Exam 1 Flashcards
(134 cards)
1
Q
The adductor muscles are innervated by the?
A
obturator nerve
2
Q
What innervates the posterior aspect of the leg (except: short head of biceps femoris)?
A
tibial nerve
3
Q
What divides into medial and lateral plantar nerves which innervates the plantar aspect of the foot (sole)?
A
tibial nerve
4
Q
What innervates the anterior lower leg and the dorsum of the foot?
A
deep peroneal nerve
5
Q
What innervates the lateral aspect of the lower leg (peroneus muscle/tibialis muscle)?
A
superficial peroneal nerve (Fibular nerve)
6
Q
What innervates the muscle of the anterior aspect of the thigh?
A
femoral nerve
7
Q
What innervates the adductor muscles of the leg?
A
obturator nerve
8
Q
Pectinous is innervated by what?
A
femoral and obturator nerves
9
Q
Adductor Magnus is innervated by what?
A
Tibial and obturator nerves
10
Q
Gluteus Maximus’ function?
A
chief extensor of the hip joint
11
Q
Iliopsoas muscle’s function?
A
chief flexor of the hip joint.
12
Q
How much of the vertebral column is the vertebral disc?
A
20% to25%
13
Q
Thoracic and sacral are what?
A
Kyphotic
14
Q
Cervical (3 months) and Lumbar (9-10 months) are what?
A
Lordotic
15
Q
There are how many cervical spinal segments?
A
8
16
Q
How many cervical vertebra?
A
7
17
Q
There are not a vertebral discs between occipital bone - C1, and C1 - C2, what is?
A
hyaline cartilage.
18
Q
Cervical vertebrae has what?
A
Transverse foramen (only present on cervical vertebrae).
Bifid spinous process.
Larger vertebral foramen.
Smaller bodies.
19
Q
Thoracic vertebrae have what?
A
Long spinous process with a posteroinferior slope.
Costal facet is a prominent distinction of the body.
20
Q
Lumbar vertebrae have what?
A
Large, kidney shape bodies.
Small vertebral foramen.
Short spinous processes.
21
Q
spinal cord terminates in a tip called?
A
Conus Medullaris
22
Q
Cauda Equina in babys?
A
L3
23
Q
Cauda Equina in adults
A
L1
24
Q
Dura mater ends?
A
S2
25
Formed after the spinal cord ends?
Lumbar cistern / dural sac
26
What is the condensation of the pia mater and the end of the spinal cord?
Filum terminate
27
Iliac Crests are level with?
L4
28
The head of the femur is oriented?
medially
29
Semitendinosus &Semimembranosus:
| Origin?
Ischial tuberosity.
30
Semitendinosus & Semimembranosus:
| Insertion?
Medial to the Tibial Tuberosity in the Pes Anserinus.
31
Semitendinosus & Semimembranosus:
| Innervation?
Tibial Nerve.
32
Semitendinosus & Semimembranosus:
| Action?
Knee flexion and internal rotation / Hip extensor.
33
Biceps Femoris:
| Origin:
* Short head: Lateral lip of the linea aspera.
| * Long head: Ischial tuberosity.
34
Biceps Femoris:
| Insertion:
Head of the Fibula (Both heads).
35
Biceps Femoris:
| Innervation:
Short Head: Common Peroneal / Fibular Nerve.
| Long Head: Tibial Nerve.
36
Biceps Femoris:
| Action:
Short Head: Knee flexion and internal rotation.
| Long Head: Hip extension / Knee flexion and internal rotation.
37
The is the largest nerve in the body?
The sciatic nerve
38
Sciatic nerve turns into?
tibial and common peroneal nerve
39
Intermembranous
directly from mesenchyme, not from cartilage
40
Endochondrial
from cartilage (Mainly Hyaline).
41
Vertebral canal has what?
Spinal Cord, Meninges, CSF, Correlated vessels.
42
Intervertebral Foramen has what?
Nerve Roots, Dorsal Root Ganglion, Blood Vessels.
43
Transverse Foramen has what?
Vertebral Artery (C6 to Atlas)
44
Greater Sciatic Foramen has what?
Suprapiriformis hiatus, Superior gluteal vessels (Artery and Vein), Superior gluteal nerve.
45
Infrapiriformis hiatus:
Inferior gluteal vessels (Artery and Vein), Inferior gluteal nerve, Internal pudendal Artery and Vein, Pudendal nerve, Sciatic nerve, Posterior femoral cutaneous nerve.
46
Lesser Sciatic Foramen:
Internal pudendal artery and vein, Pudendal nerve, Obturator internus with tendon.
47
Obturator Foramen:
Obturator membrane (covers it), Obturator nerve and vessels.
Acetabular notch → (Obturator Canal)
Acetabular branch of the obturator artery pass through the teres ligament to supply the femur with blood.
48
Femoral ring:
```
(Femoral Sheath):
Femoral artery and vein.
Genitofemoral nerve (femoral branch).
Lymph nodes.
Femoral nerve.
```
49
Adductor hiatus:
Popliteal artery and vein (previously the femoral artery and vein).
50
Popliteal Fossa:
Popliteal artery and vein, Tibial nerve, Common peroneal nerve (seen laterally / superficial), Popliteal lymph nodes, Genicular Arteries and veins (branches from popliteal artery and vein).
51
MRI shows white?
soft tissue
52
CT scans and X-rays shows white?
bones
53
CSF is removed from subarachnoid space by puncturing at the level of L3-L4 or L4-L5 (adults; L4-L5 in kids always) in order to enter the lumbar cistern?
lumbar puncture
54
CSF is cloudy with decreased glucose and increased protein, it may indicates?
bacterial meningitis
55
Cervical Rib shows triad of disorders like?
- Ischemic muscle pain—due to compression of subclavian artery.
- Pain in ulnar side of forearm and hand.
- Palpable mass over the clavicle.
- May or may not have an additional rib (May or may not be symptomatic).
56
Can't lift arm above 90 degree?
Damage to dorsal scapular nerve (rhomboideus major/minor)
57
Can lift arm above 90 degrees?
Damage to long thoracic nerve (serratus anterior).
58
What often happens from radical mastectomy?
Damage to long thoracic nerve, can lift arm about 90
59
No pulse in Dorsalis pedis artery can indicate?
burger's disease or diabetes mellitus
60
Synovial fluid can be removed from the _____ joint for diagnostic purposes?
bursa of knee
61
______ conjugate can help determine whether not the delivery will be difficult?
Diagonal
62
Caudal epidural anesthesia through the where?
Sacral haitus
63
Where does caudal epidural for childbirth anesthetized up to?
S2
64
______same as lumbar puncture except that sometimes is put in (drugs), instead of taken out (CSF)?
Spinal Block
65
IM injections in gluteus maximus are placed in the _____ quadrant?
lateral superior
66
Bone marrow can be taken from the_____ of the Inonimate bone?
iliac crest
67
_______ can be used as a graft for nerve damage?
Sural nerve
68
______ can be used as a graft for coronary bypass surgery?
Greater saphenous vein
69
_______ can be used as a graft for tendon reconstrctions?
Plantaris muscle and tendon
70
Ricket's disease is caused by _______ deficiency in children and disturbs the angle of the head of the femur. It is called osteomalasia in adults?
vitamin D and calcium
71
________ (vertebral) is when tilting head back, compression of vertebral (basilar) artery leads to fainting.
Basilar syndrome
72
_________ (failure of fusion of neural crest / vertebral arches) is caused by folic acid deficiency?
Spina Bifida
73
Herniated Disc (nucleus pulposus moves into the vertebral foramen or intervertebral foramen) normally occurs _________ and pinches spinal cord or nerves; this occurs because the intervertebral disc is weaker posteriorly and the posterior longitudinal ligament is thin.
posteriolateral
74
_________ of the vertebra causes uncovertebral joints to form tears/herniation in the disc
Osteoarthritis
75
_______ is connected to the cervical vertebrae.
Cervical rib
76
________ is connected to the lumbar vertebrae.
Lumbar rib
77
________ (loss of bone density due to calcium deficiency) can cause hip fracture in elderly people
Osteoporosis
78
________ (periotitis and sometimes avulsion of tibial tuberosity) is caused by overextension of the Knee-quadriceps femoris
Osgood schlatter disease
79
A fibular fracture can damage the common peroneal nerve which causes foot drop/no dorsiflexion?
```
common peroneal nerve
deep peroneal nerve
anterior muscle of the lower leg
and no eversion of foot?
(superficial peroneal nerve—peroneus longus and brevis)
```
80
Positive waddle gait/positive trendelenberg is caused by the damage to the ______.
superior gluteal nerve (gluteus medius and gluteus minumus, which keep pelvis level)
81
________ of the hip is common in newborns (especially females) and can be fixed with a splint/harness
Congenital dislocation
82
Mid-shaft fractures to the tibia/fibula are common in ______
skiers (skier's fracture)
83
_________ injuries causes a weakened flexion at the hip and extension of the leg (becauses quadriceps femoris and Sartorius).
Femoral nerve
84
_________ injuries causes weakened adduction of the leg
Obturator nerve
85
________ (rhomboid and serratus muscles) causes the muscles to buldge out resulting in a condition called Winged Scapula.
Dorsal scapular nerve injuries
86
Sciatic nerve injuries (complete)?
it causes loss of flexion of the leg because the hip is impared, and foot/ankle movements are lost
87
Injuries to the medial aspect of the gluteus maximus can cause damage to?
the branches of the tibial nerve that innervates the hamstrings
88
Tibial nerve injuries causes?
paralysis of the flexors of the leg and intrinsic muscles of the foot (loss of plantar flexion and toe flexion).
89
Greater sciatic foramen contains?
Sciatic nerve, piriformis muscle
90
Lesser Sciatic foramen contains?
Pudental nerve, int. pudendal artery, int. pudendal artery, nerve to the obturator internus
91
Flexion of halus longs requires?
Deep perineal nerve
92
extension is what part of foot?
Dorsal
93
CT is?
3D X ray
94
Functional MRI measures?
blood oxygen in specific areas of the brain
95
Diffusion-weighted MRI (DWI)?
thermally driven translational movement of water and small molecules within tissues
96
Perfusion-weighted MRI (PWI)?
the arrival of an injected contrast medium
97
PET?
assess functional blood flow to tissues
98
Color-coded duplex (CCD)?
uses color-coding to superimpose flow velocities
99
Cleidocranial dysostosis/dysplasia (CCD)?
rare autosomal inherited disorder, RUNX2(CBFA1) is the only gene associated with CCD
100
Pagets disease?
disorder that involves abnormal bone destruction and regrowth, which results in deformit
101
Achondroplasia?
disorder of bone growth that causes the most common type of dwarfism
102
Osteophyte?
as bone spurs or parrot beak
103
Contents of sub-occipital triangle?
vertebral artery, suboccipital nerve (dorsal rami of C1), suboccipital plexus of veins
104
Longest Diameter?
Transverse
105
True conjugate?
diagonal -1.5
106
Diagonal?
determines birth route
107
Straight conjugate?
9.5-10
108
dorsi flexion?
deep perineal
109
Lumbar Plexus?
T12-L4, femoral and obbutator nerve
110
Sacral Plexus?
L4-S3, posterior lower leg
111
Adductor magnus innervation?
Obturator and Tibial nerve
112
Plantar Flexion?
Tibial nerve, and plantar nerve
113
The skin of the anterior leg region is innervated by the?
Saphenous nerve medially and by the aural nerve laterally
114
Patients with obturator nerve injury have possible numbness and pain radiating to their inner thigh. Adduction thigh weakness can occur
obturator nerve injury
115
Weakness of the knee or leg
femoral nerve injury
116
Last rib connected to?
T12
117
Osteoblast (bone cells)
| Osteoblast becomes?
Osteocyte
118
Ligamenta flava-
yellow in color
119
Day 18 of embryonic life
notochord gives signal to ectorderm to form neopore
120
Cranial neupord-24 day
if not babe born with no head (top part)
121
Caudal neupord-26 day
if not baby is born with spina bifida occulta (vertebral arches do not come together) folic acid deficiency in mother might be linked to this birth defect
122
L3-L4=
L4 nerve pinched
123
C1-C2=
C1
124
T8-T9=
T9
125
Breech position?
not by head, by but
126
Locking the knee?
5-10% medial rotation
127
Tensor fascia lata inn.
superior gluteal nerve (L4-L5).
128
Tensor fascia lata function
Abduction, medial rotation and flexion
| of the thigh, protects the knee joint.
129
they are strongest pronator of the foot.
Peroneus brevis
130
pectineus is the only adductor muscle that is innervated by the ________.
femoral nerve
131
Retina oppathy-
| Nerphorpety-
diatbetes, eye, kidney
132
Psoas innveration
lumbar plexus (L1-L3)
133
Iliacus innveration
femoral nerve (L2-L4)
134
Foot drop** anterior leg innervated by
deep peroneal Nerve
