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Essential Anatomy Flashcards

(103 cards)

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1
Q

What is the function of the integumentary system?

A

Complex sensory organ (afferent nerves, pain receptors, touch/pressure/temp/pain)
Protection
Heat regulation

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2
Q

What is the epidermis? What are some of its characteristics/what does it contain?

A

Outermost layer of the skin

Keratinized stratified epithelium

Avascular; contains afferent nerve endings

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3
Q

What is the dermis? What are some of its characteristics/what does it contain?

A

Inferior to epidermis, superior to subcutaneous tissue

Dense layer of collagen and elastic fibers

Function - structure, strength; contains arrector pili, sebaceous (sweat) glands, and hair follicles

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4
Q

What is the subcutaneous tissue? What are some of its characteristics/what does it contain?

A

Also known as “superficial fascia”

Contains deepest part of sweat glands, blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, cutaneous nerves, fat, and ligaments

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5
Q

What is the deep fascia?

A

Dense organized connective tissue void of fat

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6
Q

What are 5 kinds of deep fascia (describe each)?

A

Investing fascia: surround individual muscles and neurovascular bundles

Intermuscular septa: Divide muscles into groups/compartments; attaches to bone

Sub-serous fascia: Separates muscles from serous membranes of body cavity

Retinacula: Holds tendons in place

Bursae: Fluid-filled sacs for protection/prevent friction (3 types: bone x skin, bone x muscle, muscle x muscle)

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7
Q

What are the 3 degrees of burns called (describe each)?

A

Superficial burn (first degree): Only superficial damage within the epidermis

Partial thickness burn (second degree): extends to the superficial part of the dermis; sweat glands and follicles NOT damaged; able to provide source of replacement cells

Full thickness burn (third degree): Extends down to the deep fascia and occasionally down to the underlying muscle; there is some healing, but typically requires skin grafting

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8
Q

What effects the victim more: the extent of a burn (total body surface) or the degree of the burn (depth)?

A

Extent of the burn

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9
Q

What are the two parts of the skeletal system?

A

Bones and cartilage

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10
Q

What are the two types of bone (describe)?

A

Compact (solid)
Spongy (porous)

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11
Q

What is the function of the skeletal system?

A
  • Support for the body and muscular system
  • Protection for internal organs
  • Mechanical basis for movement
  • Storage of minerals
    -Production of blood cells
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12
Q

Label the parts of the bone.

A

See image

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13
Q

Are bones vascularized?

A

Yes

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14
Q

Are bones innervated?

A

Yes

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15
Q

What is the axial skeleton and how many bones are in it?

A

Cranium, hyoid bone, vertebral column, thorax (costals and sternum)

80 bones

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16
Q

What is the appendicular skeleton and how many bones are in it?

A

Bones of the appendages (upper and lower limb)

126 bones

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17
Q

Bones are classified according to their shape. The 5 shapes are…

A

Long (tubular) - ex: humerus, femur, the majority of appendicular bones

Short (cuboidal) - ex: carpals, tarsals

Flat (protective) - ex: cranium

Irregular - ex: facial bones, vertebrae

Sesamoid (develop in tendons) - ex: patella, pisiform

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18
Q

Bone markings and landmarks serve as…

A

Places for arteries and nerves to insert or muscles to attach

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19
Q

What is a joint?

A

An articulation between two or more rigid components

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20
Q

What are the 3 types of joints? What are their characteristics?

A

Fibrous - dense irregular connective tissue; little-to-no movement; includes sutures and syndesmoses

Cartilaginous - hyaline or fibrous cartilage; allow slight movement; include sympehsis

Synovial - synovial fluid in a capsule that joins bones; highly movable

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21
Q

What are the 6 groups of synovial joints? Categorize them by axes and notate their types of rotation.

A

UNIAXIAL:
Pivot (rotation)
Plane (slide)
Hinge (flexion, extension)

BIAXIAL:
Saddle (circumduction)
Condyloid (flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, circumduction)

MULTIAXIAL:
Ball-and-socket (flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, circumduction, internal rotation, external rotation)

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22
Q

What are the two types of bone development (describe)?

A

Intramembranous ossification: membranous bone formation

Endochondral ossification: cartilaginous bone formation

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23
Q

What is the process of bone development?

A
  1. Mesenchymal cells condense and differentiate into chondroblasts
  2. Cartilage forms and calcifies
  3. Capillaries form in midregion (periosteal bud)
  4. Primary ossification center: replaces most cartilage in shaft becoming diaphysis
  5. Secondary ossification: epiphysial arteries grow into developing cavities
  6. Bone is formed at primary center but doesn’t fuse with secondary centers until bone reaches adult size
  7. During growth of long bone, cartilaginous epyphysial plates intervene between diaphysis and epiphysis
  8. Growth plates eventually replaced by bone at each of the 2 sides (proximal and distal); bone growth ceases and diaphysis and epiphysis fuse (this forms an epiphysial line)
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24
Q

What is a heterotropic bone?

A

Bone formed in soft tissue where not typically present

EX: Sometimes horse riders will develop them in the buttocks because of chronic muscle strain; small hemorrhagic areas calcify then ossify

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25
What are 4 examples of bone adaptation?
Fractured bones bleed Unused bones atrophy Bones absorb (e.g., when teeth extracted) Bones undergo hypertrophy when increase in weight and/or support occur over a long time
26
What is the reduction of a fraction?
Broken bones brought together; during healing,, surrounding fibroblasts proliferate to form collars of callus to hold bones together
27
What is osteoporosis?
Abnormal reduction in quantity of bone or atrophy of skeletal tissue; bones become brittle, lose elasticity, and fracture easily
28
How are bone traumas different in adults versus children?
A fracture in adult typically equates to a displacement in a child because their bones are not entirely formed
29
What is Avascular necrosis?
Can happen when there is a loss of blood supply to an epiphysis After every fracture, small surrounding areas of adjacent bone die
30
What causes joint degeneration?
Heavy use; cartilage loss on articulating surfaces degenerates
31
What is the function of the muscular system?
Produces movement of the body or temporarily changes the shape of an organ
32
What are 3 types of muscle (describe)?
Skeletal: voluntary; receives innervation from somatic nervous system; fleshy contractile and noncontractile muscles, aponeuroses, and tendons Cardiac: involuntary; receives innervation from autonomic nervous system; heart Smooth: involuntary; walls of hollow organs, some eye structures, vessels
33
Muscles can be named based on…
Shape (deltoid) Length (adductor longus) Size (gluteus maximus) Position (latissimus dorsi, supraspinous) Insertion (sternocleidomastoid) # heads or bellies (biceps, quadriceps)
34
The structural unit of skeletal muscle is the ___________.
muscle fiber
35
Label the diagram.
See diagram
36
What are the two parts of a myofilament?
Actin (thin) and myosin (thick)
37
What is the functional unit of skeletal muscle called?
Motor unit
38
What are the two parts of a motor unit?
Motor neuron and muscle fibers it supplies
39
Label the diagram.
See diagram
40
The following are connective tissue coverings; describe what they cover: Endomysium Perimysium Epimysium
Endomysium: muscle fiber Perimysium: bundle of muscle fibers (fascicle) Epimysium: group of fascicles
41
What are the three types of muscle contractions?
1. REFLEXIVE: automatic an involuntary 2. TONIC: slight contraction, doesn’t produce movement (gives muscle firmness or tone) 3. PHASIC: A. Isometric: muscle tension increases able tonic, but muscle length remains same; no joint movement B. Isotonic: muscle produces tension and changes to length to produce movement I. Concentric: muscle shortens II. Eccentric - muscle lengthens
42
Eccentric and concentric muscle movements are a type of ________ contraction, a subcategory of ____________ contraction.
Isotonic Phasic
43
Isometric and isotonic contractions are two types of ____________ contractions.
Phasic
44
Which type of contraction produces muscle shortening? Reflexive Tonic Concentric Eccentric Isometric
Concentric
45
Which type of contraction produces muscle lengthening? Reflexive Tonic Concentric Eccentric Isometric
Eccentric
46
Which type of contraction is involuntary and automatic? Reflexive Tonic Concentric Eccentric Isometric
Reflexive
47
Which type of contraction produces a slight contraction, but no movement? Reflexive Tonic Concentric Eccentric Isometric
Tonic
48
Which type of contraction produces muscle tension above tonic levels but no change in muscle length or no joint movement? Reflexive Tonic Concentric Eccentric Isometric
Isometric
49
True of false: Shorter muscles produce greater range of motion.
FALSE: Longer muscles produce greater range of motion
50
What is the difference between origin and insertion of a muscle?
ORIGIN: Typically the proximal end of the muscle; remains fixed during contraction INSERTION: Typically the distal end of a muscle; movable.
51
What are the 4 types of muscle actions (describe)?
Agonist: prime mover Antagonist: opposes the action of the agonist Fixator: Fixates one part of the body to allow movement in another Synergist: complements the action of the agonist; assists in action production
52
What is the purpose of muscle testing and how is it done?
Helps diagnose nerve injuries; helps gauge the power of a person’s movement Usually tested bilaterally: 1. Person performs movements that resist those produced by examiner 2. Examiner produces movements against resistance produced by person
53
What is electromyography?
EMG or estim 1. Examiner places electrodes over a muscle and asks person to perform certain movements. Examiner amplifies and records differences in electrical action potential of muscles 2. Examiner planes electrodes over a muscle and uses it to restore muscle action Normal resting = baseline activity (tonus); disappears during sleep, paralysis, or anesthesia ONLY
54
What is muscle atrophy?
Muscle wasting caused by disorder of muscles, nerve lesion, or prolonged immobilization
55
What is compensatory hypertrophy?
Myocardium responds to increase in demands by increasing the size of its cells
56
What is the differences between hypertrophy and hyperplasia?
Hypertrophy: increase in cell size Hyperplasia: increase in cell number
57
What is a myocardial infarction?
Heart attack; blood flow to the heart stops (ischemia), heart tissue is damaged, then dies (myocardial necrosis)
58
How many degrees of freedom do synovial joints allow?
2 to 3
59
What is the main function of the nervous system?
Allows us to respond to external and internal stimuli, integrate information, and control all functions of the body
60
What are the structural and functional divisions of the nervous system?
Structural: Central nervous system (CNS), Peripheral nervous system (PNS) Functional: Sensory, Motor
61
What are the components of a peripheral nervous system?
Sensory (afferent) > Somatic sensory system (external sensations) > Visceral sensory system (internal sensations) Motor (efferent) > Somatic motor system (voluntary) > Visceral motor system (involuntary/autonomic)
62
Label the Dermatome map.
See map
63
What are neurons?
Structural and functional units that allow for communication within the nervous system
64
Label the parts of a neuron.
See diagram
65
What are glial cells?
Non-neuronal cells that support neurons and form a major component of the nervous system
66
What are the three nerve tissue coverings and what do they cover?
Endoneurium: Nerve fiber Perineurium: A fascicle of nerve fibers Epineurium: Whole nerve (vascularized)
67
How many pairs of peripheral nerves originate from the brain? From the spine?
Brain: 12 pairs (cranial nerves) Spine: 31 pairs (spinal nerves) - 8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, coccygeal
68
What are the names of the 12 cranial nerves?
CN I: Olfactory CN II: Optic CN III: Oculomotor CN IV: Trochlear CN V: Trigeminal CN VI: Abducens CN VII: Facial CN VIII: Vestibulocochlear CN IX: Glossopharyngeal CN X: Vagus CN XI: Accessory CN XII: Hypoglossal
69
Label the parts of a typical spinal nerve.
See diagram
70
What is the difference between a dermatome and myotome?
Dermatome (somatic sensory fibers): unilateral area of skin supplied by a single nerve Myotome (somatic motor fibers): unilateral muscle mass receiving innervation from a single spinal nerve; GROUPED ACCORDING TO JOINT MOTIONS
71
Indicate which spinal nerve meets each of the following landmarks: Clavicle Thumb Little finger Nipple Umbilicus Big toe Little toe
Clavicle - C5 Thumb - C6 Little finger - C8 Nipple - T4 Umbilicus — T10 Big toe - L4 Little toe - S1
72
What are the two parts of the autonomic nervous system?
ANS = visceral motor system 1. Sympathetic (Thoracolumbar): “fight or flight” 2. Parasympathetic (craniosacral): “rest and digest”
73
How does the somatic and visceral nervous systems differ in terms of their neuron communication system?
Somatic = 1 neuron Visceral = 2 neurons
74
How does damage to the CNS and PNS differ?
CNS: Injured axons generally do not recover; proximal stumps begin to regenerate, but growth is blocked by astrocyte (type of glial cell) at the site of injury. Results in permanent disability. PNS: When crushed or severed, axons degenerate distal to the lesion because they depend on their cell bodies for survival.
75
What is the function of the cardiovascular system?
Transport blood throughout the body carrying nutrients, oxygen, and waste products to and from the cells.
76
What is the difference between arteries, veins, and capillaries?
Arteries: “decreasing caliber”; higher blood pressure; typically contain oxygenated blood Veins: “increasing caliber”; lower blood pressure; typically contain deoxygenated blood Capillaries: exchange of nutrients
77
What is pulmonary circulation?
Right side of the heart pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs for oxygenation
78
What is systemic circulation?
Left side of the heart pumps oxygenated blood to the body
79
What is the difference between the fibrous pericardium and serous pericardium?
Fibrous: superficial layer Serous: deep layer
80
Arrange these heart wall layers from superficial to deep: Myocardium Epicardium Endocardium
Epicardium Myocardium Endocardium
81
What the typical BPM?
60-70 bpm
82
What is bradycardia?
Abnormally slow heart rate; below 60 bpm
83
What is tachycardia?
Abnormally high heart heart; above 70 bpm
84
Label the parts of the heart.
See diagram
85
Do the pulmonary arteries carry oxygenated or deoxygenated blood?
Both!
86
How does blood flow through the heart?
1. Deoxygenated blood enters the heart through the right atrium. 2. Right atrium contracts, pushing blood through he tricuspid valve into he right ventricle 3. Right ventricle contracts and pumps blood into the pulmonary trunk and pulmonary arteries (delivering blood to lungs for oxygenation) 4. Oxygenated blood returns to the heart through the left atrium via the pulmonary veins 5. Left atrium contracts, pushing blood through he bicuspid/mitral valve to the left ventricle 6. Left ventricle contracts and pumps blood into the aorta, delivering blood to the body
87
Blood flows from _________ to __________ pressure.
Higher Lower
88
Contraction of the heart __________ pressure within a chamber.
Increases
89
Relaxation of the heart ____________ pressure within a chamber.
Decreases
90
The atrioventricular (AV) valves open when _______ pressures are higher and close when they are lower than their counterparts. Subsequently, semilunar valves open when _______________ pressure is higher and close when they are lower than their counterparts.
Atrial Ventricular
91
A heart beat is the movement of the heart, also known as the ______________.
Cardiac cycle
92
What is diastole? Describe its events.
Ventricular relaxation elongation, and filling. 1. Begins with closure of the semilunar valves (DUB) 2. Atrial depolarization (p-wave) and contraction 3. Ends with closure of AV valves.
93
What is systole? Describe its events.
Ventricular contraction, shortening, and emptying. 1. Begins with closure of AV valves (LUB) 2. Ventricular depolarization (QRS complex) and contraction 3. Opening of semilunar valves 4. Ventricular depolarization (T wave) 5. Ends with closure of semilunar valves
94
What artery/ies supply blood to the heart?
Right coronary artery = right side Left coronary artery = left side
95
What is coronary artery disease?
Abnormal condition that may affect the heart’s arteries and produce various pathological effects; reduces flow of oxygen and nutrients to the myocardium Most common is atherosclerosis
96
What is coronary artery bypass graft (CABG)?
“Open heart surgery”; grafting of the coronary artery usually itch a blood vessel from another area of the body to bypass a blockage
97
What is anastomoses?
Connections between multiple branches of an artery; provides detours for blood flow in case usual pathway is obstructed by compression, joint position, pathology, or surgical ligation
98
When does collateral circulation occur? What is it?
When there is an occlusion; ensures blood supply to structures distal to the blockage
99
What kinds of organs to functional terminal arteries supply? What makes them special?
Supply segments of brain, kidney, liver, spleen, intestines They aren’t TRUE terminal arteries because they DO anastomose
100
What is the difference between arteriosclerosis and atherosclerosis? How are they similar?
Arteriosclerosis: hardening of arteries Atherosclerosis: build up of atheromatous plaque (fat) in arteries They both can result in thrombosis (clot), leading to ischemia (decrease in blood supply), then infarction (local organ death) and potentially gangrene (necrosis of a limb)
101
What are varicose veins and how do they happen?
Vein walls lose elasticity OR deep fascia become incompetent in sustaining musculovenous pump. As such, veins become weak and dilate under pressure of supporting column of blood against gravity
102
What are four roles muscles play in the body?
Agonist, antagonist, fixator, synergist
103
What is the PRIMARY role of muscles in the performance of everyday activities?
Agonist

Human Anatomy (15 decks)

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