Exam 1 Flashcards

(96 cards)

1
Q

What is the basic structural unit of a muscle?

A

Muscle Fiber (Cell)

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2
Q

Which connective tissue structure surrounds an individual muscle fiber?

A

Endomysium

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3
Q

Muscle fibers are grouped into bundles known as ___.

A

Fasciculi

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4
Q

Which structure surrounds a fasciculi: endomysium, perimysium, or epimysium?

A

Perimysium

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5
Q

Which connective tissue structure continues as the tendon of a muscle?

A

Epimysium

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6
Q

T/F: Skeletal muscle fibers are multinucleated.

A

True

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7
Q

Which of the following is an increase in the size of a muscle: hypotrophy, hypertrophy, hypoplasia, hyperplasia?

A

Hypertrophy

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8
Q

Which fiber type is associated with endurance activities and aerobic metabolism?

A

Type 1

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9
Q

Which fiber type has more capillary beds and more mitochondria?

A

Type 1

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10
Q

Type II muscle fibers use ____ metabolism.

A

anaerobic

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11
Q

Type __ are considered “fast twitch” muscles.

A

Type II

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12
Q

What is the name of the muscle cell membrane?

A

Sarcolemma

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13
Q

What is the function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

A

Store and transport calcium ions

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14
Q

What protein pigment gives color to muscle and stores the oxygen needed for the muscle?

A

Myoglobin

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15
Q

What is the smallest functional unit of the myofibril?

A

Sarcomere (Z-line to Z-line)

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16
Q

What is the thin, dark line down the center of each H-band: I-band, A-band, M-band, or Z-line?

A

M-band (M=middle)

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17
Q

Actin is found mainly in the _-bands and myosin is found mainly in the _-bands.

A

Actin=I-band

Myosin=A-band

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18
Q

What are the 2 regulatory proteins inhibit the interaction of actin and myosin?

A

Troponin & Tropomyosin

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19
Q

Calcium binds with which regulatory molecule?

A

Troponin

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20
Q

Where does the aerobic pathway take place?

A

Mitochondria

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21
Q

Which pathway prefers to utilize creatine phosphate and glycogen?

A

Anaerobic pathway

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22
Q

What two benefits may the use of caffeine provide for athletes?

A

Burn fatty acids more efficiently (aerobic pathway)

Increase calcium permeability

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23
Q

Which type of anabolic steroid has fewer side effects but is detectable for a longer period of time?

A

Oil-based

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24
Q

What are some short term side effects of anabolic steroid use?

A
Headaches, dizziness, nausea,
back-acne
testicular atrophy
increased aggressiveness
gynecomastia
tendon damage
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25
What is the chemical composition of muscle?
75% water 20% protein 5% other
26
A single motor neuron and the group of muscle fibers which it supplies is known as the ___ __.
Motor unit
27
T/F: Precision type of activities contain motor units with fewer number of fibers.
True
28
Which neurotransmitter is released at the neuromuscular junction?
Acetylcholine (ACH)
29
Which enzyme recycles acetylcholine from the synaptic cleft?
Acetylcholinesterase (ACHe)
30
Which autoimmune disease destroys ACH receptor sites?
Myasthenia Gravis
31
T/F: Nicotine & snake venom both compete with ACH molecules and produce an action potential.
False: Nicotene can produce an action potential but snake venom cannot!
32
What do organophosphates inactivate leading to constant muscle contraction?
Acetylcholinesterase
33
T/F: Intrafusal muscle fibers have both afferent & efferent nerve fibers.
True
34
Extrafusal muscle fibers only have afferent or efferent nerves associated with them?
ONLY efferent
35
What do Golgi tendon organs detect?
Stretch of the tendon
36
What are Sharpey's fibers?
Portions of collagen fibers of a tendon or ligament that penetrate into the bone giving a firm attachment site
37
What is an avulsion fracture?
When a fragment of bone is pulled out with the collagen fibers
38
Tendons have only ___ innervation.
Afferent; there is no motor function to tendons
39
Endurance muscles usually have which type of muscle fiber arrangement?
Pennate
40
Type II muscles generally are arranged in which fashion: pennate or parallel?
Parallel (aka Strap)
41
A muscle that produces the opposite effect from the agonist is known as the ___.
Antagonist
42
What is reciprocal innervation?
When a muscle contracts and the antagonist simultaneously relaxes
43
____ Phenomenon occurs in a newborn when both agonists and antagonists contract at the same time.
Co-Reflex Phenomenon
44
What 2 bones make up the shoulder girdle?
Scapula & Clavicle
45
What are the 3 unique facts about the clavicle?
1. Undergoes both intramembranous and endochondral ossification. 2. First bone to start ossifying (5th-6th wk of development) 3. One of last to complete ossification (about 25 y.o.)
46
Where is the clavicle most frequently fractured?
First curvature
47
Which condition has abnormal ossification of the clavicle and skull bones, potentially even missing clavicles?
Cleidocranial dysostosis
48
How many ossification centers does the scapula have?
7; 1 primary and 6 secondary
49
__ ___ is when the acromion process fails to fuse with the rest of the bone.
Os Acromidae
50
What is Sprengel's Deformity?
Undescended scapula due to it's attachment to cervical vertebra.
51
The mammary glands are superficial to which muscles?
Pectoralis major | Serratus Anterior
52
What is the space where a small drop of milk can accumulate near the end of the lactiferous duct?
Lactiferous sinus
53
How many lobes are in each mammary gland?
15-20 lobes
54
__ & __ are hormones secreted by the ovaries and placenta.
Estrogen & Progesterone
55
Where is prolactin secreted from and what is it's action?
Anterior pituitary; promotes milk production after birth
56
Where is oxytocin secreted from and what is it's action?
Posterior pituitary; promotes the release of milk
57
What are the 1st secretions from the functional mammary gland?
Colostrum
58
Which contains the most immunoglobulins: colostrum, transitional milk, or mature milk?
Colostrum
59
When are inverted nipples concerning?
If it's recent; could be indicative of carcinoma pulling on the ducts.
60
What is galactorrhea?
Secretions from the breast that is not associated w/ pregnancy or lactation
61
What is gynecomastia?
Enlargement and development of breast tissue in males; common in puberty
62
How many ossification centers does the humerus have?
8; 1 primary & 7 secondary
63
A humeral fracture at the surgical neck could injure which nerve?
Axillary nerve
64
A humeral fracture of the shaft could injure which nerve?
Radial nerve
65
What is the nerve supply to the pectoralis major?
Medial & Lateral Pectoral nerves
66
What muscles are absent in Poland's Syndrome?
Pectoralis Major, Pectoralis Minor | also atrophy of mammary glands on that side, and absence of ribs
67
Where does the pectoralis minor insert?
Coracoid process of the scapula
68
T/F: Pectoralis major and minor have the same innervation.
False: Pec. major is Medial & Lateral Pectoral nerves | Pec. minor is MEDIAL Pectoral only!
69
Which roots help supply the subclavius muscle?
C5, C6
70
What is the anterior wall of the axilla formed by?
Pectoralis major
71
T/F: The posterior wall of the axilla is formed by the latissimus dorsi and the teres minor.
False...latissimus dorsi and teres MAJOR
72
The lower trunk of the brachial plexus is formed by the union of __ and __.
C8 & T1
73
Which roots help to make up the lateral cord?
C5, C6, C7
74
The cords of the brachial plexus are named to show their relationship to what?
The axillary artery
75
Which two nerves come directly off spinal nerves?
Dorsal Scapular, | Long Thoracic
76
What 3 muscles are supplied by the dorsal scapular nerve?
Rhomboid Major & Minor, Levator Scapulae
77
What is the serratus anterior supplied by?
Long Thoracic Nerve (C5, C6, C7)
78
Which nerve passes through the belly of the coracobrachialis muscle?
Musculocutaneous Nerve
79
Which nerve may give off the accessory phrenic nerve?
Nerve to Subclavius (C5, C6)
80
Which nerve continues into the forearm as the lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve?
Musculocutaneous Nerve
81
What is the segmental innervation of the medial brachial cutaneous nerve?
T1 only
82
What is the only branch of the brachial plexus which is formed from more than one cord?
Median Nerve
83
Which nerve would supply the cutaneous region over the thumb?
Median Nerve
84
What is the motor supply from the upper subscapular nerve?
Subscapularis
85
The triceps brachii are supplied by which nerve?
Radial Nerve
86
The lateral side of the arm is which dermatome level?
C5
87
The skin of the palm is in which dermatome level?
C7
88
Which roots would contribute in a prefixed brachial plexus?
C4, C5, C6, C7, C8
89
T/F: Erb-Duchenne Palsy results from an injury to the upper roots of the brachial plexus.
True
90
How would an individual w/ Erb-Duchenne Palsy present?
Greatly disabled shoulder movements Reasonably functional hand & digit movement Loss of sensation on lateral aspect of arm & forearm
91
What is an injury to the lower roots of the brachial plexus called?
Klumpke's Palsy
92
Which is more common: Erb-Duchenne or Klumpke?
Erb-Duchenne
93
What is Thoracic Outlet Syndrome?
Compression of cords of brachial plexus and axillary artery (both neurological and vascular problems) - pain & paresthesia - decr. skin temp and limb fatigue
94
What does the axillary artery continue as?
Brachial artery
95
What are the 6 specific branches of the axillary artery?
1. Superior Thoracic 2. Thoracoacromial 3. Lateral Thoracic 4. Subscapular 5 & 6. Anterior and Posterior Humeral Circumflex
96
Which of the following is not a branch of the thoracoacromial artery: acromial, scapular, pectoral, clavicular, or deltoid?
Scapular