuring clarity and compliance in procurement.
538
What are the key components that must be included in documents describing government requirements?
* Foster competition to the maximum extent practicable * Clearly describe the government’s requirements * Include dated specifications and drawings * Contain shipping address, period of performance, and required delivery date * Include a SOW or SOO that describes the scope or objectives.
539
When is a SOW or SOO required?
When describing the scope or objectives of the work to be done or objectives to be met.
540
What must happen when a SOO is used?
The stated objective must lead to a SOW being proposed with a quote and included with the purchase order.
541
Fill in the blank: A SOW or SOO should describe the _______ of the work.
[scope or objectives]
542
True or False: A SOO provides less flexibility for innovative solutions compared to a SOW.
False
543
What is the GPE?
The single point where Government business opportunities greater than $25,000 can be accessed electronically by the public ## Footnote GPE stands for Government Point of Entry.
544
Where can the GPE be accessed?
https://sam.gov/ ## Footnote This is the federal government’s primary GPE.
545
What must KOs post in accordance with FAR Part 5?
Required procurement related actions ## Footnote KOs refer to Contracting Officers.
546
What is the primary purpose of utilizing SAM?
To create a high level of transparency in government contracting ## Footnote SAM stands for System for Award Management.
547
How does publicizing contract actions benefit the industry?
It can: * Increase competition * Broaden industry participation * Assist small business concerns ## Footnote This includes various types of small business concerns.
548
What types of small business concerns are assisted by publicizing contract actions?
It assists: * Small business concerns * Veteran-owned small business concerns * Service-disabled veteran-owned small business concerns * HUBZone small business concerns * Small disadvantaged business concerns * Women-owned small business concerns ## Footnote These categories help ensure diverse participation in government contracts.
549
What is the threshold amount for proposed contract actions that must be synopsized in the GPE?
Exceed $25,000 ## Footnote GPE refers to the Governmentwide Point of Entry.
550
For proposed contract actions expected to exceed $15,000 but not $25,000, where must information be displayed?
In a public place, USCG Portal, or GPE ## Footnote Public places can include public libraries, banks, city hall, and billboards.
551
What must be included in the notice for proposed contract actions exceeding $15,000?
A statement that all responsible sources may submit a response ## Footnote This response must be considered by the agency if timely received.
552
When is the KO not required to comply with the display requirements?
When exemptions at 5.202(a)(1), (a)(4) through (a)(9), or (a)(11) apply ## Footnote Also applies when oral solicitations are used.
553
What does KO stand for in the context of contract actions?
Contracting Officer ## Footnote The Contracting Officer is responsible for overseeing the procurement process.
554
Fill in the blank: Proposed contract actions expected to exceed $25,000 must be ______ in the GPE.
synopsized
555
True or False: All proposed contract actions over $15,000 require a public display of information.
False ## Footnote Only those exceeding $15,000 but not exceeding $25,000 require this.
556
What is the role of the GPE in disseminating proposed contract actions?
It serves as the Governmentwide Point of Entry for notifications ## Footnote Used for public access to contract actions and solicitations.
557
What type of solicitations do not require compliance with display requirements?
Oral solicitations ## Footnote Also when access to notices is provided electronically.
558
What does 'Solicitation' mean?
Any request to submit offers or quotations to the Government.
559
What are solicitations under SAP called?
Request for quotations or RFQ.
560
What are solicitations for formal negotiated contracts using FAR Part 15 procedures called?
Requests for Proposals (RFPs).
561
What are solicitations for formal contracts using FAR Part 14 procedures called?
Invitation for Bid (IFB).
562
What is the minimum number of quotes procurement professionals must obtain for proposed requirements expected to exceed the MPT and up to $15,000?
A minimum of three quotes.
563
What can be documented as acceptable competition?
An identified vendor that did not respond to a RFQ.
564
When must a solicitation be issued?
For all contracting actions over the MPT.
565
What forms can solicitations take?
Oral or written.
566
What must the KO inform potential offerors about when soliciting quotes for SAP purchases?
The basis on which award will be made and the intended evaluation criteria.
567
When can a solicitation be issued in relation to a funded PR?
A solicitation must not be issued prior to receipt of a funded PR.
568
What can a KO do in relation to market research?
Validate market research with or without a funded PR.
569
What must a solicitation include?
Applicable NAICS code, clauses, and provisions.
570
What forms are RFQs generally issued on?
SF18, SF1449, or SF1442 (construction).
571
When should the SF1449 be used?
When soliciting quotes for commercial items.
572
What must RFQs include? (List at least three items)
* Description of supplies or services/Statement of Work * Required delivery date or period of performance * Quantity * Shipping Destination or place of performance * Any special inspections required by the government * Any special packaging/marking requirements * Evaluation strategy that will be utilized * Applicable clauses and provisions
573
True or False: The government estimate should be included as part of the RFQ package.
False.
574
What must the KO do regarding quotations if the acquisition does not exceed the SAT?
Solicit quotations orally to the maximum extent possible ## Footnote SAT refers to the Simplified Acquisition Threshold.
575
Under what condition is an oral solicitation considered more efficient?
When it is more efficient than soliciting through electronic commerce alternatives
576
What is the threshold for open market actions where oral solicitations may not be practical?
$25,000
577
What are the exceptions to soliciting orally?
* Lengthy specification or SOW must be communicated to vendors * Soliciting quotes for construction actions over the MPT * Soliciting quotes for many items * After advertising in Sam.gov, many vendors have requested participation in the solicitation
578
What must procurement professionals do with oral quotes?
Attach email and document oral quotes on the SAP file table of contents
579
What is the threshold for competitive negotiated contracts and orders that triggers specific procedures?
$700K
580
What must the KO do if only one offer is received from a competitive solicitation open for less than 30 days?
Re-solicit for a minimum of 30 additional days or follow price negotiations procedures.
581
If only one offer is obtained from the extended solicitation, what must the KO do?
Follow the price negotiations procedures.
582
What procedures must be followed if only one offer is received regardless of the solicitation period?
Price negotiations procedures.
583
According to FAR 15.403-1(c)(1)(ii) or (iii), how should the price be determined if only one offer is received?
Not determined to be fair and reasonable based on adequate price competition.
584
What type of data must be obtained for use in price negotiations when only one offer is received?
Certified cost or pricing data.
585
Is certified cost or pricing data required under the SAT?
No.
586
What can be obtained if certified cost or pricing data are not required to establish a fair and reasonable price?
Data other than certified cost or pricing data.
587
What is the guideline for negotiating a fair and reasonable price?
Price should not exceed the original offer except as necessary for differing terms.
588
Fill in the blank: If only one offer is obtained from a competitive solicitation open for less than 30 days, the KO must _______.
re-solicit for a minimum of 30 additional days.
589
What must the KO do in accordance with FAR 13.106-2?
Evaluate quotations in an impartial manner and consider every quotation or offer received ## Footnote KO refers to the Contracting Officer.
590
According to FAR 13.004, what is the status of a quotation?
A quotation is not an offer and cannot be accepted by the Government to form a binding contract.
591
What does issuing an order in response to a supplier’s quotation signify?
It does not finalize the contract.
592
What is the first piece of information that must be recorded for each quote received?
Offeror’s name ## Footnote This identifies the entity providing the quote.
593
What date must be recorded when a quote is received?
Date called/offer received ## Footnote This is the date when the offer was made.
594
What vendor information is necessary to record?
Vendor's address ## Footnote This includes the physical location of the vendor.
595
What type of contact information must be included for the vendor?
Phone number ## Footnote This allows for direct communication with the vendor.
596
What electronic contact detail is required for each quote?
Email address ## Footnote This facilitates quick and efficient communication.
597
What business characteristic must be recorded?
Business size ## Footnote This may refer to small, medium, or large business classifications.
598
What shipping term is included in the quote information?
F.O.B. point ## Footnote This indicates the point at which the seller transfers ownership to the buyer.
599
What financial term must be noted in the quote?
Payment discount terms ## Footnote This specifies any discounts available for early payment.
600
What pricing detail must be recorded for each quote?
Unit price ## Footnote This reflects the cost per individual unit of the item offered.
601
What total cost information must be included in the quote records?
Total price ## Footnote This is the overall cost for the quoted items.
602
What must the KO state when using comparative evaluation?
The KO must state such in the solicitation.
603
What does evaluation of past performance not require?
Does not require the creation or existence of a formal data base.
604
What are some factors that past performance evaluation may be based on?
* The contracting officer’s knowledge of and previous experience with the supply or service being acquired * Customer surveys * Past performance questionnaire replies * Federal Awardee Performance and Integrity Information System (FAPIIS) * The Government-wide Past Performance Information Retrieval System (PPIRS) * Any other reasonable basis.
605
Where can the Federal Awardee Performance and Integrity Information System (FAPIIS) be accessed?
https://www.sam.gov/SAM/
606
Where can the Government-wide Past Performance Information Retrieval System (PPIRS) be accessed?
https://www.cpars.gov/
607
What must the KO do for acquisitions conducted using a method that permits electronic response to the RFQ?
* Review all quotations received * Select the quotation or offer that best meets the government’s need in terms of price, quality, delivery, and readily discernible value indicators * When a selection is based on price and past performance, award must be made to the lowest priced quotations with the highest past performance rating.
608
True or False: The KO can select any quotation without reviewing all received quotations.
False.
609
Fill in the blank: The award must be made to the lowest priced quotations with the highest _______ rating.
past performance
610
What is the purpose of documenting the quote evaluation method?
To ensure price reasonableness for each award ## Footnote This documentation is crucial for compliance and transparency in the procurement process.
611
What must be used to document purchases above the MPT?
The Simplified Acquisition Table of Content (SAP TOC) ## Footnote The SAP TOC is located on the CG-91 ARM and is essential for acquisitions covered by FAR Part 13.
612
Where must the SAP TOC be placed?
In the file related to the acquisition ## Footnote This ensures that all documentation is organized and readily accessible.
613
What should the SAP TOC include?
The following items: * Price evaluation * Technical evaluation results * Determination of price reasonableness * Any other documents pertaining to the award ## Footnote This comprehensive inclusion is necessary for thorough documentation and review.
614
What term is not explicitly defined in the FAR?
Fair and reasonable ## Footnote FAR stands for Federal Acquisition Regulation
615
What method can be used to prepare a price reasonableness determination?
Competition ## Footnote This involves assessing the competitive market for pricing.
616
Name a method for determining price reasonableness that involves comparing current prices.
Comparison with Previous Similar Buys ## Footnote This method involves looking at prices from past purchases of similar items.
617
What is another method for price reasonableness determination?
Comparison with IGE ## Footnote IGE stands for Independent Government Estimate.
618
What can assist a contracting officer in price reasonableness determination?
The contracting officer’s personal knowledge of the item being purchased ## Footnote Personal expertise can provide valuable insights into pricing.
619
What does the Service Contract Labor Standards (SCLS) regulate?
It regulates minimum wages and fringe benefits for service employees working under federal contracts in excess of the MPT for services.
620
Who must determine the minimum wages and fringe benefits under SCLS?
The Secretary of Labor.
621
What factors influence wage levels under SCLS?
Wage levels vary by type of service and by locality.
622
What is required of contractors and subcontractors under SCLS?
They are required to comply with the wage determination made part of the order.
623
What must the buyer or KO obtain before awarding a purchase order for services?
They must obtain the determination of prevailing wages for the locality from the DOL.
624
Fill in the blank: The wage determination is made part of the _______.
[order].
625
What is the SAM.gov website part of?
The Integrated Acquisition Environment
626
What form may KOs use for any SCLS-covered contract action?
SF 98 request form
627
What must a KO do if they cannot obtain an appropriate SCLS wage determination?
Request an official Wage Determination (WD) by completing the SF 98 form
628
Where can the SF 98 form be completed?
https://www.dol.gov/agencies/whd/government-contracts/service-contracts/sf98/index.asp
629
What must be provided to the awardees and maintained in the SAP file?
A copy of the wage determination information
630
In an emergency procurement, what must the contractor be informed about?
The Service Contract Act applies and they must pay prevailing labor rates
631
What must be done when the WD from DOL is received?
Modify the purchase order to incorporate the wage rates with a bilateral modification
632
What may need to be increased to accommodate payment of wage rates?
The amount of the purchase order
633
For services over $2,500, which FAR clause must be included?
FAR 52.222-41, SERVICE CONTRACT LABOR STANDARDS (May 2014)
634
What is the second FAR clause that must be included for services over $2,500?
FAR 52.222-42, STATEMENT OF EQUIVALENT RATES FOR FEDERAL HIRES (May 2014)
635
What publication must be furnished to the vendor at the time of award?
DOL Publication WH-1313, entitled 'Notice to Employees Working on Government Contracts'
636
What does the DOL Publication WH-1313 explain?
It explains the types of wages and compensation employees are entitled to by federal law
637
True or False: The publication must be displayed at the worksite for employees.
True
638
What does the DOL determine and publish weekly?
The prevailing wage rates ## Footnote Wage rates are available online at no cost.
639
Where can wage rates be accessed?
On-line at http://www.wdol.gov ## Footnote This information must be provided in the solicitation and included in the purchase order.
640
According to FAR 22.404-10, where must the contractor post the wage determination?
In a prominent place within the work site ## Footnote It must be easily seen by the workers.
641
What form must Purchasing/Contracting personnel furnish to the contractor?
Department of Labor Form WH-1321 ## Footnote This form is the Notice to Employees Working on Federal and Federally Financed Construction Projects.
642
What is the purpose of the Department of Labor Form WH-1321?
To inform workers where and how to register a complaint ## Footnote It is posted alongside the wage rates.
643
What must Purchasing/Contracting Personnel examine according to FAR 22.406-6(c)?
Payrolls and payroll statements ## Footnote This ensures compliance with purchase order and statutory or regulatory requirements.
644
What must be included as evidence of the review of payrolls?
Documentation in the SAP file ## Footnote This is a requirement for compliance checks.
645
What should construction SAP files contain?
Applicable documentation for the action ## Footnote A copy of the SAP construction file checklist is available.
646
Fill in the blank: The DOL publishes wage rates _______.
weekly
647
True or False: The contractor is not required to post wage determinations at the work site.
False
648
What does FPDS-NG stand for?
Federal Procurement Data System – Next Generation
649
What type of data does FPDS-NG track?
Number of actions and dollars spent by Federal Agencies
650
What is the purpose of the data collected by FPDS-NG?
To field numerous Congressional inquiries and Executive Branch data calls
651
Why is the accuracy of entered data for each award important?
It is extremely important for reporting and accountability
652
What purchases are exempt from FPDS-NG reporting requirements?
Purchases using non-appropriated funds, below the MPT, and Military Interdepartmental Purchase Requests (MIPRs)
653
What must be reported to FPDS-NG regarding awards?
Every modification to that award, regardless of dollar value
654
When should each purchase and modification over the MPT be entered into FPDS-NG?
At the time of award, but no later than 3 days after award
655
What must be contained in the SAP file related to FPDS-NG?
A copy of the final FPDS-NG record
656
Fill in the blank: FPDS-NG is the authoritative source for _______ data.
government-wide award
657
True or False: Only purchases over the MPT must be reported to FPDS-NG.
False
658
what documentation do you need to route a complete package?
Sap toc, solicitations, quotes, IGE, Soo, SOW, wage determination, completed FPDS-NG.
659
What is the retention period for contracts and related records after final payment?
6 years after final payment ## Footnote This includes successful and unsuccessful proposals.
660
How long must contractor payrolls submitted under construction contracts be retained?
3 years after contract completion unless enforcement action is pending ## Footnote This is in accordance with the Department of Labor.
661
What is the retention period for files of canceled solicitations?
6 years after cancellation
662
When should other copies of procurement file records used for administrative purposes be retained until?
When business use ceases
663
How long must documents pertaining generally to the contractor be retained?
Until superseded or obsolete
664
What is the retention period for electronic data files maintained by FPDS?
6 years after submittal to FPDS
665
Until when should investigations, cases pending or in litigation be retained?
Until final clearance or settlement, or for the retention period of related documents, whichever is later
666
What types of media are included under FAR 4.805 for retention procedures?
Microfilm and various electronic media
667
What must be done with SAP transactions upon evidence of receipt, acceptance, and final payment?
SAP transactions must be closed out
668
How long must files for construction over the MPT be retained?
6 years
669
What is the file retention period for construction less than or equal to the MPT?
3 years
670
What is required if a contract over $15,000 has been terminated for default?
A Contractor Evaluation is required
671
True or False: Additional training is required to be granted construction contracting authority due to the Davis-Bacon Act.
True
672
Fill in the blank: Files for construction over the MPT must be retained for _______.
6 years
673
Fill in the blank: Files for construction less than or equal to the MPT must be retained for _______.
3 years
674
What is the threshold amount for a contract that requires a Contractor Evaluation if terminated for default?
Over $15,000
675
in order to be granted construction contracting authority.
additional training is required due to the requirements of the Davis-Bacon Act and other special requirements,
676
Who notifies the DBO of any urgent, unplanned funding needs?
The SU Budget Officer via the Parent Command ## Footnote This notification is for funding needs that exceed the SU’s current funding amount.
677
What does the SU Budget Officer do with unit-validated unfunded requirements?
Adds them to the backlog list ## Footnote The backlog list is maintained for currency and accuracy throughout the year.
678
What is the role of the SU Budget Officer in relation to the backlog list?
Maintains currency and accuracy of the backlog list throughout the year ## Footnote This includes ensuring that all unit-validated unfunded requirements are accurately documented.
679
Fill in the blank: The SU Budget Officer notifies the DBO of urgent funding needs that require funds above the SU’s _______.
current funding amount ## Footnote This refers to the existing budget allocation of the SU.
680
What does the DBO distribute regarding backlog guidance?
Guidance on dollar thresholds, prioritization, format/template/tool, categories for grouping, submission deadlines, and submission type constraints ## Footnote This guidance is crucial for managing backlog effectively.
681
What should be considered for pre-populating the backlog tool?
Unfunded requirements from the district Budget Review Board’s approved spend plan ## Footnote This ensures that all necessary requirements are accounted for.
682
How is the backlog tool described in terms of its status?
A living document that should be continually updated throughout the year ## Footnote This emphasizes the need for ongoing management and updates.
683
What guidance is provided to the SU Budget Officer after funding is received?
Updating the backlog tool ## Footnote This step is essential to reflect the current status of funding.
684
What types of decisions are guided for the SU Budget Officer regarding unfunded backlog requests?
Add to next year's spend plan, add to next year's backlog plan, or reject ## Footnote These decisions help prioritize and manage future funding needs.
685
True or False: The backlog process occurs only at the beginning of the fiscal year.
False ## Footnote The backlog process is ongoing throughout the year.
686
What is the role of the SU Budget Officer in the backlog submission process?
The SU Budget Officer reviews each backlog submission for compliance with DBO guidance before approving and forwarding to the Parent Command.
687
What should the SU and/or Parent Command Financial Manager consider when submitting backlog requests?
Consolidating similar items into a single backlog request.
688
What must the SU Budget Officer verify for backlog submissions over the micro-purchase threshold?
That all backlog submissions have a prepared procurement package.
689
Who should backlog submitters work closely with to pre-screen procurement packages?
The RST P&C Service Line.
690
What actions does the Parent Command take regarding backlog submissions?
Reviews, approves, or requests additional information for each backlog submission.
691
Fill in the blank: The SU Budget Officer reviews each backlog submission for compliance with _______ guidance.
[DBO]
692
True or False: The SU Budget Officer is responsible for consolidating similar items into a single backlog request.
False
693
What is a key step for backlog submitters when preparing procurement packages?
Working closely with the RST P&C Service Line to pre-screen them.
694
reviews/approves/requests additional information for each backlog submission.
The Parent Command
695
What does the DBO/RST manage?
The backlog request(s) ## Footnote The DBO is responsible for managing the backlog of requests in the procurement process.
696
What is one of the responsibilities of the DBO?
Submits prioritized backlog list to RMO as requested ## Footnote RMO stands for Resource Management Office.
697
How does the DBO ensure the accuracy of backlog list items?
Communicates regularly with SUs/Parent Commands ## Footnote SUs refers to Support Units.
698
What does the DBO update the backlog list to reflect?
New information received ## Footnote This includes past contracting deadlines, funding status, and ongoing need for items.
699
Who does the DBO communicate with to determine procurement capacity?
Base Comptroller and Senior Field Contracting Officers (SFCOs) ## Footnote This communication ensures effective funds execution.
700
When does the DBO manage backlog requests?
As funding becomes available during the FY ## Footnote FY refers to Fiscal Year.
701
Fill in the blank: The DBO communicates with SUs/Parent Commands to verify _______.
accuracy of backlog list items
702
True or False: The DBO is responsible for managing backlog requests only at the beginning of the fiscal year.
False ## Footnote The DBO continually manages backlog requests throughout the fiscal year.
703
What should be entered for assets without a manufacturer?
NOMANNO ## Footnote This indicates that there is no manufacturer for the asset.
704
What is the correct entry for assets without a model number?
NOMODNO ## Footnote This indicates that there is no model number for the asset.
705
What should be entered for assets that lack a serial number?
NOSERNO ## Footnote This indicates that there is no serial number for the asset.
706
What format must the alternative entries for required fields be in Oracle?
Upper case ## Footnote This ensures consistency in data entry.
707
Fill in the blank: The correct entry for assets without a manufacturer is _______.
NOMANNO
708
Fill in the blank: The correct entry for assets without a model number is _______.
NOMODNO
709
Fill in the blank: The correct entry for assets without a serial number is _______.
NOSERNO
710
What is the purpose of the RST/Service Level view?
To provide a high-level overview of each Operating Facility’s (OPFAC’s) performance of activities within the purview of individual RST or Service Level.
711
Who is the RST/Service Level view intended for?
RST/Service Level managers.
712
What can managers identify using the RST/Service Level view?
Breakdowns in overall performance and which units require corrective action.
713
Fill in the blank: The RST/Service Level view provides information to managers wishing to understand where _______ in overall performance are occurring.
[breakdowns]
714
True or False: The RST/Service Level view focuses only on successful performance without identifying issues.
False
715
What begins the evaluate step?
After a RPSO (or APO for Non-RPSO-Supported Units) identifies discrepancies within the Personal Property PAR during the Review step ## Footnote RPSO stands for Regional Property Support Office; APO stands for Accountable Property Officer.
716
What does evaluation include in the context of the Personal Property PAR?
Identifying which thresholds have not been met and specific Units and property records that are not in compliance ## Footnote Thresholds refer to the standards or requirements that must be met for compliance.
717
How can the discrepancy type be quickly identified?
By reviewing the Personal Property PAR Correction Boards, which highlight discrepancies in red for every personal property item ## Footnote The Correction Boards show required input fields that have discrepancies.
718
What should the RPSO/APO complete during the evaluation?
Determine which actions are required to become compliant ## Footnote Compliance refers to meeting the established standards or requirements.
719
What must be identified during the evaluation process?
Property items at Units that are deficient and specific actions that must be taken ## Footnote Deficient property items are those that do not meet compliance requirements.
720
Fill in the blank: The actions required to become compliant may include _______.
Completing the inventory if an entry is missing or re-entering the manufacturer, serial number, etc. if an error has been highlighted ## Footnote Completing the inventory ensures all property items are accounted for.
721
What does RPSO stand for?
Regional Property Support Office
722
What is the role of the RPSO after the evaluate step?
Assigns responsibility to appropriate APOs to provide data to correct identified discrepancies
723
What tool is used to submit corrections for discrepancies?
CGCC Property Action Tracker
724
Who takes action for Non-RPSO-Supported Units?
The APO or identifies appropriate personal property professionals
725
What should the assignments include?
Guidance on remediation areas and corrective action timeframe
726
Fill in the blank: The Personal Property PAR Correction Boards require _______.
[remediation]
727
True or False: The APO is responsible for corrective action in both RPSO and Non-RPSO-Supported Units.
False
728
What specific areas should be identified for remediation?
Areas within the Personal Property PAR Correction Boards
729
What is the timeframe for corrective action?
Specified in the assignments
730
What action does the APO take for Non-RPSO-Supported Units?
Identifies appropriate personal property professionals ## Footnote This involves determining the necessary expertise to address issues related to personal property management.
731
What should the assignments for Non-RPSO-Supported Units include?
Guidance on: * Identification of specific areas within the Personal Property PAR Correction Boards requiring remediation * Timeframe for corrective action to occur ## Footnote This ensures that there is a clear plan and timeline for addressing identified issues.
732
True or False: The APO's guidance includes a timeframe for corrective action.
True ## Footnote Establishing a timeframe helps ensure accountability and timely resolution of issues.
733
What is the purpose of identifying specific areas within the Personal Property PAR Correction Boards?
To require remediation ## Footnote This identification is crucial for improving the management and oversight of personal property.
734
What should the APO prioritize when completing corrective actions?
Actions with the objective of completing as many corrective actions as possible in the shortest timeframe ## Footnote This is particularly important during a PAR Executive Review or in response to RPSO/APO assignments.
735
What is the role of the APO in response to the Personal Property PAR report?
Correct the issues identified by the Personal Property PAR report, prioritized per the prior step ## Footnote This involves addressing entry errors and identifying underlying reasons for them.
736
What should the APO seek when correcting entry errors?
The underlying reason for the error(s) ## Footnote For example, misunderstandings regarding what is required to be entered in specific fields.
737
Where can questions regarding entry errors be referred for clarification?
CGCC VCC ## Footnote The CGCC VCC can provide guidance on entry requirements.
738
What should the APO identify besides the errors listed in the Personal Property PAR Correction Board?
Other recent personal property actions that might have been subjected to the same errors ## Footnote This ensures comprehensive correction of errors in personal property actions.
739
True or False: The list of errors in the Personal Property PAR Correction Board is intended to be comprehensive.
False ## Footnote The list is not comprehensive; other errors may exist that need correction.
740
What should RPSOs provide regarding discrepancies?
Background information, action plans, and projected timeframes for correction
741
What happens if major deficiencies are discovered during reviews?
Follow-up reviews will be more frequent
742
What does RPSO stand for?
Regional Program Support Office
743
Fill in the blank: RPSOs should be available to provide ______ regarding discrepancies.
background information
744
True or False: Follow-up reviews occur less frequently if major deficiencies are found.
False
745
What is the purpose of RPSOs in relation to discrepancies?
To provide information and plans for correction
746
RPSOs (or APOs for Non-RPSO-Supported Units) should be available to provide
action plans and projected 23 timeframes for correction. Follow-up reviews will be more frequent if major deficiencies are discovered.
747
What does RPSO stand for?
RPSO stands for Reporting and Performance Support Office
748
What is the purpose of the after action report from RPSO?
To provide updates to executives as part of the Executive Review
749
What are the key components that should be included in the after action report?
* The corrections made * The cause(s) of discrepancy * Additional corrections to address other items affected * Remaining issues and plans to address them
750
True or False: The after action report includes only the corrections made.
False
751
Fill in the blank: The after action report should contain the cause(s) of _______.
discrepancy
752
What should the after action report address regarding other items?
Additional corrections to address other items that were affected by the same cause(s)
753
What should the after action report outline regarding remaining issues?
Plans to address them
754
What are the regular updates that capture corrections?
Regular monthly PAR updates ## Footnote These updates typically address corrections and changes needed in the system.
755
How can an off-cycle update be requested?
Through the CGCC Virtual Communications Center (VCC) ## Footnote The VCC is the designated platform for such requests.
756
True or False: Off-cycle updates can be requested at any time.
True ## Footnote Requests for off-cycle updates can be made as needed.
757
Fill in the blank: Corrections are normally captured within the regular monthly _______.
[PAR updates]
758
What is the sample size for a total number of stock inventory line items between 1 and 150?
20 ## Footnote This is the required sample size for this range of total inventory items.
759
What is the sample size for a total number of stock inventory line items between 151 and 280?
32 ## Footnote This sample size applies when the total inventory items fall within this range.
760
What is the sample size for a total number of stock inventory line items between 281 and 500?
40 ## Footnote This is the minimum sample size for this range of total inventory items.
761
What is the sample size for a total number of stock inventory line items between 501 and 1,200?
80 ## Footnote This sample size is necessary for this inventory range.
762
What is the sample size for a total number of stock inventory line items between 1,201 and 3,200?
120 ## Footnote This number is required for accurate sampling in this inventory range.
763
What is the sample size for a total number of stock inventory line items between 3,201 and 10,000?
200 ## Footnote This is the appropriate sample size for this range.
764
What is the sample size for a total number of stock inventory line items between 10,001 and 35,000?
315 ## Footnote This sample size is used for the highest inventory range.
765
What is the allowed error for a total number of stock inventory line items between 1 and 150?
1 ## Footnote This indicates the maximum allowable error for this range.
766
What is the allowed error for a total number of stock inventory line items between 151 and 280?
1 ## Footnote This is the maximum error permitted for this range.
767
What is the allowed error for a total number of stock inventory line items between 281 and 500?
2 ## Footnote This represents the allowable error for this inventory range.
768
What is the allowed error for a total number of stock inventory line items between 501 and 1,200?
4 ## Footnote This number indicates the maximum error allowed.
769
What is the allowed error for a total number of stock inventory line items between 1,201 and 3,200?
6 ## Footnote This is the error limit for this range of inventory.
770
What is the allowed error for a total number of stock inventory line items between 3,201 and 10,000?
11 ## Footnote This is the maximum error permitted for this inventory range.
771
What is the allowed error for a total number of stock inventory line items between 10,001 and 35,000?
17 ## Footnote This indicates the maximum allowable error for the highest inventory range.
772
What is the sample size for a total number of stock inventory line items between 1 and 150?
2
773
What is the sample size for a total number of stock inventory line items between 151 and 280?
3
774
What is the sample size for a total number of stock inventory line items between 281 and 500?
4
775
What is the sample size for a total number of stock inventory line items between 501 and 1,200?
8
776
What is the sample size for a total number of stock inventory line items between 1,201 and 3,200?
12
777
What is the sample size for a total number of stock inventory line items between 3,201 and 10,000?
20
778
What is the sample size for a total number of stock inventory line items between 10,001 and 35,000?
32
779
What is the acquisition value threshold for standard micro-purchases?
$10,000 ## Footnote This value represents the maximum amount for micro-purchases under standard conditions.
780
What is the micro-purchase threshold for contingency operations, defense, or recovery inside the US?
$20,000 ## Footnote This threshold applies specifically to operations related to contingency, defense, or recovery efforts within the United States.
781
What is the micro-purchase threshold for contingency operations, defense, or recovery outside the US?
$30,000 ## Footnote This amount is designated for operations similar to those inside the US but conducted abroad.
782
What is the standard simplified acquisition threshold (SAT)?
$250,000 ## Footnote The SAT is the upper limit for simplified acquisition procedures.
783
What is the SAT for humanitarian or peacekeeping operations outside the US?
$500,000 ## Footnote This threshold allows for greater spending in humanitarian or peacekeeping efforts conducted internationally.
784
What is the SAT for contingency operations, defense, or recovery inside the US?
$800,000 ## Footnote This higher threshold is set for specific operations related to defense and recovery within the US.
785
What is the SAT for contingency operations, defense, or recovery outside the US?
$1,500,000 ## Footnote This represents the maximum allowable amount for these operations conducted outside the US.
786
Fill in the blank: The standard micro-purchase threshold is _______.
$10,000
787
Fill in the blank: The simplified acquisition threshold for standard operations is _______.
$250,000
788
What is the purpose of the IAW CG-91 PALT Policy issued in May 2015?
To establish guidelines for procurement processes.
789
What does Sole Source refer to in procurement?
A procurement method where a single supplier is chosen without competition.
790
What is the dollar value range for Non-Commercial construction projects?
Between $35K and $150K.
791
What is the threshold for Micro Purchase?
Up to $10K.
792
What is the maximum dollar value for Simplified Acquisition Procedures (SAP)?
Up to $250K.
793
What is the dollar value for Non-Competitive Sole Source procurements?
Up to $500K.
794
What is the dollar value range for Commercial projects?
Between $500K and $13M.
795
What is the SAT for Simplified Acquisition Procedures?
$250K.
796
What does MPT stand for in procurement?
Micro Purchase Threshold.
797
What is the HCA approved SAP PALT?
A timeline for procuring under Simplified Acquisition Procedures.
798
What does PALT stand for?
Procurement Acquisition Lead Time.
799
What is the Micro-Purchase Threshold for supplies?
$10,000 or below ## Footnote This threshold applies to contracts resulting from non-purchase card actions.
800
What is the Micro-Purchase Threshold for services?
$2,500 or below ## Footnote This threshold applies to contracts resulting from non-purchase card actions.
801
What is the Micro-Purchase Threshold for construction?
$2,000 or below
802
What is the estimated calendar days for P2+P3 for supplies between $10,001 - $25,000?
10 – 30
803
What is the estimated calendar days for P2+P3 for services between $25,001 - $250,000?
20 – 75
804
What is the estimated calendar days for P2+P3 for contracts over $250,000?
30 – 110
805
What is the estimated calendar days for a Blanket Purchase Agreement (BPA) under $250,000?
20 – 75
806
What is the estimated calendar days for a Blanket Purchase Agreement (BPA) over $250,000?
80 – 140
807
What is the estimated calendar days for competitive delivery orders for supplies between $250,001 - $500K? This applies to MAC IDIQ and GSA contracts.
15 – 65
808
What is the estimated calendar days for competitive delivery orders for supplies over $500K but less than $3M? This applies to MAC IDIQ and GSA contracts.
35 – 95
809
What is the estimated calendar days for competitive task orders for services between $250,001 - $500K? This applies to MAC IDIQ and GSA contracts.
30 – 80
810
What is the estimated calendar days for competitive task orders for services over $10M? This applies to MAC IDIQ and GSA contracts.
90 – 170
811
What is the estimated calendar days for full and open competitive contracts between $250,001 - $500K?
20 – 125
812
What is the estimated calendar days for full and open tradeoff competitive contracts over $500K but less than $3M?
50 – 185
813
Fill in the blank: The estimated calendar days for full and open competitive contracts over $50M is _______.
100 – 245
814
Fill in the blank: The estimated calendar days for competitive task orders for services over $3M but less than $10M is _______.
70 – 140
815
Where should Coast Guard voluntary education services inquiries related to tuition assistance be sent to?
ETQC-SMB-TAG@uscg.mil
816
Registrar services provided by ETQC include which of the following?
* JST * CST * ACE
817
Which directive provides specific guidance on the Coast Guard voluntary credentialing program?
Commandant instruction 1540.10- CG voluntary credentialing program
818
Where are tuition assistance waivers submitted for final review?
ETQC
819
Where can a link to the ASVAB AFCT waiver request guide be found?
Voluntary education service's
820
The Harry W. Colmery veterans educational assistance act is also known as?
Forever GI Bill
821
Under the post 9/11 G.I. Bill, a veteran enrolled at more than one 1/2 time can qualify for a monthly housing allowance based on DOD's basic allowance for housing rates for an _______ with dependents?
E5
822
The Montgomery G.I. Bill active duty provides up to _______ months of educational benefits.
36
823
The G.I. Bill comparison tool offers information based on which of the following G.I. Bill benefits?
* Post 9/11 (CH 33) * Montgomery (CH 30) * Select Reserve (CH 1606) * Veterans Readiness and employment * Dependents Educational Assistance (DEA)
824
Veterans in their second six months of OJT and apprenticeship training programs may use their G.I. Bill benefits to receive _______ of the applicable monthly housing stipend.
80%
825
In which of the following cases is tuition assistance authorized for?
Active duty and reserve members who are drilling and have met drilling requirements for the last two years
826
One purpose of the ________ program is to provide developmental incentives for personnel with high ability, dedication, and the capacity for professional growth to remain in the Coast Guard.
Advanced education program
827
Which of the following is a responsibility for a student who has been accepted into the advanced education program?
* Complete necessary prerequisites and route forms * Act as a CG liaison to the institute and military advocate with regard to their attendance * Monitor and comply with fiscal requirements * Carry full credit hour load * Maintain academic proficiency * Complete program requirements in time * Maintain CG requirements and standards
828
Who acts as subject matter expert to assist Coast Guard members with voluntary education programs?
ESO
829
Name the four firearm safety rules?
* Treat all firearms as if they were loaded * Keep finger off trigger until ready to shoot * Know your target and what's beyond it * Keep control of the muzzle at all times
830
Which of the following is a requirement to advance to E-3?
SIX MONTHS IN PAY GRADE E-2 OR SATISFACTORY COMPLETION OF CLASS A COURSE
831
Which of the following is a requirement to advance to E-4?
SIX MONTHS IN PAY GRADE OF E-3
832
The ________ and ASVAB tests are different versions of the same battery of tests.
AFCT ARMED FORCES CLASSIFICATION TEST
833
Class 'A' Course graduates who had their advancement to E-4 withheld upon graduation due to receiving an 'UNSAT' conduct while attending a Class 'A' Course are required to complete how many months of good conduct prior to being advanced?
6 months
834
Which of the following ratings have no direct path of advancement from E3 to E4?
IV and DV
835
Where is the list of ratings open to striking found?
ALCOAST MESSAGE
836
Where are A school rating requirements listed?
CG PSC WEBSITE-Performance, training and education manual
837
Which stress management term is defined as bad stress?
Distress
838
Good stress is related to which stress management term?
Eustress
839
Which term is defined as the nonspecific response of the body to any demands placed upon it or what you feel after you encounter a stressor?
Stress
840
What are stressors?
The causes of stress: transfers, deadlines, etc.
841
What term is defined as a stress management tool used to measure a person's personal stress load?
Stress map
842
Stress is defined within the CG stress management program as:
The nonspecific response of the body to any demands placed upon it or what you feel after you encounter a stressor. Anxiety, frustration, depression.
843
The services provided by the _____________ are available for professional assistance with stress management.
Employee assistance program coordinator EAPC
844
Which stress management awareness and skills training promotes an understanding of stress, awareness of support resources, and provides practical stress navigation tools to help build resilience of Sailors, families, and commands?
Operational stress control
845
How can you contact the Employee Assistance program?
1855CGSUPRT or www.cgsuprt.com
846
Who is eligible for the Office of Work-life stress management program?
Active duty and dependents, reservists, civilians employed in the Coast Guard
847
Identify a signal of distress which is an expected stress reaction associated with critical incidents.
* Emotional response * Cognitive response * Behavioral response * Psychological response * Spiritual distress response
848
Which of the following is an intention of the substance abuse prevention program?
* Raise awareness of substance abuse issues * Encourage, teach, and support low-risk guidelines for alcohol use * Provide periodic prevention training * Support commands * Outline zero tolerance for drug/substance misuse and abuse * Support mission readiness * Align with other policy
849
The National Institute of Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA) low risk guidelines suggest that 'zero' drinks is the low risk option when _______.
Driving, using machinery, cleaning a weapon, pregnant, or on certain medication
850
Key behaviors for low-risk alcohol use include what model?
0, 1, 2, 3 model
851
Where can you find additional clarification on low-risk drinking guidelines?
www.rethinkingdrinking.niaaa.gov
852
What is substance abuse prime for life training used for?
For members showing signs of misusing alcohol
853
What is one responsibility of a command drug and alcohol representative CDAR?
854
What is the definition of substance abuse?
The use of a substance by a member, which causes other (performance of duty, health, behavior, family, community) problems or places the member's safety at risk.
855
What is considered substance abuse?
The use of a substance by a member which causes other problems or places the member's safety at risk.
856
According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA), drinking too much over time can raise your risk for ___, cancer, liver disease, and other illnesses.
Heart and brain problems
857
According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA), more than ___ people die from alcohol-related causes in the United States each year.
95,000
858
Being able to 'hold your liquor' or having a high tolerance for alcohol is ________.
Increased risk for developing alcohol use disorder AUD
859
What is considered binge drinking for men?
5 drinks in 2 hours
860
What is considered binge drinking for women?
4 drinks in 2 hours
861
Binge drinking is a pattern of drinking that brings BAC to what percent or higher?
0.08 or higher
862
What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by a person being slightly impaired?
0.08
863
What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by stupor or blackout?
0.30
864
What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by coma and risk of death?
0.40
865
Youth who drink alcohol are more likely to experience?
* School problems, such as higher rates of absences or lower grades * Social problems, such as fighting or lack of participation in youth activities * Legal problems, such as arrest for driving or physically hurting someone while drunk * Physical problems, such as hangovers or illnesses * Unwanted, unplanned, and unprotected sexual activity * Disruption of normal growth or sexual development * Physical and sexual violence * Increased risk of suicide and homicide * Alcohol-related motor vehicle crashes and other unintentional injuries, such as burns, falls, or drowning * Memory problems * Misuse of other substances * Changes in brain development that may have life-long effects * Alcohol poisoning
866
Which of the following is a reason women face higher risk of drinking alcohol?
Weigh less and have less water weight
867
What is a standard drink for 80 proof hard liquor?
1.5 ounces
868
How many grams of pure alcohol are in a standard drink?
14 grams
869
How many fluid ounces of table wine are in a standard drink?
5 ounces
870
How many fluid ounces of beer are in a standard drink?
12 oz
871
Using the BAC calculator, what would be the BAC percentage for a 150 pound male who consumed 3 oz of 40% alcohol over one hour?
0.09%
872
Across the United States, a recorded blood alcohol content BAC test of ____ or higher alcohol is proof of DUI without any other evidence.
0.08
873
Which of the following is required for self-referral for potential substance abuse?
874
Which statement reflects the Coast Guard policy on tobacco use and abuse?
Discourage the use of all forms of tobacco products
875
Which example would constitute unauthorized use of a prescription drug?
No current prescription (within six months) or verified medical use explanation for a drug(s) that would account for the positive urinalysis result.
876
Which of the following is considered prohibited substance abuse?
* Controlled or synthetic substance analogues, such as designer drugs * Inhalants * Propellants * Solvents * Household chemicals * Substances used for huffing and prescription or over-the-counter medications in excess of prescribed dosage * Any naturally occurring intoxicating substances, such as Salvia divinorum
877
Which of the following constitutes a drug incident?
* Intentional use of drugs for non-medical purposes * Wrongful possession of drugs * Trafficking of drugs * The intentional use of other substances to obtain a 'high' * A civil or military conviction for wrongful use, possession, or trafficking of drugs
878
Urinalysis is the procedure employed to obtain urine samples under controlled conditions, maintaining a chain of custody on each sample, and ____.
Scientifically analyzing the samples to detect the presence of drugs
879
Which of the following would be the consequence of a drug incident?
* Military separation * Disciplinary action * Possible medical treatment
880
Which term is defined as self-inflicted death with evidence, either explicit or implicit, or intent to die?
Suicide
881
Which term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior for which there is evidence, either implicit or explicit that the person did not intend to kill himself?
Self harm
882
What term is defined as any interpersonal action, verbal or nonverbal, without a direct self-injurious component for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, that the person is communicating that a suicide-related behavior might occur in the near future?
Suicide Threat
883
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior with a non-fatal outcome for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, of intent to die?
Suicide attempt
884
Self harm with no injury is reported as?
Self harm level 1
885
Self harm with injury is reported as?
Self harm level 2
886
Self harm resulting in death is reported as?
Self harm level 3
887
Suicide attempt resulting in injury is reported as?
Suicide attempt level 2
888
Suicide attempt resulting in no injury is reported as?
Suicide attempt level 1
889
What term is defined as any self-reported thoughts of engaging in suicide-related behaviors?
Suicide-Related Ideations
890
What would be the cause to report a Self harm level 3 in the suicide prevention program?
Death
891
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior where intent is unknown?
Undetermined Suicide-Related Behavior
892
Dismissing __________ as 'manipulation' is one of the surest ways to increase suicide risk.
Suicidal ideations
893
In one survey, more than 26,000 students across 70 colleges and universities reported having at least __________ at some point in their lives.
One episode of suicidal thinking
894
What are any interpersonal acts of imparting, conveying, or transmitting suicide-related thoughts, wishes, desires, or intent known as?
Suicide-Related Communications
895
What type of suicide-related communication is a proposed method of carrying out a design that can potentially result in suicide-related behavior?
Suicide plan
896
A medical professional must perform an analysis and diagnosis for potential ___________ upon commission of an alcohol incident or referral.
AUD (alcohol use disorder)
897
A member diagnosed within the first ___________ days of CG service as drug/alcohol abuse or dependent is considered physically disqualified for enlistment.
180 days
898
What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by a person being 'sloppy' drunk?
0.16
899
A sign of alcohol poisoning is?
* Confusion * Vomiting * Seizures * Slow breathing (less than eight breaths a minute) * Irregular breathing (a gap of more than 10 seconds between breaths) * Blue-tinged skin or pale skin * Low body temperature (hypothermia) * Passing out (unconsciousness) and can't be awakened
900
According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA), as an individual's BAC increases, the risk of ___________ increases.
Harm
901
The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) offers which as an example of a way to manage stress?
* Get regular exercise * Eat healthy, regular meals and stay hydrated * Make sleep a priority * Try a relaxing activity * Set goals and priorities * Practice gratitude * Focus on positivity * Stay connected
902
What type of suicide-related communication is a systematic formulation of a program of action that will potentially lead to suicide-related behaviors?
Suicide plan
903
Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior?
Is PATH Warm
904
________ is not an easy thing to do, but it is essential for suicide prevention.
ASK
905
What may be helpful to lead into the question 'Are you thinking about killing yourself?'?
Statement of your observations
906
What mnemonic is used as an aid for what to do when you suspect someone is thinking of suicide?
ACE Ask-Care-Escort
907
During which step of suicide prevention may the at-risk member attempt to make a joke or attempt to deflect the direct question?
ASK
908
During the ______ step of suicide prevention you should actively listen.
Care
909
During which step of suicide prevention should you remove or take possession of any means that could be used for self-injury?
Care
910
During which step of suicide prevention is it important to not promise confidentiality?
Care
911
In which step of suicide prevention is active listening likely to produce relief?
Care
912
During which step of suicide prevention should you encourage the person to seek help?
Care
913
You may express optimism that the person will be helped and will feel better if it seems appropriate and genuine during which step of suicide prevention?
Care
914
During which step in suicide prevention will you adopt an attitude that you are going to help the person, and that this will save his or her life?
Escort
915
During which step of suicide prevention should you escort the person to the nearest emergency room, HCP, or mental healthcare professional?
ESCORT
916
If you ask a person 'Are you thinking about killing yourself?' and they make a joke of the question, what should you do?
Hang
917
During which step of suicide prevention may you express optimism that the person will be helped?
Care
918
During which step in suicide prevention do you adopt an attitude that you will help the person?
Care
919
During which step of suicide prevention should you escort the person to the nearest emergency room?
Escort
920
If a person jokes when asked 'Are you thinking about killing yourself?', what should you do?
Hang in there and ask the question again
921
If a person indicates thoughts of suicide, what information should you get?
How? Situation? History?
922
Who can you contact for help with suicide prevention?
Regional Work-Life Office
923
Which form of birth control is both reversible and can be used as emergency contraception?
IUD
924
Which form of birth control is included in tier 1 for effectiveness?
Implant, vasectomy, tubal occlusion, IUD
925
STDs can be passed from one person to another, ______ though this is not very common.
intimate physical contact like heavy petting
926
Most people do not have any symptoms when they have which STD?
Trichomoniasis, herpes
927
What is the most reliable way to avoid STD infection?
abstinence
928
Who is required to develop Personal Fitness Plans?
All active duty and Selres
929
To whom do you submit your completed Personal Fitness Plan?
Supervisor
930
When must your completed Personal Fitness Plan be submitted?
April and October
931
Who must keep the most current Personal Fitness Plan on file?
Member and supervisor
932
What is the CDC's physical fitness guideline for moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week?
150 minutes (2 hours 30 mins)
933
How many days per week should muscle-strengthening activities be performed according to CDC guidelines?
two or more days a week
934
How many minutes per week must all active duty members engage in fitness activity?
180 minutes
935
It is strongly recommended that the Personal Fitness Plan include ________ minutes per week of cardiorespiratory activity.
150 minutes
936
It is strongly recommended that the Personal Fitness Plan include ______ minutes per week of strength training.
30 minutes
937
What is the minimum length of exercise sessions to be beneficial?
10 minutes
938
Physical activity sessions should be spread out over at least how many days per week?
3 days
939
Physical activity should produce a training effect, as measured by a _________ level of intensity.
Medium to vigorous level of intensity
940
According to the CDC, adults should perform 150 minutes per week of aerobic activity at what level of intensity?
moderate-intensity
941
What is the form number for the Personal Fitness Plan?
CG-6049
942
Coast Guard operations inherently involve _______.
the acceptance of some level of risk
943
What is a critical human factor that increases potential for error-induced mishaps?
Mission analysis, leadership, adaptability and flexibility, situational awareness, decision-making, communication, and assertiveness
944
Deliberate use of the Risk Management process by reducing member exposure to hazards _______.
increases mission success
945
What must justify the expected risk exposure in conducting an activity?
the potential gains of conducting the activity or mission
946
What provides a framework to identify and assess hazards?
RM process
947
What initial analysis is updated prior to any mission activity throughout the day?
GAR 2.0
948
When is Risk Management (RM) most effective?
hazards are identified early and there is ample time to evaluate and implement mitigations
949
Since all Coast Guard missions are fluid, the Risk Management process is _______.
continuous and adaptive
950
Where are the steps of Risk Management (RM) described?
Risk Management Fundamentals
951
What are units encouraged to use for 'what can go wrong' analyses?
Risk Assessment Matrix
952
What is a function of physiological and psychological factors that supports crew performance?
Crew endurance
953
Additional elements can be added to GAR 2.0 risk to _______.
address unique operational realities
954
Which is a model used during risk assessments?
PEACE and STAAR
955
What is defined as the possibility of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard?
RISK
956
What is defined as a process to identify, assess, control, mitigate and manage hazards?
Risk Management (RM)
957
How many actions are in the Assess Hazards step in the Risk Management (RM) process?
The five steps of RM-identify the hazards, assess the hazards, develop controls and make risk decisions, implement controls, and supervise and evaluate
958
What is an action taken during the first step in the Risk Management (RM) process?
Identifying Hazards
959
What analyses are captured in GAR 2.0 to make warranted risk decisions?
PEACE/STAAR analyses
960
What model is used to identify essential elements for safe operation?
PEACE model
961
What deliberate risk assessment should units perform at the start of each day?
GAR 2.0
962
What model must be included in GAR 2.0?
PEACE
963
What model outlines strategies to mitigate and/or control risk?
STAAR
964
Which models, when used together, generate necessary information for decision making?
PEACE and STAAR
965
What shall all units use for real-time risk assessment prior to operations?
GAR 2.0
966
Who determines if the use of a government motor vehicle is for official purposes?
Unit Commander, CO, OIC
967
When are CG owned motor vehicles authorized to transport spouses and dependents?
Official function to which the spouse and dependent were invited
968
What is defined as evaluating an individual's or family's income and recommending actions for financial goals?
Financial planning and counseling
969
How many elements does the Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP) consist of?
7
970
Which is an element of the Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP)?
Education and training, counseling, information and referral, command financial specialist program, outreach, collaboration and coordination, Coast Guard support personal financial wellness program
971
Commands with at least _____ personnel must have a trained Command Financial Specialist (CFS).
25
972
What is the early withdrawal penalty tax for the Thrift Saving Plan?
10 percent
973
The compliance tab in CGBI is broken down into ______ categories.
4
974
What must you do if your preferred email address is not listed in CGBI?
Update your contact information in Direct Access
975
What is a purpose of the EES?
To set standards by which to evaluate the performance and behavior of all enlisted members
976
Which would be an authorized use of a CG owned motor vehicle?
Official purposes, Ceremonies, Non-CG Employees in official capacity, Spouse and dependents with member, Military recruits, Official travel
977
Only government employees with a ___ drivers license can operate a motor vehicle.
Current and unrestricted
978
To reduce potential for traffic mishaps, personnel must not exceed ______ hours of duty and driving hours.
14
979
Which form is used to report accidents involving a government motor vehicle?
SF91
980
What must personnel convicted of a serious moving violation while operating a government motor vehicle do?
Complete driver improvement course
981
What term is defined as managing one's personal finances, including income and expenses?
Personal financial management
982
Which grooming standard applies to mustaches?
Will not extend below the top of the upper lip or beyond the corners of the mouth
983
Who can grant a permanent shaving waiver for personnel diagnosed with Pseudofolliculitis Barbae (PFB)?
CO or OIC
984
The USCG celebrates its birthday on __________ of each year.
Aug 4th
985
The Revenue Cutter Service began with ________ cutters.
10
986
All members of the Armed Forces are expected to measure up to standards in the Code of Conduct _________.
while in combat or in captivity
987
What are the two types of advisories in the National Terrorism Advisory System (NTAS)?
Alerts and Bulletins
988
Which FPCON applies when an increased threat of terrorist activity exists?
FPCON Bravo
989
Which FPCON requires movement of cars and objects at least 25 meters from buildings?
FPCON Bravo
990
In 1838, congress enacted legislation that evolved into which agency?
steamboat inspection service
991
The National Terrorism Advisory System (NTAS) consists of how many types of advisories?
2 - Alerts and Bulletins
992
Which FPCON applies when an increased and more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists?
FPCON Bravo
993
Which FPCON requires the movement of cars and objects at least 25 meters from buildings?
FPCON Bravo
994
In 1838, Congress enacted legislation in response to steamboat boiler explosions that would evolve into what agency?
steamboat inspection service
995
The first time that a federal agency was specifically tasked with looking for people in danger was in ______________.
1831
996
The United States Coast Guard (USCG) was formed when the Revenue Cutter Service and Life-Saving Service were merged on what date?
Jan 28, 1915
997
When was the USCG transferred to the Department of Transportation?
April 1967
998
When was the USCG transferred to the Department of Homeland Security?
March 1, 2003
999
Alexander Hamilton was appointed to be the first ________.
Secretary of Treasury
1000
Who was the Coast Guard's first aviator?
CDR Elmer F. Archie Stone
1001
Who was the first Commandant of the USCG?
Captain Ellsworth Price Bertholf
1002
On June 19, 1911, Ellsworth Price Bertholf was named Captain Commandant of the _____________.
United States Revenue Cutter Service
1003
Who was awarded the medal of honor for evacuating a battalion of marines trapped by Japanese forces on September 27, 1942?
Douglas Munro
1004
Where did SM1 Douglas Munro aid a battalion of Marines during landing and rescue?
Point Cruz, Guadalcanal
1005
SM1 Douglas Munro was in charge of 24 Higgins boats during an amphibious invasion at Point Cruz, _____________.
Guadalcanal
1006
What vessel is credited with firing the first naval shot of the Civil War?
USRC Harriet Lane
1007
The USCGC TAMPA was sunk by __________ during World War I.
German torpedo
1008
An explosion that killed more than 1,600 people in Nova Scotia led Congress to establish _____________ duties for the United States Coast Guard.
Captain of the port
1009
Captain of the Port duties were assigned to the United States Coast Guard during which military conflict?
World War I
1010
During World War I, how many USCG cutters went overseas to perform convoy escort duty between Gibraltar and Great Britain?
6
1011
During World War II, which Coast Guard officer led a 16-member unit of his special task force on a raid to a German arsenal in Cherbourg, France?
CAPT Quentin R Walsh
1012
Which Coast Guard officer was awarded the Navy Cross for heroic actions during the liberation of 50 American paratroopers who had been prisoners since D-Day?
CAPT Quentin R Walsh
1013
During Vietnam, the USCG conducted _____________, which patrolled the South Vietnamese coast to stop the flow of war materials and personnel from going to the Viet Cong.
Operation market time (patrols / interdictions)
1014
During Vietnam, how many Point Class patrol boats from the CG were sent to Vietnam to support maritime interdiction operations?
26
1015
Where did CG Port Security Units deploy in 1990-1991?
1016
The USCG were among the first to respond to the attack on the World Trade Center on?
9/11/2001
1017
In which year did the USCG conduct the largest domestic SAR mission in United States history following Hurricane Katrina?
2005
1018
The USCG mobilized more than 2,700 reservists in the largest homeland security operation since World War II, following ___________.
9/11
1019
In 2010, USCG reserves were activated in response to the deepwater horizon oil rig explosion that forcefully pumped oil and gases into Gulf waters for _________ days.
87
1020
DC3 Nathan B. Bruckenthal was posthumously awarded which award for his actions on 24 April 2004?
Bronze Star Medal (with combat 'V')
1021
Who served as Boarding Officer on the USS FIREBOLT (PC 10) in Iraq when he was mortally wounded?
DC3 Nathan B. Bruckenthal
1022
How many times has the National Ensign been changed since 1776?
26
1023
The CG Ensign consists of ________ perpendicular stripes, alternating red and white.
16
1024
The ______ is displayed as a mark of authority for boardings, examinations, and seizures of vessels for the purpose of enforcing U.S. laws.
Coast Guard ensign
1025
The ____________ provided a symbol of authority on Revenue Cutters, as neither officer nor crew had uniforms.
Coast Guard ensign
1026
The ______ was created to fly in place of the national flag while in American waters.
Coast Guard Ensign
1027
On 1 August 1799, Secretary of the Treasury, Oliver Wolcott, issued an order specifying the design of the __________________.
Coast Guard Ensign
1028
During parades and ceremonies, the Coast Guard Standard is adorned with _____________.
43 battle streamers
1029
The design of the _____________ is obscure, but it may have evolved from an early jack.
Coast Guard Standard
1030
The _________ is the upper left corner of the CG ensign.
Coast Guard standard
1031
This flag is used during parades and ceremonies.
Coast Guard Standard
1032
What is carried in all ceremonies representing heroic actions in all naval encounters from 1798 to the present?
Battle Streamers
1033
Battle streamers are attached to the _____________, replacing cords and tassels.
Coast Guard Standard
1034
Individual units may only display those ___________ that they have earned.
Battle Streamers
1035
Only _____________ may display a complete set of battle streamers.
major headquarters commands
1036
The USCG adopted battle streamers in 1968, following the practice established by the ________.
The US Marine Corps
1037
The USCG is authorized a total of ________ battle streamers.
43
1038
The ________ is flown on the bow of a vessel, only while at anchor or moored in port.
Union Jack
1039
The __________ is flown on the jackstaff, which is located on the bow of a vessel.
Union Jack
1040
The ________ is the canton of the US Flag.
Union Jack
1041
The presence of the _______ indicates that a cutter is under the command of a commissioned officer.
Commissioning Pennant
1042
The _______ is used on invitations, programs, certificates, diplomas, and greetings.
CG Seal
1043
The _______ is used on official documents and records of the Coast Guard.
CG Seal
1044
The first Coast Guard seal and emblem were approved by Treasury Secretary Andrew W. Mellon in ________.
1927
1045
The CG_________ was ordered to be used on the CG Ensign as a distinctive logo in 1957.
Coast Guard emblem
1046
The historical significance of the Coast Guard __________ dates back to the Revenue Cutter Service.
CG Shield
1047
The _________ consists of a wide red bar forward of a narrow blue bar both canted at 64 degrees on the bow with CG emblem superimposed.
CG Stripe
1048
The _______________ was developed in the 1960's by the industrial design firm Raymond Loewy?williams Snaith, INC.
CG Stripe
1049
Semper Paratus is the Latin word meaning: _____________.
always ready
1050
When was the Coast Guard Motto adopted?
Between October 1896 and May 1897
1051
The earliest recorded use of the phrase 'Semper Paratus' appeared in a newspaper article in the city of ________, praising the Revenue Cutter Ingham.
New Orleans
1052
What language did Semper Paratus originate from?
Latin
1053
The music for Semper Paratus was written by _____________.
Captain Francis Saltus Van Boskerck
1054
What is a safety data sheet (SDS)?
Provide information on proper use, potential hazards, protective measures, protective equipment, and emergency first aid procedures to be followed.
1055
What must be readily accessible to all workers while in their work area, when workers are required to use HAZMAT or when workers are at risk of exposure to HAZMAT?
Safety Data Sheets
1056
If the SDS is not available, who must the unit notify to obtain the SDS?
Contact manufacturer or supplier
1057
The standard GHS format for a SDS includes ____ sections, in a specified order.
16
1058
Specific hazard information may not be present on a chemical container. As a result, you must consult the ________ to prevent improper use or handling.
1059
GHS provides a standard for the content, layout, and presentation of _____.
1060
What is the active and reserve gold badge assignment standard tour length?
2 years
1061
Who must provide the Commander/Commanding Officer endorsement for all CSELs except the MCPOCG and MCPO-CGR?
O-6 or higher
1062
What program is intended to assist you in becoming familiar with your new community and the resources available when you are reassigned?
Relocation Assistance Program
1063
Who can provide you with community information, demographics information, relocation packages, and state information when you are reassigned?
Transition/Relocation Managers
1064
Transition/Relocation Managers may provide _____ with local resource information.
Welcome packages
1065
How should you contact your Transition/relocation manager?
Regional Work-Life Staff
1066
Your _______ can help you utilize the Office of Work-Life Adoption Reimbursement Program.
Family Resource Specialist
1067
Who is your point of contact for information relating to the Coast Guard Scholarship Program?
Family Resource Specialist
1068
What form is used to enroll my dependent family member with medical special needs into the special needs program (SNP)?
DD 2792 medical, 2792-1 educational
1069
What is the title for staff members at Health, Safety, and work-life regional practices specifically trained to assist individuals and commands when maltreatment incidents occur?
Family Advocacy Specialist
1070
One purpose of the Family Advocacy Program is to _____.
Addresses prevention, identification, reporting, investigation, and treatment of intimate partner and child maltreatment and assigns responsibilities for a coordinated community response within the Coast Guard in collaboration with services outside the Coast Guard.
1071
One purpose of the ________ is prevention, identification, reporting, investigation, and treatment of intimate partner and child maltreatment?
Family advocacy program
1072
Members can call _____________ 24 hours a day, 365 days a year to speak with an experienced and highly trained counselor.
1-855-CGSUPRT (247-8778)
1073
The _________ has been designed to capture a valid, reliable assessment of enlisted members performance, so the CG can advance and assign them with a high degree of confidence.
Enlisted evaluation system
1074
The _______ has been designed to inform enlisted members of the performance standards against which they are measured.
Enlisted Evaluation system
1075
The ______ has been designed to provide a means by which enlisted member can receive feedback on how well the member is measuring up to the standards.
Enlisted Evaluation system
1076
The _______ has been designed to provide information about discharges, re-enlistments, good conduct, advancement eligibility, and reductions in pay grade.
Enlisted Evaluation System (EES)
1077
The _______ has been designed to set standards by which to evaluate the performance and behavior of each enlisted member.
Enlisted Evaluation System (EES)
1078
The end of the marking period for pay grade E-1 is the last day of which months?
January and July
1079
The end of the marking period for pay grade E-2 is the last day of which months?
January and July
1080
The end of the marking period for pay grade E-3 is the last day of which months?
February and August
1081
The end of the marking period for pay grade E-4 is the last day of which months?
March and September
1082
The end of the marking period for pay grade E-5 is the last day of which months?
April and October
1083
The evaluee must perform which of the following functions within the EES?
Familiarization, Performance, Evaluation Input, Acknowledgement, Verification
1084
When do you need to provide evaluation input for your EER?
No later than 14 days prior to the end of the marking period
1085
What is done with the completed original EER counseling sheet?
Unit provides to evaluee and is retained and signed
1086
Your signature on the members signature block of the EER counseling sheet indicates acknowledgment of _________.
The counseling and review of their evaluation report, the impact of their evaluation report on their good conduct eligibility, the appeal timeframe, their advancement potential and recommendation, verification through direct access self service EER was properly recorded
1087
The marking official should route the completed evaluation report to the approving official no later than __________ days after the evaluation report period ending date.
5 days
1088
The _________ is responsible for ensuring your evaluation is based on how you performed in each performance dimension consistently through the period.
The rating chain
1089
What competency within a performance assessment must be adhered to every day of the marking period?
conduct
1090
What are the individual elements located under each factor type on which the CG evaluates its enlisted members called?
competencies
1091
How many major categories of performance are there in an EES?
4 - military, performance, professional qualities, leadership
1092
Which factor type in the EER measures the members ability to bring credit to the CG through personal demeanor and professional actions?
Military
1093
Which factor type in the EER measures a member's ability to direct, guide, develop, influence, and support others performing work?
leadership
1094
Performance standards are the written criteria that outlines the expected performance to receive a mark of ________ in each competency?
2,4,6
1095
If a member receives an unsatisfactory conduct mark on their EER, it will negatively impact their ___________.
Advancement to the higher pay grade, change in rate, or participate in the SWE.
1096
Appeals to the approving official's decision on the advancement recommendation _____ .
IS FINAL AND MAY NOT BE APPEALED
1097
What are the possible choices for advancement recommendations?
Ready, Not Ready, Not Recommended
1098
What must occur when a member does not receive an advancement recommendation?
Approving Official must counsel the member
1099
The appeals process is designed to review marks the evaluee believes were based on which of the following?
Incorrect information, Prejudice, Discrimination, Disproportionately low marks for the particular circumstances
1100
What must be contained in an appeal letter for an EER?
The appeal letter must contain the specific competencies in dispute and supporting information indicating why the marks should be reviewed. Supporting information must include specific examples of demonstrated performance that indicate how the member met or exceeded the written standards. The member attaches a copy of the signed evaluation report counseling sheet as the first enclosure and other enclosures pertinent to the assigned marks.
1101
What responsibility does the member have in the EER appeal process?
Request an Audience, Written Appeal, The Appeal Letter, Submission Deadline, Appealing After the Deadline
1102
As a result of an EER appeal, what actions may an approving official take?
Raise or leave marks unchanged, but May not lower marks
1103
What is the deadline for active duty members to submit an appeal for their EER?
15 calendar days
1104
What is the deadline for reserve members to submit an appeal for their EER?
45 calendar days
1105
What are EER forms CG-3788A-G used for?
Enlisted evaluation report forms for each pay grade
1106
The Discipline and Conduct manual stipulates that coercing or encouraging another member to fully or partially disrobe is an example of _____________.
hazing
1107
Hazing can include which of the following?
- Hazing is any conduct through which a military member or members, or any other persons physically or psychologically injure or create a risk of physical or psychological injury to one or more military members for the purpose of: initiation into, admission into, affiliation with, change in status or position
1108
Which directive requires a commanding officer to 'prohibit unit introductory initiations or hazing of personnel'?
UNITED STATES COAST GUARD REGULATIONS 1992, COMDTINST M5000.3
1109
Which is true of hazing?
Subjecting an individual military member to harassment or ridicule for the purposes of 'inclusion' is defined as hazing.
1110
Which is true of hazing and bullying?
It is prohibited and will not be tolerated
1111
If a person knowingly and voluntarily submits to hazing, _____ .
May be held accountable as well
1112
Which of the following would be an example of an appropriate relationship?
(1) Two crewmembers going to an occasional movie, dinner, concert, or other social event. (2) Members jogging or participating in wellness or recreational activities together.
1113
An interpersonal relationship in a professional work environment would be prohibited in what case?
(1) Jeopardize the members' impartiality, (2) Undermine the respect for authority inherent in a member's rank or position
1114
If a person knowingly and voluntarily submits to hazing, _____
May be held accountable as well
1115
Which of the following would be an example of an appropriate relationship?
Two crewmembers going to an occasional movie, dinner, concert, or other social event; Members jogging or participating in wellness or recreational activities together
1116
An interpersonal relationship in a professional work environment would be prohibited in what case?
Jeopardize the members' impartiality; Undermine respect for authority; Result in improper personal gain; Violate punitive Article of reference; Violate lawful orders or policies
1117
Which of the following is an example of unacceptable conduct?
Supervisors and subordinates gambling together; Giving or receiving gifts over nominal value; Changing duty rosters for personal gain; Soliciting personal information from students or prospective members
1118
An acceptable romantic relationship for officer instructors is with an individual who has graduated from an entry level accession program within the preceding _____
365 days
1119
Engaging in sexually intimate behavior is prohibited aboard _____
Any Coast Guard vessel, or in any Coast Guard-controlled workplace
1120
A romantic relationship involving a former recruiter and a prospective member is prohibited until _____
365 DAYS HAVE ELAPSED SINCE THEIR LAST CONTACT WITH A RECRUITER
1121
Violating policy on limited personal use of government office equipment and services is punishable under which article of the UCMJ?
Article 92
1122
Which of the following is an example of prohibited use of government office equipment?
Loading unauthorized software; Making unauthorized configuration changes; Using equipment to gain unauthorized access; Introducing malware; Creating unofficial mass mailings; Subscribing to non-business services
1123
What is the dollar value limit placed on gifts given to an official superior on an occasional basis?
$10
1124
Where are deadlines for Personal Data Extract (PDE) verifications and corrections provided?
On your Personal Data Extract (PDE)
1125
Sea Time points on a Personal Data Extract (PDE) are calculated at what rate?
2 points per year, 0.166 points per month
1126
What should you do if you find errors on your Personal Data Extract (PDE)?
Note them on the printed copy, sign it, and provide it to your admin personnel
1127
Once you have chosen all desired Job Basket boxes for an eResume, what should be your next step?
CLICK SAVE TO JOB BASKET
1128
What is the form number for the Enlisted Individual Development Plan (IDP)?
CG-5357
1129
An Individual Development Plan (IDP) is ________.
A tool to facilitate a conversation about professional and personal goals
1130
What does the Risk Management (RM) process rely on to identify, assess, control, mitigate, and manage potential hazards?
Effective teamwork and communication
1131
In step 1 of the Risk Management (RM) process, if time is limited, what model can be used?
PEACE model
1132
How is risk defined within Risk Management (RM)?
As the possibility of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard
1133
What is the control option used for specific risks by 'going around' them?
STAAR - Avoid
1134
What is the last stage in resolving conflicts among peers?
Stage-5 - Resolution
1135
What color is the service stripe on the SDB jacket for an E-7?
Gold
1136
What is the only authorized knot for the blue standard necktie?
Double Windsor
1137
When wearing the women's overblouse with the Service Dress Blue (SDB), the bottom of the overblouse shall______.
Not be visible
1138
What shirt(s) are women authorized to wear with the Tropical Blue Short Sleeve (TBSS) uniform?
Women's shirt, over blouse, men's shirt
1139
What is required for wear with all uniforms?
Undershirts with quarter length sleeves
1140
What is not authorized to wear with the Tropical Blue Long Sleeve (TBLS) uniform?
Ribbons
1141
What is the first step in resolving conflict among peers?
Define conflict
1142
What is part of the anticipated level of expertise for a first-line supervisor in Influencing Others?
Learns to influence others; gains cooperation while showing respectful understanding
1143
Which leadership competency is being displayed by a First-Line Supervisor who coaches others?
Leading Others - Mentoring
1144
What is the anticipated level of expertise for first-line supervisors for effective communications?
Writes succinctly; Speaks concisely; Listens attentively; Observes body language
1145
What type of cap is authorized to wear with the Tropical Blue Long Sleeve (TBLS) uniform?
Combination cap or garrison cap
1146
Oxfords are not authorized _______.
When the skirt is worn
1147
The women's shirt and women's slacks align with the belt so that the ______.
Tab touches the wearer's right side of the buckle
1148
In all cases, the non-tab edge of the black belt with brass tip must align with the ______.
Fly
1149
Which uniform item is not authorized to wear with the SDB jacket?
AF Skirt
1150
What is an authorized color for sunglasses frames?
Black or navy blue, gold or silver
1151
You can wear a maximum of _______ ring(s) per hand.
One
1152
Which of the following is a prohibited watch color?
Diamond covered, neon, white, and bright colors
1153
Engagement/wedding ring sets or ______ are counted as one ring.
Class/wedding ring sets
1154
According to COMDTINST M1020.6K, fitness trackers are ______.
Considered watches
1155
COMDTINST 1020.6K stipulates that ________ rings are not authorized.
Thumb rings
1156
What is correct for the insignia on the garrison cover when worn by an enlisted member?
The center of the insignia is placed 1½ inch from the bottom of the cap, and 2 inches back from the front crease
1157
What is correct for an E-9 wearing the garrison cover?
The garrison cap anchor is approximately 1-3/8 inches high
1158
While wearing the Light blue shirt, collar insignia are centered between the visible top and bottom collar edges & ________.
Center of device is 1 inch and parallel from the leading edge
1159
When wearing the Tropical Blue Long Sleeve (TBLS) uniform, _________ will be worn over the wearer's left pocket.
One full size insignia
1160
When wearing the Tropical Blue Long Sleeve (TBLS) uniform, _________ will be worn over the wearer's right pocket.
Nametag
1161
While conducting a personnel inspection, what reference can you advise a member to consult to properly align their awards?
COMDTINST M1650.25E Coast Guard Military Medals and Awards Manual
1162
Which award has the highest precedence?
QID
1163
How do you access the Coast Guard Business Intelligence (CGBI)?
On your desktop or CG Portal. CGBI.OSC.USCG.MIL or Pixel Dashboard.
1164
What level of compliance does a yellow color indicator within CGBI indicate?
Compliant: Approaching Limits of Standard
1165
What level of compliance does an orange color indicator within CGBI indicate?
Non-Compliant: Not Currently Compliant
1166
What level of compliance does a green color indicator within CGBI indicate?
Compliant: Within Standard
1167
____________ are just one of the tools to assure compliance with 29 C.F.R. § 1960, and to keep the workplace free of serious recognized hazards.
1168
How do you submit a Coast Guard Employee Hazard Report Form?
1169
How long must CG-113 assurance assessments be retained?
The reports are retained on file until the deficiencies have been corrected and for at least five years following the end of the calendar year to which they relate.
1170
What is the minimum frequency for formal occupational safety and environmental health inspections for all work spaces?
Annually
1171
The purpose of form CG-4903 is to ________.
1172
How many Administrative remarks entry types are there?
9
1173
A member has requested to be removed voluntarily from the advancement list. Which CG-3307 template would you use?
AR-07 Voluntary Removal from ADV List
1174
You have been directed to prepare a CG-3307 to document counseling for inappropriate relationships. Which template would you use?
PD-12 Counseling for Inappropriate Relationships
1175
Which template would you use to prepare a General Negative CG-3307?
PD-07 General Negative
1176
If a member is not available for signature on a CG-3307, you should ______.
State so in the signature block and date it
1177
What should you do if a member refuses to sign a CG-3307?
The words 'member refused to sign' must be entered in the member's signature block along with the date counseled.
1178
Where are copies of all form CG-3307 sent for electronic imaging into the IPDR?
The original is filed in the SPO PDR, and the copy is mailed to Commander, Personnel Service Center (psd-mr) for electronic imaging into the IPDR.
1179
What is the Thomas-Kilmann definition for conflict?
Any situation in which your concerns or desires differ from those of another person
1180
What stage of conflict is it when members actually make overt communications in an attempt to convince the other party of a better solution?
Stage 2 Confrontation
1181
In which stage of conflict should peers look for assistance in managing the conflict or look to using a tool for reaching and addressing the concerns of the parties?
Stage-3 - Escalation
1182
What is the final stage of conflict?
Stage-5 - Resolution
1183
How many stages are there in conflict?
5 stages
1184
What training code(s) direct PDCS to ensure members can complete an EPQ or RPQ correctly without assistance, prompting or the use of any job or memory aid?
Train to memory
1185
When writing an internal command memo requiring command visibility, ______ lines may be used.
Thru lines
1186
What is the primary means of formalized correspondence to communicate both within the Coast Guard and within the framework of the Federal Government?
The Coast Guard Memorandum
1187
Where is the SSIC placed on a memorandum?
Above the date
1188
Where does the signing official place his/her signature on a memorandum?
The signing official will sign on the 'From' line.
1189
Every memorandum must include a _____
Date
1190
What is used to comment on a memorandum in routing?
Endorsement
1191
When are 'Thru' lines used on a memorandum?
1192
What is placed centered two lines below the last paragraph to indicate the end of the memorandum?
# symbol
1193
Where can the precise title and staff symbol to include on a memorandum be found?
1194
During a meeting, who is required to stay out of content discussion?
Scribe
1195
During a meeting, who has the responsibility to capture information as accurately as possible so that non-attendees can follow the group's train of thought?
Recorder
1196
What is a responsibility of a timekeeper in a meeting?
Keeps track of time
1197
What is a responsibility of a participant in a meeting?
Gives input, ideas, opinions
1198
What is a common team member role assigned during a meeting?
Timekeeper, Scribe, Recorder, Co-Facilitator, Participant, Subject Matter Expert
1199
Time spent planning your meeting will ensure ______.
Better outcome
1200
Which step of meeting facilitation are ground rules established?
Step 3- Establish ground rules
1201
Which step in meeting facilitation involves describing how the meeting will be run, and how decisions will be made?
Step 3- Establish ground rules
1202
When should the parking lot items from a meeting be discussed?
Establish an Issues, decisions and actions record IDA
1203
What is a parking lot within the context of meeting facilitation?
A place where issues that are important but not relevant to the topic at hand can be parked out of the congestion of discussion
1204
What is another form of parking lot or board?
Issues Decisions and Actions (IDA) Record
1205
After a meeting, action plans should be broken down into manageable chunks that require less than how many hours to complete?
80
1206
Consensus discussions are part of what step in facilitating a meeting?
Evaluate the meeting
1207
The round robin process is part of what step in meeting facilitation?
Evaluate the meeting
1208
What type of meeting evaluation process involves making a chart?
Plus/Delta
1209
How many types of meeting evaluation processes are there during the Evaluate the Meeting phase?
4
1210
Who has appeal authority for any annual or semiannual evaluation report?
First Flag Officer in the evaluee's chain of command
1211
Within the EES, each competency is defined in terms of _________ performance standards.
3 (low, middle, high)
1212
Who is responsible for timely processing of an EER so that it may be reviewed by an evaluee no later than 30 days following the report period?
Approving Official
1213
How well the supervisor clearly communicates the member's past performance and methods in which to improve are primary to ________.
Ensuring future success
1214
How many days does a supervisor have to counsel a reservist evaluee after the end of the evaluation report period ending date?
45 days
1215
How many days does a supervisor have to counsel an active duty evaluee after the end of the evaluation report period ending date?
21 days
1216
An Individual Development Plan (IDP) is mandatory for __________.
First term military members
1217
For first-term members reporting to a new duty station, supervisors conduct the first formal IDP review and counseling session within ________ days of reporting.
30 days
1218
An Individual Development Plan is ______.
1219
Supervisors have which of the following responsibilities in relation to the IDP?
Become familiar with the IDP process and purpose, implement IDP policies, encourage IDPs, assess mission and staffing needs, act as a coach and mentor, review IDP drafts, provide feedback, and identify unit resources.
1220
Where is IDP counseling documented?
1221
As a general rule, military members are not entitled to _______.
Cash awards, gratuities, gift certificates or coupons for recognition of superior performance of duty.
1222
The individual citation for the Meritorious Service Medal and below (not including the LOC) will be prepared ________.
Landscape orientation
1223
Requests for exceptions to policy for awards will be ________.
Approved only in extraordinary circumstances and considered on a case by case basis
1224
Where can you look to find examples in writing a citation for a member?
CIM 1650.25 (Series) medals and awards manual Enclosure (24)
1225
Which mobile app can you refer members to for information about the Coast Guard support programs and services to members and their families?
HSWL mobile app
1226
Which mobile app can be used to find a unit Ombudsman using the 'Ombudsman Locator' feature?
HSWL mobile app
1227
Which Office of Work-Life program is responsible for ensuring that necessary financial information and resources are available to Coast Guard personnel and their family members?
Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP)
1228
Where can you access a comprehensive list of recovery assistance resources for sexual assault survivors?
RECOVERY ASSISTANCE link on SAPRR program page
1229
Where can you print the two-page document from Office of Work-Life Programs, Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP) to provide financial counselling resources?
Office of Work-Life Programs : Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP)
1230
Which Office of Work-Life Program can you refer members to who are seeking a business opportunity for their spouse by providing child care in a home environment?
Family Child Care (FCC)
1231
At which Office of Work-Life Program site can you find a list of EAPCS?
Office of Work-Life Programs : Critical Incident Stress Response Program
1232
Which Health, Safety, and Work-Life staff has the overall objective to support the well-being of active duty, reserve and civilian employees and family members?
Office of Work-Life
1233
Which Office of Work-Life Program site offers information on psychological first aid?
Critical Incident Stress Response Program
1234
Which Office of Work-Life Program site allows you to download the ACE card?
Office of Work-Life : Suicide Prevention Program
1235
Which Work-Life Program site offers a link to download parental leave policy flyers?
Office of Work-Life Programs: Parent Resources
1236
Where can you find information on the Ombudsman Program, which has served as a vital link between the Coast Guard commands and families?
Office of work life: ombudsman program
1237
What is the purpose of the Sea Legs, found at the Work-Life site?
Help support a smooth transition into military life.
1238
What is the purpose of the Critical Incident Stress Response (CISR) program?
Help individuals exposed to critical incidents to identify and cope with their responses to these events.
1239
What is the National Suicide Prevention Lifeline number?
1-800-273-TALK (8255)
1240
What is the telephone number for the SAPS Duty Line?
757-628-4329
1241
What acronym should you use to respond to a member who is contemplating suicide?
ACE: Ask, Care, Escort
1242
What are members of the Substance Abuse Prevention Team called?
Substance Abuse Prevention Specialist (SAPS)
1243
What is the objective of the Work-Life Subsistence Program?
To provide policy and support to over 1,200 Culinary Specialists; furthermore, to enable the successful and efficient operation of 360 CGDFs service wide.
1244
What type of facility provides, on a regularly scheduled basis, developmentally appropriate programs designed to foster social, emotional, physical, creative, and intellectual growth to groups of children from age 6 weeks to kindergarten that are Federally licensed and nationally accredited?
Military Child Development Centers (CDC)
1245
Scholarships and school liaison programs within the Office of Work-Life (CG-111) are located under which dropdown tab?
Family support
1246
Discussions of individual personal finances with a Personal Financial Manager (PFM) are _______.
Confidential
1247
You can download a PDF version to provide members with the SAPRR program's 'How Do I report a Sexual Assault?' from what source?
Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Program (SAPR) - How Do I Report a Sexual Assault?
1248
What program can you refer members to improve communications between the command and Coast Guard family members?
Ombudsman program
1249
Where can you refer members for information about child care?
Office of Work Life - Child Development Services
1250
How can you view information for Nicotine Replacement Therapy (NRT) provided to TRICARE beneficiaries?
Www.Tricare.mil/quittobacco
1251
What can you provide to members requesting information about self-referrals and seeking treatment for substance abuse?
1252
A friend asks you for help in reporting a sexual assault. How can you find answers about how ALCOAST 292 changed reporting requirements?
Review the FAQs
1253
Which Office of Work-Life Program site offers the Coast Guard Nutrition Video Series by LCDR Trocchio?
Office of work-life: personal wellness
1254
The Unit Health Promotion Resources site provides a link to which directive, which includes physical fitness responsibilities for all CG AD and SELRES personnel?
Coast Guard Health Promotion Manual - COMDTINST M6200.1E
1255
The Health Promotion Program encourages members to utilize Tobacco Cessation services available at what web site?
Www. YCQ2.org
1256
If your roommate confides that he/she has been sexually assaulted, what should you do?
Ensure the victim receives info about support options, including how to make a report of sexual assault or where to seek medical help.
1257
Who can offer unit-wide tobacco cessation education and training upon request?
Health Promotion Manager (HPM)
1258
How can you access tobacco cessation resources available through EAP?
1-855-CGSUPRT (247-8778) or www.CGSUPRT.com
1259
What is a fact about quitting smoking found at the Work-Life Tobacco Cessation Program site?
Within 24 hours your lungs will start to clear out mucous
1260
Within 48 hours ______.
1261
What should you do to support a victim of sexual assault?
Ensure the victim receives info about support options, including how to make a report of sexual assault or where to seek medical help. ## Footnote Support options may include counseling, legal assistance, and medical care.
1262
Who can offer unit-wide tobacco cessation education and training upon request?
Health Promotion Manager (HPM) ## Footnote The HPM is responsible for promoting health and wellness within the unit.
1263
How can you access tobacco cessation resources available through EAP?
1-855-CGSUPRT (247-8778) or www.CGSUPRT.com ## Footnote EAP stands for Employee Assistance Program.
1264
What happens within 24 hours of quitting smoking?
Your lungs will start to clear out mucous. ## Footnote Quitting smoking leads to immediate health benefits.
1265
What improvement occurs within 48 hours of quitting smoking?
Your sense of smell and taste will improve. ## Footnote Sensory improvements are some of the first benefits of quitting smoking.
1266
What can you expect within 72 hours of quitting smoking?
You can breathe easier and have more energy. ## Footnote Increased energy and improved breathing are significant milestones in the cessation process.
1267
What improvements occur within 12 weeks of quitting smoking?
Coughing, breathing, and wheezing problems will improve. ## Footnote This timeframe marks a significant recovery phase for lung function.
1268
What is the reduction in heart disease risk after one year of quitting smoking?
Your risk of heart disease is reduced to 50% of a continuing smoker. ## Footnote This statistic highlights the long-term health benefits of quitting smoking.
1269
What is the risk of cancer after 10-15 years of quitting smoking?
Your risk of cancer is similar to that of someone who never smoked. ## Footnote Long-term cessation significantly lowers cancer risk.
1270
It is Coast Guard policy to ________ tobacco products.
Discourage the use of all forms of tobacco products. ## Footnote This policy aims to promote health within the Coast Guard community.
1271
What is the minimum number of Victim Advocates assigned to a unit with 250 members?
Three. ## Footnote This ensures adequate support for victims within the unit.
1272
What Work-Life resources are available for spouses?
Spouse employment program. ## Footnote This program assists spouses in finding employment opportunities.
1273
Which Work-Life Program offers telephonic assistance for financial and legal concerns?
CG SUPRT. ## Footnote CG SUPRT provides comprehensive support services to Coast Guard members and their families.
1274
What information can be found at the SAPRR program site?
Office of work-life: suicide prevention program. ## Footnote This program provides resources and support for suicide prevention.
1275
What is 'sexual assault' defined as?
intentional sexual contact. ## Footnote This definition highlights the serious nature of sexual assault.