Erin's Practice Exam Flashcards by Gregory Vandekerckhove

According to Procedure 01-01 arrest, a peace officer has authority to arrest under section 495(1) of the CC which one of the following is NOT a peace officers power of arrest (page 1)

a) has committed an indictable offence, or a person the officer suspects has committed or is about to commit an indictable offence

b) the officer finds committing a criminal offence

c) on reasonable grounds, the officer believes is wanted on a warrant of arrest or committal, which is in force within the territorial jurisdiction where the person is found

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The lack of appropriate release documentation to be served at an arrest scene is a valid reason for the continuation of an arrest (page 1)
a) True
b) False

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As a general rule, police officers are required to obtain a warrant prior to entering a dwelling–house to arrest a person. Which of the following would not be considered an exemption (page 2)

a) The arrest warrant is endorsed with an authorization to enter under ss. 529(1) CC
b) The arrest warrant is accompanied by a separate entry authorization warrant issued under s. 529.1 CC
c) When there are reasonable grounds to suspect that entry into the dwelling–house is necessary to prevent imminent bodily harm or death to any person
d) When there are reasonable grounds to believe that evidence relating to the commission of an indictable offence is present in the dwelling–house and that entry into the dwelling–house is necessary to prevent the imminent loss or imminent destruction of evidence
e) If the officer believes on reasonable grounds the individual is present in the dwelling.

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Persons exhibiting signs of excited delirium must always be treated as a medical emergency (page 2)

a) True
b) False

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Which one of the following is NOT required of a police officer to record in their memobooks in cases of arrest when charges have been laid (page 3)

a) Reason for the arrest
b) Reason for the release or continued detention of the person
c) Their supervisors name and badge
d) All details regarding the person identification and description
e) All other relevant details

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When considering the continued detention of an arrested person who is accompanied by a guide dog due to blindness, visual impairment, hearing impairment, which one of the following is not an option (page 3)

a) Turnover the service animal to family or friends
b) Contact TPOC for assistance
c) Transport the prisoner with their service animal
d) Contact Canine Vision Canada or the Humane Society

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When shall an Officer in charge be notified in relation to search of persons (page 4)

a) After conducting a search at the station
b) Regarding grounds and circumstances (strip search)
c) There are reasonable grounds to believe the person under arrest has secreted weapons or evidence in a body cavity
d) All of the above
e) Whenever any search of persons has been conducted

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When an arrest has been made the officer in charge shall ensure consideration is given to the ________ in deciding to continue the detention of an arrested person (page 4)

a) Case manager
b) Location the incident occurred
c) Public interest

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When a trans prisoner cannot be lodged according to their self-identified gender or lodging preference members shall: (page 5)

a) Advise the OIC
b) Complete a TPS 649 forthwith
c) clearly articulate the reasons in their memorandum book
d) add a text page to the Versadex prisoner lodging section

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The Service acknowledges its obligation and responsibility, short of ________, to accommodate self-identified trans or gender diverse persons (page 5)

a) Officer safety
b) Undue hardship
c) Availability of separate cells
d) Reasonable expectations

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For a search to be lawful it must be _______ and _____ given all the circumstances and it must be conducted for a valid reason (page 6)

a) Practical and necessary
b) Reasonable and justified
c) Respectful and necessary
d) Justified and warranted

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Which one of the following is NOT a circumstance in which a police officer may search a person (page 7)

a) With a person’s consent
b) When authorized by statute
c) When detaining a person for an indictable offence
d) After and arrest has been made (common law- incident to arrest)

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As outlined in Procedure 16–07, the Toronto Police Services Board Policy entitled “Race-Based Data Collection, Analysis and Public Reporting” requires the Toronto Police Service (Service) to _____, ______ and _________ on data related to the race of those individuals with whom Service members interact. (page 7)

a) track, record and maintain transparency
b) record, distribute and publicly report
c) collect, analyze and publicly report

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Court officers /Custodial officers may search persons (page 8)

a) True
b) False

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When a strip search has been deemed necessary by the officer in charge the search officers shall (page 9)

a) Read the arrested party their rights to counsel if not already given
b) Read the arrested party their caution
c) Allow the arrested party to speak to their counsel once the search has been completed
d) Read the arrested party their rights to counsel and allow them to speak to them prior to the search

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Where there are reasonable grounds to believe that a person under arrest has secreted weapons or evidence in a body cavity shall NOT (page 10)

a) Consult the officer in charge
b) Escort the person to the hospital
c) Request that the person remove the item in a controlled area of the police station
d) If the person is unwilling to remove it, ensure the search is conducted by a medical practitioner

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Upon being consulted regarding a Body Cavity search shall ensure that transporting and relieving officers accompanying an accused for the purpose of a Body Cavity Search are the same gender unless the person has self-identified as a trans person (Page 11)

a) True
b) False

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Which of the following is the definition of Gender Expression (page 12)

a) the set of socially classified behaviours, attitudes and norms associated with and roles of men, women, trans people, non-binary people and more. Encompasses gender identity, a person’s internal sense of being a man, woman, both or neither
b) how a person publicly presents their gender. This can include behaviour and outward appearance such as dress, hair, make-up, body language and voice. A person’s chosen name and pronoun are also common and important ways of expressing gender.

c) each person’s internal and individual experience of gender. It is their sense of being a woman, a man, both, neither, or anywhere along or beyond the gender spectrum. A person’s gender identity may be the same as or different from the typical pairing with their birth-assigned sex. Gender identity is fundamentally different from a person’s sexual orientation.

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Which of the following members would not be considered under Prisoner Care and Control (page 12)

a) Police officer
b) Special constable
c) Court officer
d) Custodial officer

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The rearrangement of clothing that permits a visual inspection of a person’s private area constitutes a strip search (page 13)

a) True
b) False

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The right to search incident to a lawful arrest is found in _______ ( page 13)

a) Statute
b) Common law
c) Officers memorandum book

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Who shall consult with the officer in charge prior to conducting a strip search at a police station (page 14)

a) Police officer
b) Court officer
c) Member
d) Detective

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Under no circumstances shall a strip search be conducted in the field (page 15)

a) True
b) False

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When practicable, members shall facilitate the replacement of an item of religious significance as soon as possible when the item (apparel or clothing only) is removed and held for any purpose and is not being immediately returned to that person. (page 17)

a) True
b) False

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25. According to Procedure 01-03 Persons in Custody, which of the following would NOT require the officer in charge to be notified (page 17) a) When receiving a person for lodging in police cells b) When a person in custody requires medical attention c) When entering or leaving a detention facility with a person in custody d) When a prisoner requests additional calls to counsel

26. Which of the following is NOT a reason a young person under eighteen (18) years of age may be lodged in a divisional cell only (page 17) a) To prevent injury or to protect others from aggressive behavior b) At the request of the young person c) When there is no adult present in the cells d) When there is an adult present in the cells and there is adequate space to isolate the young person from the adult

27. Who can determine if an item of religious significance can be retained by the individual (Page 18) a) The arresting officers b) The searching members c) The officer in charge d) The person in custody

28. Persons released from custody shall have their property inventoried on camera as it is returned to them. (page 18) a) True b) False

29. Who allows authorization to utilize restraining devices such as handcuffs and leg irons (page 19) a) The officer in charge b) The Chief of police c) The Toronto Police College d) Corrections

30. Where a person in custody exhibits violent behavior and it is determined their MNI and CNI should include a caution flag; who shall ensure it is entered on CPIC (Page 20) a) The booking officer b) The officer in charge c) RMS- Ops d) The arresting officer

31. At what increments shall individuals detained in police cells be physically checked(Page 21) a) Every 15 minutes b) Every 30 minutes c) Every hour d) At the beginning and end of shift

32. When receiving a request to access prescribed medication from a person in custody shall comply with the request if the name on the prescription bottle matches the name of the individual, including expired medication (page 22) a) True b) False

33. When releasing a young person which one of the following is NOT a suitable person to notify and request to attend the station (page 24) a) Parent b) Legal guardian c) Lawyer d) Adult relative e) Adult friend f) Spouse

34. Who shall review the condition of persons in police cells at the change of shift (page 25) a) Officer in charge b) The arresting officer c) Booking officer d) A supervisory officer

35. Under what circumstances shall an officer in charge advise a prisoner that they can obtain their prescribed methadone dosage (liquid) (page 26) a) By the booking officer if the medication is clearly labeled and accurate b) Upon release, or if remanded in custody by corrections staff after consult with the prescribing doctor c) Under no circumstances d) If the individual exhibits medical distress from lack of prescribed medication

36. Who shall ensure an investigation is commenced in relation to the last drink information received on the TPS 300, when required (page 27) a) The detective b) The officer in charge c) The detective sergeant d) The booking officer

37. Which of the following is the definition of a booking officer (page 27) a) a police officer, court officer or custodial officer designated by the Unit Commander as the person responsible for the care and handling of persons detained in custody. b) a police officer, or court officer designated by the officer in charge as the person responsible for the care and handling of persons detained in custody. c) a police officer, court officer or custodial officer designated by the officer in charge as the person responsible for the care and handling of persons detained in custody. d) Any member designated by the officer in charge as the person responsible for the care and handling of persons detained in custody.

38. Where it is suspected or known that a person is a carrier of an air-borne transmitted disease such as tuberculosis members shall ensure they are only placed in interview rooms alone (page 28) a) True b) False

39. Which of the following services are available at no cost to assist the Officer in Charge in making a determination as to whether a prisoner is in need of further medical treatment. These services may be used where the Officer in Charge requires further (page 29) a) Telehealth Ontario b) Overdose Crisis Line c) Ontario Regional Poison information Centre – Sick kids Hospital d) All of the above e) A and C

40. Any person who has or is suspected of having taken a drug prior to being arrested, and is accepted at a police facility shall be monitored more closely, and the results of those checks recorded, until such time as the Officer in Charge is satisfied that the individual is not at risk. Individuals who have taken hard drugs such as cocaine, heroin, etc., shall be monitored more closely for ________from the time when the drug was taken. (Page 29) a) At least 6 hours b) At least 3 hours c) At least 5 hours d) As required

41. Symptoms of AWS may appear within _____ to _____ hours after a person’s last consumption of alcohol. AWS more commonly affects those with a history of alcoholism and/or those who have experienced problems with alcohol withdrawal in the past. (page 29) a) 3 to 5 hours b) 6 to 12 hours c) 8 to 10 hours d) 3 to 6 hours

42. Which of the following would be considered a moderate symptoms of Alcohol withdrawal syndrome (page 30) a) Sleep disturbance b) Seizures c) Hallucinations d) Racing heart rate

43. Requests by persons in custody for prescribed methadone in tablet form shall be granted if the prescription is in the prisoners name (page 31) a) True b) False

44. Who shall make a notation in their memorandum book if the person declines to use the privacy shield (page 32) a) Booking officer / Accompanying Officer b) Officer in charge c) Parading officers

45. Who designates all police officers holding the rank of sergeant/detective, or a higher rank, as an officer in charge. (page 33) a) The Unit Commander of the Division or Unit b) The Chief of Police c) The Police Services Act

46. Who is responsible for notifying the victim of all release conditions in relation to sexual assaults, Criminal Harassment and Intimate partner violence(page 34) a) The case manager b) The detective sergeant c) The officer in charge d) Victim services

47. The final decision to recommend the opposition of bail is the responsibility of ___________ (page 35) a) The officer in charge b) The divisional detective c) The detective sergeant d) Any supervisory officer

48. Organized Crime Enforcement – Bail & Parole is the only police facility to be designated for the purpose of having an accused person report to police. This unit is open between ____________, Monday through Friday, except on statutory holidays. (page 36) a) 0800 and 2100 hours b) 0900 and 2200 hours c) 0700 and 1700 hours d) 0900 and 2100 hours

49. Upon completion of any notification of bail conditions shall forward a copy of the release documents and the completed TPS 483 to __________ (page 37) a) The Unit Commander b) Court Services c) The detective Sergeant d) Victim Services

50. Who is notified when a person is arrested pursuant to a superior court bench warrant? (Page 38) a) Coast guard b) The courthouse who originally held original information via email and telephone c) Old City Hall d) Court services unit at Superior court via email and telephone

51. A person arrested solely on the strength of a material witness warrant shall be fingerprinted forthwith (page 39) a) True b) False

52. Which act gives the medical officer of health the jurisdiction to compel a person to be detained for treatment in respect to contagious diseases? (page 40) a) Community Safety and Policing Act b) Regulated health professions Act c) Health Protection and Promotion Act d) Contagious Disease Act

53. Which of the following is NOT true in relation to the following statement: Entry to a dwelling house is prohibited unless (page 41) a) The arrest warrant is endorsed with an authorization to enter under 529(1) b) The arrest warrant is accompanied by a separate entry authorization warrant issued under 529.1 c) When there are no reasonable grounds to suspect that entry into the dwelling house is necessary to prevent imminent bodily harm or death to any person d) In circumstances of fresh pursuit

54. When investigating a person arrested on a warrant and there have been new criminal charges laid; who is responsible for investigating and processing the warrants? (page 42) a) The arresting unit b) The original unit who holds the warrant c) Marine unit d) The unit which holds the more serious charge

55. Arrest warrants may be endorsed for release by the issuing Justice. In circumstances where warrant is endorsed for release, the __________ must consider releasing the arrested person in compliance with procedures contained in chapter 1 (Page 43) a) Booking Sergeant b) Detective c) Arresting officer d) Officer in charge

56. A remand warrant allows a person to be held in custody for up to __ days, until travel arrangements can be made (page 45) a) 7 days b) 5 days c) 6 days d) 3 days

57. Section 489.1 of the criminal code legislates that a Form 5.2 is required as soon as practicable every time property is seized by a peace officer, with or without warrant. What is the only exception to this rule? (page 46) a) If the property is abandoned b) If you have exceeded the 90 day time limit c) When drugs are purchased from a suspect during the course of an undercover investigation. d) A search warrant was executed; but no evidence was seized

58. Who shall you contact where property, including cash, is seized as proceeds of crime or offence-related property (page 47) a) Fraud squad b) Financial Crimes - Asset Forfeiture c) TPOC d) Canada Revenue Agency

59. In the case of a telewarrant or a eTelewarrant shall submit the Form 5.2 in the same jurisdiction where the search warrant was executed as soon as is practicable, but not exceeding ______ days from the date the property was seized. (page 48) a) 7 days b) 5 days c) 6 days d) 3 days

60. Where an Order for Continued Detention is required beyond twelve (12) months shall consult with the Office of the Crown Attorney prior to making an application before a Superior Court Justice. Who is available to provide assistance and direction to the case manager in these cases? (page 50) a) Asset forfeiture b) Legal services (LSV) c) Justice of the Peace d) Ministry of the Attorney general

61. Which of the following members are NOT authorized to submit a Form 5.2? (Page 51) a) Peace Officer b) Case Manager c) Special Constables who are members of Court Services d) Divisional Warrant officers

62. Which of the following statements is NOT true: No person, except a qualified medical practitioner, has the authority to pronounce a person dead. The only exceptions are where: (page 52) a) Death appears obvious due to decomposition b) Death appears obvious due to decapitation c) Death appears obvious being badly beaten body d) Death appears obvious due to a grossly charred body

63. If the identification of the deceased cannot be determined; the Homicide and missing persons unit will provide direction, guidance and support; act as a liaison in relation to these investigations with the Office of the Chief Coroner and Ontario Forensic Pathology Service; and will ensure all relevant information is entered on the following website: (page 53) a) National Centre for Missing and Exploited Children b) National Centre for Missing Persons and Unidentified Remains c) National Centre for Homicide Investigations d) Cybertip

64. Upon discovering a sudden unexpected death, apparent suicide or accident where the only witness or person present at the time of death or the finding of the body is an intimate partner, past or present shall (page 54) - Remain vigilant for the possibility of foul play, and: a) Commence a Neighborhood canvas b) Request the attendance of Homicide and Missing Persons unit c) Commence a statement from the intimate partner d) Request the attendance of a supervisory officer and a divisional detective

65. Who determines when a body will be removed from an unnatural sudden death investigation? (page 55) a) First Police officer b) Divisional Detective c) Coroner d) Homicide and Missing persons unit

66. Who shall you request the attendance of when investigating a death resulting from a scuba diving accident? (page 55) a) Marine Unit b) Divisional detective c) Coroner d) Homicide and missing persons unit

67. A SOCO officer shall not be assigned to death investigations involving the sudden, unexpected death of a child (page 55) a) True b) False

68. When investigating a death attributed to consumer products who shall you notify? (page 57) a) Health Canada – Quality control b) Divisional Detective c) Health Canada – Consumer Product Safety d) Homicide and Missing persons unit

69. Bodies should always be transported and stored in the _________ position pending post mortem examination to avoid introducing artefacts which may obscure post mortem findings? (page 58) a) Prone (Face down) b) Supine (Face up) c) In a body bag d) On their side

70. Pertaining to death investigations, whenever possible, notification of next of kin should be made by ___________ (page 59) a) First officer on scene b) Homicide and Missing Persons Unit c) A supervisory officer d) Divisional Detective

71. Pertaining to death investigations; the Initial Officer Report will be automatically e-transferred to the Office of the Chief Coroner. Any requests from the Office of the Chief Coroner for additional information must be made and authorized for release by _______________________ (page 60) a) Divisional Detective b) Officer in charge c) FIS investigator d) Homicide and Missing Persons.

72. When notified of an unnatural sudden death involving a foreign national; the officer in charge shall notify: (page 61) a) Divisional Detective b) Intelligence services – Strategic Assessment and Analysis Section c) Community Partnerships and Engagement Unit d) CBSA

73. Notification of a death as a result of a motor vehicle collision shall be the responsibility of ______________(page 62) a) Divisional Detective b) A Supervisory Officer c) Traffic Services Supervisor d) Homicide and Missing persons unit

74. Supervisory officer attendance is mandatory for the following levels of searches: (page 63) a) Level 1 and Level 2 b) A Supervisory Officer is not required to physically attend c) Level 3 only d) Level 1 only

75. The initial level of investigative response required for a missing persons investigation is determined with information collected on the following forms: (page 64) a) TPS 649 b) TPS 260 and TPS 260A c) TPS 901 and TPS 902 d) TPS 270 and TPS 270A

76. The Missing Persons Act came into effect on: (page 65) a) July 1, 2019 b) June 1, 2019 c) July 1, 2020 d) January 1, 2019

77. Level 2 and Level 1 searches shall be conducted using the _________(page 66) a) Records Management Services – Operations b) Incident Management System c) Search Management Team d) Homicide and Missing persons unit

78. Who is responsible for posting a BOLO? (page 66) a) Records Management Services – Operations b) Incident Management System c) Search Management Team d) Homicide and Missing persons unit

79. Where the Reportee is situated outside the City of Toronto; and Missing person is NOT a resident of the City of Toronto, and the area the person is missing from is known; who is responsible for the initial report and response? (page 67) a) TPOC to determine b) Division Reportee resides c) Division Missing Person Last known to be d) Division Missing person is believed to reside

80. Where the Reportee is situated in the City of Toronto; and Missing person is NOT a resident of the City of Toronto, and the Area the person is missing from is unknown; who is responsible for the initial report and response? (page 68) a) TPOC to determine b) Division Reportee resides c) Division Missing Person Last known to be d) Division Missing person is believed to reside

81. When investigating any missing person case that is international in nature where there is an immediate concern for public safety, or high risk travelling, officers shall notify__________________________ immediately. (page 70) a) TPOC b) Homicide and Missing Persons unit c) Intelligence Services – Security Section

82. During a level 3 missing person investigation, the first Police officer must complete a ____ radius search of the place last seen or last known place as approved by a supervisory officer (page 71) a) 500m b) 100m c) 200m d) 300m

83. Who is responsible for completing the Risk Response Text Template in the eReport in a Missing Persons investigation (page 72) a) Supervisory Officer b) Homicide and Missing Persons unit c) Divisional Investigator d) Police officer

84. DNA evidence should be collected as soon as practicable. Absent exceptional circumstances, DNA evidence should be collected within ____________ and in any event, within thirty (30) days if the missing person is not located. (page 73) a) Seventy two (72) hours b) Forty eight (48) hours c) Twenty four (24) hours d) Immediately

85. Who is responsible for notifying the Duty Inspector Via TPOC in a missing persons investigation? (page 74) a) Unit Commander b) Officer in Charge c) Supervisory officer d) Divisional investigator

86. The dental chart form should be completed as soon as practicable in all instances, and within _____________ days if the missing person is not located. (page 75) a) Ten (10) days b) Forty Five (45) days c) Thirty (30) days d) Immediately

87. Who is responsible for developing a communication plan / strategy in consultation with corporate communications during a missing persons investigation? (Page 76) a) Officer in Charge b) Divisional Investigator c) Homicide and Missing Persons unit d) Duty Inspector

88. Who shall ensure a VICLAS report is completed if there is a strong possibility that the missing person has been victimized by crime? (Page 77) a) Officer in Charge b) Divisional Investigator c) Detective Sergeant d) Homicide and Missing Persons unit

89. Following activation; an AMBER alert will have a duration of ______ unless cancelled or extended. (page 78) a) 5 hours b) 12 hours c) 24 hours d) 48 hours

90. The national registry created and maintained by the Royal Canadian Mounted Police (RCMP) to compile data on missing and abducted children is referred to as: _______________. The Toronto Police Service supports the registry and encourages officers to forward pertinent information to the RCMP to assist in matters of both parental and non–parental abduction. (page 79) a) National Centre for Missing Persons and Unidentified remains b) National Centre for Missing and Exploited Children c) National Missing Children Operations d) National Centre for Missing and Abducted Children

91. The Special Investigations unit mandate is invoked whenever an in-custody death occurs (page 80) a) True b) False

92. Whose responsibility is it to notify the Special Investigations Unit when notified of an in-custody death? (page 81) a) Supervisory Officer b) Officer in Charge c) Officer in Charge – TPOC d) Chiefs SIU On Call designate

93. Intelligence led policing consists of a number of components including crime management, disorder resolution, problem-oriented policing, targeted policing and ________________. (page 82) a) Public disorder b) Directed Patrol c) Crime Analysis d) Crime Prevention

94. A divisional committee that represents all segments of the community is known as: (page 83) a) Crime management team b) CTOM c) Senior management team d) Community Police Liaison Committee

95. ______________ means the act of upholding community standards, using both informal community activities and law enforcement to create a safer environment, and an improved quality of life. (page 84) a) Order Maintenance b) Target Policing c) Self-initiated Patrol d) General Patrol

96. The Child & Youth Advocacy Centre (CYAC) shall be notified when investigating a sudden unexpected death of a child under the age of ____ years in any division, City-Wide. (page 86) a) 18 b) 12 c) 16 d) 10

97. Who is the chair of the Pediatric Death Review Committee (PDRC)? (page 86) a) A police officer b) Regional Chief Coroner for the province of Ontario c) Crown Attorney d) Child Welfare

98. Who completes the Investigation Questionnaire for Sudden Unexpected Deaths in Infants when the death of an infant is a confirmed homicide? (page 87) a) Coroner b) EMS c) CYAC d) Police

99. ________________________ will create and post a BOLO when a suspect of a suspected homicide has left the scene. (page 88) a) Records Management Services-Operations b) First police officer c) Supervisor on scene d) Homicide and Missing Persons Investigator

100. The first Supervisory Officer to arrive at the scene of a suspicious death or suspected homicide shall ensure the attendance of: (page 89) a) EMS b) An investigator from FIS c) Victim Services d) TFS

101. Who does the divisional Detective consult with prior to leaving the scene when a Homicide and Missing Persons investigator is not attending the scene?: (page 90) a) Road Supervisor b) An investigator from FIS c) Coroner d) Duty Senior Officer

102. The initial officer report is automatically e-transferred to the Office of the Chief Coroner (OCC). Any requests from the OCC for additional information must be made and approved for release by: (page 90) a) Homicide and Missing Persons b) Divisional Detective c) Road Supervisor d) Author of initial officer report

103. The Officer in Charge shall notify _________________ upon being notified of a suspicious death or possible Homicide. (page 90) a) Officer in Charge- TPOC b) Corporate Communications c) Detective Sergeant d) FIS

104. The FIS Investigator shall take charge of the scene in the absence of a ____________________________. (page 91) a) Divisional Detective b) Road Supervisor c) Duty Senior Officer d) Homicide and Missing Persons investigator

105. Child means a person younger than ___? (page 93) a) 16 b) 19 c) 18 d) 12

106. ________________________ means the sudden death of an infant under one (1) year of age, which remains unexplained after a thorough investigation which must include a complete autopsy, examination of the death scene, a police investigation and a review of the child’s clinical history. (page 93) a) Sudden Unexplained Death (SUD) b) Homicide Investigation c) Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) d) None of the above

107. The Hold Up Squad shall be contacted immediately in all instances of robbery involving: (page 94) a) Street robberies b) Carjacking’s committed with firearms or offensive weapons c) B & E where items taken d) All of the above

108. The first police officer on scene of a robbery shall be responsible for the: a) Safety and well-being of the victim (page 94) b) Offender management c) Preservation of the crime scene d) All of the above

109. First Officer: After verifying that a hold-up has occurred and the suspect has left the scene shall: (page 95) a) Notify the communications operator by telephone and maintain an open line b) Do not enter the premise c) Get a SOCO to process the scene d) None of the above

110. Who’s responsibility is it to seize all hold-up notes when HUS officers attend: (page 95/96) a) First officer b) HUS officer c) SOCO d) District Special Constable

111. A supervisory officer when notified of a robbery, you shall: a) Clear the scene as quickly as possible (page 96) b) Do not enter premise c) Attend the scene forthwith d) Take notification over telephone

112. A financial institution means any bank, trust and loan company or___________: (page 97) a) Armored vehicle b) ATM c) Crypto wallet d) Credit Union

113. In relation to Intimate Partner Violence, the goal of the Service is to: (page 98) a) Reduce the incidence of intimate partner violence and homicide in the community through education and enforcement b) Reduce the incidence of intimate partner violence c) Keeps victims safe d) None of the above

114. Victims and witnesses of crime shall not be asked their immigration status, unless there are bona fide reasons to do so. (page 98) a) True b) False

115. Who completes the Domestic Violence Risk Management- Ontario Domestic Assault Risk Assessment (DVRM/ODARA)? (page 99) a) First officer on scene b) Road Supervisor c) Accredited IPVI d) Detective Constable

116. What is the minimum # of officers that shall be dispatched to all intimate partner violence and intimate partner incidents? (page 99) a) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 1 and a Supervisor

117. When there is an indication of strangulation with no visible injury, Toronto Paramedic Services does not need to be contacted? (page 100) a) True b) False

118. Women’s College Hospital SA/DVCC is open from 0700hrs until 2300hrs, 7 days a week? (page 100) a) True b) False

119. Resources and Services at a SA/DVCC include: (page 101) a) Crisis intervention and support b) Safety planning c) Arrangement of shelter d) All of the above

120. MCIS will provide free interpretation services to the Service during the investigation of all: (page 101) a) Sexual related occurrences b) Intimate partner violence occurrences c) Human Trafficking occurrences d) All of the above

121. For non-urgent matters involving child/youth, ensure an email is sent to: (page 102) a) JFCS b) CCAS c) CAST d) NCFST e) Only B, C, D

122. When the suspect/accused or victim of IPV is a member of this Service, the Supervisory officer shall: (page 103) a) Contact PRS b) Be notified via telephone c) Ensure the suspect/accused is informed of the assistance available from the EFAP d) Notify Unit Commander

123. When possible, ensure an IPV victim’s injuries are photographed a time _________ hours after the initial incident. (page 105) a) 24-36 b) 36-48 c) 48-72 d) 1 week

124. Upon receipt of release documents (IPV), the Officer in Charge shall ensure a timely notification of: (page 106) a) Bail conditions b) Accused surety c) Accused address d) None of the above

125. The Written Revocable Consent program is designed to provide intimate partner violence victims with information about informed consent and to reduce the number of recurrences of consent being revoked and reinstated prior to the charges being concluded at court. (page 107) a) True b) False

126. Written Revocable Consent- Does a complainant’s refusal or inability to sign the statement negate the Revocation of Consent to Communicate request? (page 107) a) Yes b) No

127. The Dominant Aggressor means the individual who has been the principal abuser, and not necessarily the person who initiated the violence that resulted in the attendance of police. (page 108) a) True b) False

128. Intimate Partner Violence means any physical, sexual or psychological harm caused, or attempted, between persons involved in an intimate relationship including: (page 109) a) Murder b) Intimidation c) Unlawful interference with physical liberty d) All of the above

129. The Victim Quick Response Programs means a program administered by Victim Services Toronto that provides quick financial assistance to victims of homicide, attempted murder, serious physical assault, intimate partner violence, sexual assault and ______________ in the immediate aftermath of a crime. (page 109) a) Theft b) Extortion c) Hate Crime d) Child Abuse

130. A divisional sexual assault investigator shall be assigned as the lead investigator in all sexual assault cases except: (page 110) a) Where the victim does not want to proceed with criminal charges b) Where the victim is under 16 years of age, a child sexual abuse investigator shall conduct the investigation c) Where the victim can not be located d) None of the above

131. Sex Crimes shall be notified of any sexual assault where, it is determined: (page 110/111) a) The sexual assault is linked to another sexual assault occurrence b) The offender records the offence in any manner c) There is ongoing risk to the community d) All of the above

132. The Child and Youth Advocacy Centre (CYAC) will investigate child sexual and physical abuse cases that include: (page 111) a) Occurrences entitled Child in Need of Protection or Child Left Unattended b) Bullying c) Physical assaults where the suspect(s) is under 16 years d) None of the above

133. SA/DVCC: What age of victim does Women’s College Hospital treat? (page 112) a) Under 18 years b) 16 years and Older c) Any age d) Under 12 years

134. The first police officer on scene of a sexual assault shall notify: (page 112) a) FIS b) TPOC c) Officer in Charge d) Sex Crimes

135. Where a sexual assault report is made within 72 hours to ___ days of the incident, shall advise the importance of attending a hospital with a SA/DVCC for the purposes of a medical evaluation, as well as the gathering of potential forensic evidence. (page 113) a) 12 b) 5 c) 7 d) 14

136. Supervisory Officer, when notified of a sexual assault when the suspect/accused is a member of another police service shall: (page 114) a) Attend the scene b) Advise the Officer in Charge of the circumstances c) Notify Duty Senior Officer d) All of the above

137. When a victim of Sexual Assault has a support person present, advise both the victim and the support person that the latter: (page 115) a) Has to take notes b) May be required to testify in court c) Tell what happened to the victim for them d) Must stay at all times

138. In a sexual assault when charges are laid as a result of an investigation shall: (page 116) a) Complete a press release b) Conduct a prompt investigation c) Complete and serve the accused with a copy of the OSOR Form 5 d) Provide the victim with the accused’s name, date of birth and address

139. Sexual Assault- The only exception to providing a copy of the Undertaking to an Officer in Charge (OIC), Recognizance of Bail or Probation Order to CAS would be in the case of the accused being a young person. (page 117) a) True b) False

140. Sexual Assault/Domestic Violence Care Centre (SA/DVCC) means a medical care centre designated for the treatment and examination of victims and suspects of domestic/intimate partner violence as well as sexual assault. (page 119) a) True b) False

141. Violent Crime Linkage Analysis System (VICLAS) means the national database operated by the Royal Canadian Mounted Police (RCMP) for the purpose of linking occurrences of designated offences across Canada. (page 119) a) True b) False

142. The CYAC will investigate: (page 120) a) Physical assaults, emotional abuse, or neglect occurrences when the victim is under the age of sixteen (16) years and the suspect is a caregiver, parent or a person in a position of trust or authority b) Physical assaults when the victim is under the age of sixteen (16) years and the suspect is a known adult c) Sexual offences when the victim is under the age of eighteen (18) years, the suspect is known and the offences are not within the mandate of the Sex Crimes investigative office d) Occurrences entitled Child in Need of Protection or Child Left Unattended e) All of the above

143. Child Abuse- The responsibility for all investigations where the abuse took place inside the City of Toronto, the child resides outside of the city, lies with: (page 120) a) Where the child resides b) Where the parent resides c) Division where the incident occurred d) Division where the child resides

144. If transportation of a child to a hospital by ambulance is necessary, consider the use of ______________. (page 121) a) Scout car b) Unmarked vehicle c) Parent d) Any relative

145. A Supervisory officer must attend the scene of a complaint of a suspected child physical or sexual abuse? (page 122) a) True b) False

146. Any child or youth should be taken to ANY hospital ER immediately if the following exist (page 123) a) Concerns of possible head injury or fracture b) Child is complaining of severe pain in the extremities c) Lack of movement, headache, vomiting, not feeding, dizziness, scalp swelling d) Inconsolable crying in an infant or excessive sleeping e) All of the above

147. The Gatehouse can offer the investigator assistance in a child-friendly facility. What division is contacted for after hours? (page 124) a) 12 Division b) 31 Division c) 51 Division d) 22 Division

148. Team (Child Abuse Investigation) means a designated Child Abuse Investigator, a uniform officer and a Children’s Aid Society specialist, who shall conduct interviews together and communicate at every stage of the investigation. (page 126) a) True b) False

149. ________________ mandatory attendance when using the authority of ss.117.02(1) or ss.117.04(2) of the Criminal Code to search for firearms, prohibited devices, offensive weapons, ammunition, prohibited ammunition, explosive substances and related items (i.e. authorizations, licenses or registration certificates a) Emergency Task Force (ETF) b) Organized Crime Enforcement – Integrated Gun & Gang Task Force (IGGTF) c) Supervisory Officer d) Duty Inspector

150. Which of the following is NOT a mandated for the Organized Crime Enforcement – Integrated Gun & Gang Task Force (IGGTF) : a) the identification and arrest of criminal gunmen b) the identification, arrest and dismantling of any gang, criminal organization, or crime group or its members responsible for violent criminal activity within the community c) primarily focusing on illegal firearms, drugs and crimes of violence. d) identify and take enforcement action against persons involved in the illegal movement of firearms

151. Members of the _____________ are available to assist with all enquiries concerning possession of a firearm licence, authorization to transport, authorization to carry or permits held by an individual. They are also available to assist with investigations involving weapons seizures, illegally possessed firearms and investigations relating to businesses in the City of Toronto involving the use, sale and storage of firearms and related products. a) FIS b) FIAU c) IGGTF d) RCMP

152. When a suspect is arrested for offences relating to firearms (including stolen, smuggled, registered or unregistered firearms) or ammunition and explosives shall: a) immediately contact IGGTF by telephone and consult with a member for advice and/or assistance in the investigation b) conduct inquiries into the offender, family members, or any other person who may reasonably provide information whether weapons, firearms, ammunition or explosives are available to the offender c) determine if the offender, family members, or other associates possess the necessary authorizations, licenses, certificates or permits for the possession or purchase of a firearm or restricted weapon, or have been denied any of these d) a & c e) all or the above

153. Who upon being notified of a an incident suspected to be hate/bias crime shall assure the victim and the community that the Service will fully investigate the occurrence and assist the community in taking measures to prevent any repetition of the offence? a) Divisional Hate Crime Investigation Coordinator b) Supervisory officer c) Detective Sergeant d) Unit Commander

154. The Service is committed to the investigation of hate/bias crime and to assuming a leadership role in the co-ordination of a ____________ and ____________? a) Proactive and community approach b) Community policing and predictive policing model c) Strong police and community response d) Investigative techniques and community approach

155. What is defined as a criminal offence committed against a person or property that is motivated by hate, bias, or prejudice based on the victim’s race, national or ethnic origin, language, colour, religion, sex, age, mental or physical disability, sexual orientation, or gender identity or expression, or on any other similar factor? a) Hate Propaganda b) Hate/Bias Crime c) A & B d) None of the above

156. The investigation of hate/bias crime is the responsibility of the? a) Supervisory officer b) Intelligence Unit – Hate Crime Section c) Divisional Detective office d) Detective Sergeant

157. Which one of the following is the current EFAP provider? a) TPS Wellness b) Shepell∙fgi c) Greenshield d) Manulife

158. When involved in an officer–involved shooting incident shall a) attend a post incident firearms exposure session as directed by the Unit Commander b) immediately report the incident to a supervisor c) seek medical attention, if necessary d) a & b e) all of the above

159. Which of the following does not belong? As a supervisor, upon becoming aware of a member who requests assistance for a problem shall a) advise the member of all options available for assistance, including the EFAP provider b) immediately provide the member appropriate accommodations c) permit the member the opportunity to call the EFAP provider, subject to operational requirements d) follow–up as necessary with the member for support and encouragement

160. The EFAP provider for the Service, TELUS Health is contracted to provide assistance to a) active members (full-time, part-time and temporary), their spouse/partner and dependents b) retirees, their spouse/partner c) auxiliary members (critical incident stress only) d) all of the above

161. The Service has a legal requirement to forward all SLRD401s to the MTO within how many days of the vehicle collision? a) 10 days b) 14 days c) 30 days d) 5 business days

162. Notwithstanding the imminent need to seek or be transported for medical treatment, the involved member shall remain at the scene with the Service vehicle and speak to the investigating officer in-person may be subject to additional PSA and/or other charges and increased penalties. True OR False

TRUE

163. As set out in their mandate, Divisional Detectives shall lead the investigation of all aggravated assaults and attempted homicides that occur within the City of Toronto with the exception: a) of shootings, where Organized Crime Enforcement (OCE) shall lead b) when the victim is under the age of sixteen (16) years and the suspect is unknown c) when the victim is under the age of sixteen (16) years and the suspect is a caregiver, parent or a person in a position of trust or authority where an investigator from the Child and Youth Advocacy Centre (CYAC) shall lead Investigations, where a charge of attempted murder is appropriate will be conducted in accordance with the Ontario Major Case Management Manual (OMCMM) d) a & c e) all of the above

164. Upon arrival at the scene of an aggravated assault and/or attempt homicide and the suspect has left the scene, shall select ‘Yes’ for the BOLO option when completing the suspect Entities page. Who will create and post the BOLO? a) TPS - TPOC b) TPS - Records Management Services c) OPP Communications Supervisor d) RCMP Coordinated Center

165. A Scenes of Crime Officer (SOCO) shall not be deployed to examine any scene of an aggravated assault and/or an attempted homicide without consulting with: a) Homicide b) Division OIC c) Divisional CIB d) FIS

166. A ____________ authorizes a police officer to take that person into custody and return them to the physician promptly and is valid for a period of thirty (30) days. a) Form 1 b) Form 2 c) Form 2 d) Form 47

168. The first police officer to arrive at the scene of an aggravated assault and/or attempted homicide shall: a) be responsible for preserving the crime scene, if necessary, and noting any pertinent details in their memorandum book. b) in the absence of a supervisory officer take direction from the first police officer c) be responsible for the safety and wellbeing of the victim, offender management as well as preservation of the evidence and crime scene while awaiting the arrival of an appropriate investigator d) take up a position at the entrance to secure the scene

167. A member shall advise a supervisory officer if detained or expect to be detained at the psychiatric facility a) overnight b) for more than one (1) hour c) for more than twenty four (24) hours d) for more than two (2) hours

169. Which is NOT defined in a Post Incident Firearm Exposure Session: a) a session involving firearm exercises undertaken with a qualified firearms instructor b) the session consist of a qualification standard c) a post incident firearms exposure session consists of an individual course of fire intended to be educational d) to provide reassurance e) to promote officers’ confidence with their firearm after an officer-involved shooting incident.

170. The post incident firearms exposure session will take place after being returned to full duties after a shooting incident: TRUE or FALSE

FALSE

171. According to procedure 13-03 Police Officer Internal Complaints, a civilian supervisor that directly manages a police officer may initiate a conduct complaint by way of a TPS 901. (Page. 206) a. True b. False

172. According to procedure 13-08 Appendix A, Police Services Act – Police Officer Suspensions, the Chief of Police hereby authorizes the following personnel the power of suspension granted to the chief under the PSA. (Page. 213) a. Any Supervisory officer b. The officer in charge of a Unit c. Unit Complaint Coordinator d. Civilian supervisors

173. The Chief of Police may suspend a police officer, other than a Deputy Chief of Police, without pay as per section 210(1) of the Community Safety and Policing Act (CPSA); if the police officer is subject to conditions of a judicial interm release, or conditions imposed under section 499 of the Criminal Code (Canada), that substantially interfere with the officer’s ability to perform the duties of a police officer. (Page. 210) a. True b. False

174. According to procedure 13-11 Work Performance standards applicable to members can be found in: (Page. 221) a. Federal Statues and associated Regulations b. The Community Safety and Policing Act c. Municipal By-laws and Municipal Codes d. A and C

175. According to procedure 13-09 Civilian Complaint and Discipline Process in accordance with the principles of progressive discipline, assessed disciplinary penalties shall increase for subsequent offences and subsequent penalties shall not regress in severity. However, in exceptional circumstances, and only following consultation with and advice from ____________ the same or lesser penalty may be assessed. (Page. 217) a. A Deputy Chief of Police b. Professional Standards (PRS) c. Labour Relations d. People, Strategy and Performance

176. According to procedure 13-09 Civilian and Discipline Process the conduct of civilian members other than internal Special Constables is governed by: (Page. 216) a. The Service Standards of Conduct, b. Provincial Statutes and associated Regulations, c. Municipal Codes, d. Community Safety and Policing Act (CPSA)

177. According to procedure 13-03 Police Officer Internal Complaint Process Unit Commanders shall forward the completed file, including the adjudication/disposition, to PRS – Complaints Administration within: (Page. 207) a. 90 Days, b. 120 Days, c. 6 Months, d. A calendar year

178. According to procedure 13-11 Unsatisfactory Work Performance the time frame for a Special Review is: (Page. 223) a. 120 calendar Days, b. 90 calendar days, c. 45 calendar days, d. 30 calendar days

179. According to procedure 13-11 Unsatisfactory Work Performance which of the following is not included in the definitions of Service Governance: (Page. 225) a. Police Service Board Policies and By-Laws, b. Directions from a superior, c. CPIC messages, d. The Community Safety and Policing Act

180. According to procedure 13-14 Human Rights which is not a Human Rights Code prohibited ground: (Page. 226) a. Creed, b. Gender expression, c. Employment, d. Disability,

181. According to procedure 13-14 Human Rights which are the 5 Human Rights Code protected social areas: (Page. 227) a. Accommodation (housing), Citizenship, Contracts, Employment, Disability, b. Receipt of public assistance (in housing only), Contracts, Membership in vocational associations and trade unions, Employment, Goods, services and facilities, c. Accommodations (housing), Contracts, Employment, Membership in vocational associations and trade unions, Goods, services and facilities, d. Employment, Gender expression, Receipt of public assistance (in housing only), Contracts, Membership in vocational associations and trade unions

182. According to procedure 13-14 Human Rights, Discrimination and/or Harassment does not include the following: (Page. 227) a. Misgendering trans and gender variant people, and failure to use chosen name and pronouns, b. Implied or expressed promise of reward for complying with a sexually oriented request, c. Exclusion, ignoring and other “by omission acts” d. Steps taken by a supervisor as part of performance management and discipline

183. According to procedure 13-16 Special Investigations Unit, Service-issued Workplace Technology Devices (WTD) and Body Worn Cameras (BWC) have access to confidential records and must be stored in a secured location. Who is solely responsible for coordinating the release of these devices? (Page. 231) a. The Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority, b. PRS SIU Liaison Investigator, c. The Unit Commander d. The OIC

184. According to procedure 13-16 Special Investigations Unit, which of the following internal units shall be assigned to the Chief’s Administrative Investigation in the case of an officer-involved firearm and less lethal weapon discharge? (Page. 231) a. Specialized Criminal Investigation – Homicide, b. Professional Standards, c. Firearms Investigations and Analysis Unit (FIAU), d. Firearms Enforcement Unit (FEU)

185. The Supreme Court of Canada (SCC) ruled in_______________, 2013 SCC 71 that police officers are not permitted to consult with counsel before the completion of their notes. (Page. 232) a. R v. Golden b. Cloutier v. Langlois c. Wood v. Schaffer d. R v. Mann

186. According to procedure 13-16 Special Investigations Unit, where the SIU contacts an officer directly to schedule an investigative interview, the officer shall immediately notify: (Page. 235) a. The Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority, b. Unit Commander, c. PRS – SIU Liaison Section, d. Immediate supervisor

187. According to procedure 13-16 Special Investigations Unit, the decision to contact the SIU in such circumstances will be at the discretion of the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designate Authority or, in their absence, ________________. (Page. 237) a. Unit Commander, b. PRS –SIU Liaison Investigator, c. Duty Senior Officer – TPOC, d. Deputy Chief

188. According to procedure 13-18 Anonymous Reporting of Discreditable Conduct, Misconduct means any conduct that is contrary to a breach of any Legislative or _______________. (Page. 239) a. Federal Statutes and associated Regulations, b. Municipal By-Laws, c. Service Governance, d. Community Safety and Policing Act

189. According to procedure 14-02 Evaluations, Reclassifications and Appraisals, Probationary sergeants/detectives will have a performance appraisal TPS 810 completed by the assigned supervisory officer prior to the completion of the _____________ following promotion. (Page. 242) a. Compressed Work Week (CWW) cycle 1 and 2, b. 3rd, 6th, and 10th month, c. 5th CWW cycle or the equivalent of (6) months, d. 90 days and 180 days

190. According to procedure 14-02 Evaluations, Reclassifications and Appraisals, an annual appraisal is required for probationary sergeants. (Page. 242) a. True, b. False

191. According to procedure 14-02 Evaluations, Reclassifications and Appraisals, Constables who are absent from work due to parental leave, family care leave, long-term disability, central sick bank, suspension, or off-duty injury will not be considered on active service. Such absences will not be considered as time served in the rank for reclassification purposes. Such constables will continue to be reconsidered for reclassification ____________ and will not be eligible for reclassification until they have completed at least one (1) year of active service in the rank/classification. (Page. 243) a. Every 60 days, b. Every 90 days, c. Every 30 days, d. Every 120 days

192. According to procedure 14-02 Evaluations, Reclassifications and Appraisals, when recommending the withholding of a constable’s reclassification the Unit Commander shall ensure_____________________ are immediately advised of the recommendation via e-mail. (Page. 243) a. Professional Standards (PRS), b. People and Culture, c. Labour Relations and Employee Services, d. Accounting Services

193. According to procedure 13-09 Civilian Complaint and Discipline Process, once an internal conduct complaint about a civilian member has been initiated the available outcomes includes the following: (Page. 217) a. Special Review b. Internal informal resolution c. A plan for corrective action d. Verbal reprimand

194. According to procedure 13-09 Civilian and Discipline Process, once an internal conduct complaint about a civilian member has been initiated the available the disciplinary actions available include the following: (Page. 217) a. Withholding of Reclassification b. Suspension without pay pending recommendation for termination c. Suspension with pay d. TPS 955 placed in unit personnel file until two (2) full years have passed without further negative reports

195. According to procedure 13-03 Police Officer Internal Complaint Process, Section 1.9 entitled “Fairness, Discrimination and Harassment” of______________________________ prohibits discriminatory behavior. (Page. 207) a. Human Rights Code b. Standards of Conduct c. Police Services Act (PSA) d. Service Governance

196. According to procedure 13-16 Special Investigations Unit, the Professional Standards SIU Liaison Investigator will direct the service’s response to the SIU investigation. (Page. 230) a. True b. False

197. According to procedure 13-16 Special Investigations Unit, the Police Services Act (PSA) directs the Toronto Police Service regarding the conduct and duties of officials with respect to investigations conducted by the SIU. (Page. 229) a. True b. False

198. According to procedure 13-18 Anonymous Reporting of Discreditable Conduct, the Anonymous Reporting of Discreditable Conduct Program allows for the anonymous, good faith reporting of criminal activity or misconduct. The service can guarantee this privilege granted by the Command based on a Supreme Court of Canada decision. (Page. 239) a. True b. False

199. According to procedure 13-18 Anonymous Reporting of Discreditable Conduct, Upon receiving a request for disclosure of information contained in a TPS 909 (Anonymous Disclosure - Dedicated Line Intake Report) shall immediately direct the request to the attention of: (Page. 239) a. Professional Standards (PRS) – Complaints Administration b. Unit Commander – Legal Services c. Unit Complaint Coordinator d. Unit Commander

200. According to procedure 13-08 Appendix A – Community Safety and Policing Act – Police Officer Suspensions, officers suspended with pay who commence a paid secondary activity shall have their pay reduced by amount of the monetary benefit earned from such paid secondary activity during that period of suspension, pursuant to the Community Safety and Policing Act (CPSA). (Page. 211) a. True b. False

201. According to procedure 13-11 Unsatisfactory Work Performance, work performance issues that may form the basis for a complaint of unsatisfactory work performance includes frequent or repetitive errors and missed deadlines. (Page. 222) a. True b. False

202. According to procedure 13-11 Unsatisfactory Work Performance, ___________________ establishes certain criteria that must be met before an internal complaint of unsatisfactory work performance may be brought against a police officer. (Page. 223) a. The Police Services Act b. The Community Safety and Policing Act c. Service Governance d. Professionalism & Accountability

203. According to procedure 13-16 Special Investigations Unit, The SIU will be permitted, subject to the direction of ____________________, to seize any police issued equipment, without warrant, that is relevant to an SIU investigation, (Page. 230) a. PRS SIU Liaison Investigator b. The Chief’s Administrative Investigation service subject matter expert unit (ie: Homicide, Sex Crimes TSV and PRS) c. the Chief’s SIU Designate Authority d. The Officer in Charge –TPOC

204. According to procedure 13-16 Special Investigations Unit, The SIU is a civilian law enforcement agency in Ontario that has jurisdiction over municipal, regional and provincial officers, including Special constable employed by the Niagara Parks Commission. (Page. 229) a. True b. False

205. According to procedure 13-16 Special Investigations Unit, Where the SIU mandate is or may be invoked, members shall not Provide information to the media or participate in a media interview unless authorized by the following: (Page. 233) a. Unit Commander – Corporate Communications b. Chief’s SIU On-Call Designate Authority c. A and B d. The Officer in Charge - TPOC

206. According to procedure 14-02 Evaluations, Reclassification and Appraisals, when a temporary transfer is for more than six (6) months, the members former supervisor will assume responsibility for the performance appraisal and will liaise with the member’s new supervisor. (Page. 240) a. True b. False

207. According to procedure 14-02 Evaluations, Reclassification and Appraisals, When a constable chooses to appeal or dispute a recommendation under this section, the constable shall notify their Unit Commander and the Toronto Police Association within__________________________ of the time the constable was informed that the reclassification with being withheld. (Page. 244) a. 10 days b. 7 days c. 72 hours d. 48 hours

208. According to procedure 13-09 Civilian Complaint and Discipline Process, where the investigation will not be completed within one hundred twenty (120) days the Investigating Supervisor sends a status update to PRS – Complaints Administration_______________ until the investigation is concluded. (Page. 220) a. every (60) days b. every (90) days c. every (30) days d. every (120) days

209. According to procedure 13-11 Unsatisfactory Work Performance, supervisors who are not normally required to maintain a memorandum book shall record minor performance deficiencies on a __________to be placed in a civilian member’s unit personnel file and shall be expunged from the file after two (2) years have passed without further negative reports. (Page. 222) a. TPS 955 b. TPS 649 c. TPS 901 d. TPS 956

210. According to procedure 13-16 Special Investigations Unit, where the SIU mandate is or may be invoked incident notes are to be completed and submitted to the OIC before the end of the members tour of duty, except where excused by the: (Page. 232) a. PRS –SIU Liaison Investigator b. Chief’s SIU On-Call Designate Authority c. Unit Commander d. Officer in Charge

211. Supervisory Officer attendance is mandatory when a CEW has been used in demonstrated force presence (page 257). a. True b. False

212. _________ empowers every person who is required or authorized to do anything in the administration or enforcement of the law, when acting on reasonable grounds, to use as much force as necessary for that purpose. Every person is liable, both criminally and civilly, for any unjustified or excessive force used. (page 245). a. The Criminal Code b. Ontario Regulation 926/90 c. Ontario Regulation 926/80 d. The Police Services Act

213. Members shall not use a weapon other than a firearm unless (page 245) a. that type of weapon has been approved for use by the Solicitor General b. that type of weapon has been approved for use by the Governor General c. that type of weapon has been approved for use by the Attorney General d. that type of weapon has been approved for use by the Chief of Police

214. Duty to Report and Duty to Intervene. Failure to report the misconduct of another member, may constitute misconduct and may be subject to discipline under the ______ (page 246) a. Police Services Act b. Criminal Code c. SIU d. OIPRD/LECA

215. In terms of Use of Force reporting a police dog or police horse that comes into direct physical contact with a person is not considered a weapon. (page 247) a. True b. False

216. Who is authorized to submit Team Use of Force Reports: (page 247) a. Guns and Gangs Task Force b. Marine Unit c. Police Dog Services d. EMPO – Public Safety

217. Upon being notified of a firearms discharge, _________ is responsible for notifying the officer in charge of TPOC? (page 250) a. Firearms Discharge Investigator b. Incident Commander c. Supervisory Officer d. Officer in Charge

218. What unit is not a member of the Incident Review Committee (IRC) (page 252) a. Toronto Police College – Armament Section b. Toronto Police College – In-Service Training Section c. Professional Standards d. Strategy and Risk Management e. Emergency Task Force f. EMPO

219. Due to the methods of loading, carrying, storage, etc. used for less lethal shotguns; they should be loaded, unloaded, and proven safe inside a Service facility. (page 253) a. True b. False

220. When notified of a Less Lethal Shotgun Discharge, the supervisory officer shall notify (page255) a. Firearms Discharge Investigator b. Duty Senior Officer c. Officer In Charge – TPOC d. SIU Liaison Officer

221. A two officer car can be assigned a Less Lethal Shotgun and a C-8 rifle. (page 256) a. True b. False

222. Which of the following is not an alternative to pursuit? a. Strategic following b. Tandem Stop c. Tire Deflation Device d. Helicopter e. Projectile tracking device

223. When is summer dress in effect? (page 269) a. June 1 to September 30 b. June 1 to September 1 c. April 1 to October 31 d. April 1 to October 1

224. Upon receiving a request for an ICCS recording from a member of the public shall direct the individual to (page 273) a. The Unit Complaints Coordinator b. PRS c. Access and Privacy Section d. Records Management

225. Any supervisory officer found not in compliance with the BWC Procedure, and/or associated Service Governance, will receive a minimum penalty of (page 277) a. 4 hours b. 8 hours c. 12 hours d. 16 hours

226. A supervisory officer is required to review ICC footage (page 275) a. Once a month b. Beginning and end of the CWW cycle c. During an evaluation period d. On a weekly basis

227. BWC “Stealth Mode” is the state of the camera when (page 284) a. Recording continues but no sound b. Recording continues but no lights c. Recording is only activated when motion detected d. Recording continues but no lights or sound

228. Rules for service members that involve Respecting Gender and Diversity are found in (page 284) a. Police Service Act b. Standard of Conduct c. Ontario Human Rights Code d. Occupational Health and Safety Act

229. Who is not considered an authorized user (someone who is granted access to TPS resources) according to the Information Security Policy? (page 285) a. Contractor b. Volunteer c. Temporary member d. Sworn visitor

230. Any records created and/or maintained on any TPS-IT resource are property of the Service and bound by Service Governance and the ________ (page 285) a. TPS Records Retention By-Law. b. TPS Information Technology Act c. TPS Information Technology By-Law d. TPS Records Retention Act

231. What is not part of Our Strategic Framework Priorities? (page 288) a. Harassment in the Workplace b. Indigenous Cultural Safety c. Anti-Black Racism d. 2SLGBTQI + Inclusion

232. Choose the correct answer based on our services Vision in regards to TPS Equity Strategy. (page 288) a. To create a fair, equal and safe working environment for our Service members so they can thrive and serve our communities b. To create a safe, equitable and fair working environment for our Service members so they can thrive and serve our communities c. To create a safe, equitable and fair working environment for our Service members so they can support our communities. d. To create a fair, equal and safe working environment for our Service members so they can support our communities

233. What is not an outcome of the TPS Equity Strategy? (page 288) a. Diverse Membership b. Positive Workplace culture c. Strong Network of Partners d. Increased Morale

234. When a request is made from the Crown Attorney’s Office for BWC footage a (page 281) a. Video Evidence Inventory and 612 request form is submitted to Records Management b. Video Evidence Inventory and 612 request form is submitted to the Access and Privacy Section c. Video Evidence Inventory and 612 request form is submitted to the Unit Disclosure Officer d. Video Evidence Inventory and 612 request form is submitted to video services

235. BWC activation in a place of worship is prohibited. (page 278) a. True b. False

236. What is the name of the approved headdress members of Jewish faith are permitted to wear in uniform? (page 271) a. Kanga b. Kippah c. Kara d. Khalsa

237. Aboriginal members may deviate from the prescribed standards of appearance and (page 271) a. wear their hair braided down as part of their spiritual practice. b. wear their hair braided in two as part of their spiritual practice. c. wear their hair braided up as part of their spiritual practice. d. wear their hair braided as they feel fit as part of their spiritual practice.

238. Members of the Hindu faith may wear (page 271) a. a nose stud in accordance with their religious beliefs. b. Henna in accordance with their religious beliefs. c. Mala necklace in accordance with their religious beliefs. d. Bangles in accordance with their religious beliefs.

239. The role of the road supervisory officer during a pursuit includes (page 267) a. Immediately assume the role of the pursuit supervisor b. Advise the communications operator that he/she is monitoring c. Notify Officer in Charge – TPOC d. Control radio communications during the pursuit

240. When there is more than one (1) police service involved in the pursuit, the responsible supervisor is the (page 265) a. Highest ranking officer b. Supervisor where the pursuit initiated until the pursuit is handed over to another service c. Supervisor of the service where the pursuit is currently taking place d. Supervisor of the service which has the most unit assigned

241. When an officer uses a CEW as a demonstrated force presence but does not deploy the device they do not need to complete a Use of Force report (page 245) a. True b. False

242. The SIU is not required to investigate the discharge of a Less Lethal “sock” round at a member of the public if the round did not come into physical contact with a member of the public and there were no other injuries sustained. (page 255) a. True b. falseB

243. When a Use of Force report is requested for court disclosure, the request shall be referred to (Page 247) a. Access and privacy section b. PRS c. Toronto Police College – Use of Force Section d. Legal Services

244. According to the procedure, upon receipt of a Use of Force report a supervisor is not required to (page 250) a. Review all BWC and ICC footage b. Notify the Officer in Charge of TPOC and advise of the incident c. Notify the Unit Complaints Coordinator and advise of the report submission d. Forward the completed forms to the Officer in Charge

Erin's Practice Exam Flashcards

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