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5032 - OB/Peds > Exam 1 - Summary Set > Flashcards

Exam 1 - Summary Set Flashcards

1
Q

PID is caused by _____

A

untreated STIs and other infections

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2
Q

PID is transmitted by ____

A

sexual contact

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3
Q

dysuria, pelvic pain, and fever are s/s of what STI?

A

PID

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4
Q

how do you diagnose PID?

A

pelvic exam, ultrasound, labs

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5
Q

what are considerations for PID and pregnancy?

A

can cause infertility

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6
Q

syphilis is caused by ____

A

treponema pallidum

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7
Q

we do not give ____ antibiotic to pregnant people

A

doxycycline

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8
Q

syphilis is diagnosed with ___

A

blood tests

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9
Q

congenital syphilis can show s/s of ___, ___, and ___

A

skin rashes, irritability, and bone abnormalities

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10
Q

long-term result of congenital syphilis is

A

vision and hearing problems

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11
Q

suppressive therapy for HSV is recommended ____ to prevent risk of transmission

A

34-36 weeks

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12
Q

GBS is diagnosed with ____

A

cultures

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13
Q

nurses should screen for GBS at ___ weeks

A

35-37

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14
Q

___ can cause fever in newborns

A

GBS

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15
Q

greenish-yellow discharge and pelvic pain are characteristic of which STI?

A

gonorrhea

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16
Q

urinary frequency, spotting, and vulvar itching are characteristic of which STI?

A

chlamydia

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17
Q

___ are the cause of the majority of spontaneous abortions.

A

chromosomal abnormalities

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18
Q

what should you never do with a pt with placenta previa?

A

vaginal exam

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19
Q

multigravida, cocaine use, and HTN are risks for what?

A

placental abruption

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20
Q

35 yo patient, previous c-section or uterine surgery, smoking or cocaine use are risks for what?

A

placenta previa

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21
Q

treatment for placenta previa includes

A

pelvic rest; c-section around 36 weeks

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22
Q

____ is used to stop pregnancy in ectopic pregnancy (drug)

A

methotrexate

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23
Q

pt with a headache and BP > 160/110 indicates ____

A

preeclampsia with severe features

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24
Q

preeclampsia can lead to ___, ___, and ___ for mom.

A

seizure, stroke, and pulmonary edema (others too)

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25
gonorrhea and chlamydia can lead to _____ in neonates
neonatal conjunctivitis; swelling and pus in the eye
26
blood test may stay positive even after treatment of ____
syphilis
27
HPV is diagnosed through ___ and ___
pap smear; HPV DNA test
28
what is recommended at 34-36 weeks for HSV and why?
suppressive therapy to prevent risk of transmission
29
Hep B is diagnosed with ____
blood tests
30
nurses should screen for GBS at ____
35-37 weeks
31
GBS can cause ___ and ___ in neonates
neonatal infection; respiratory distress
32
HSV is diagnosed with ___ and ____
viral culture; PCR
33
when is Rhogam given to Rh- mothers?
28 weeks, 72 hours after birth if baby is (+), abdominal trauma
34
two s/s of preeclampsia with severe features
BP >160/90; headache and vision changes
35
kidney disease, DM, and lupus all put pts at HIGH risk for ____
preeclampsia
36
IVF, being 35+, and being black all put pts at MODERATE risk for ____
preeclampsia
37
preeclampsia occurs in ____% of preeclampsia pregnancies.
25
38
name two possible causes of HTN disorders in pregnancy
(1) placental insufficiency, (2) maternal immune / inflammation response
39
labetalol can cause ____ to the fetus
decreased FHR variability
40
____ is the maintenance antihypertensive
ca channel blocker - nifedipine
41
____ is the rescue med for HTN disorders
vasodilator - hydralazine
42
____ and ____ are pre-pregnancy risks of developing anti-D antibodies
blood transfusions; h/o needle sticks or shared needles
43
risks of developing anti-D antibodies during pregnancy are ___, ___, ___, and ____
placental abruption, abdominal trauma, abortion, and antepartum bleeding
44
the major complication for the baby of Rh incompatibility is ___
hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDoN)
45
cardiac failure and fluid buildup for the baby is ___
hydrops fetalis
46
HDoN can lead to kernicterus due to _____
non-physiologic jaundice
47
_____ is a major risk of non-physiologic jaundice
kernicterus
48
how long after unprotected intercourse can Plan B be taken to effectively prevent pregnancy?
72 hours
49
____ is an ultrasound that looks at different components of a baby, including muscle tone, fluids, and movement
BPP
50
external fetal monitoring is called ____
non-stress test
51
which fetal monitoring test do we want 8/8?
BPP
52
___, ___, and ____ increase resistance to insulin in later pregnancy
estrogen, progesterone, and hPL
53
complications of GDM for the pregnant person are ____ & ____
higher risk of preeclampsia and higher risk of c-section
54
when does the pregnant person need the most insulin?
3rd trimester
55
normal Hb is __-__
13-16
56
which Ig immune response can cross the placenta?
IgG
57
estrogen causes ____ during pregnancy (general term)
hyperemia
58
during pregnancy heart rate will ____
increase
59
blood volume increases by ___ in pregnancy
45%
60
elevated diaphragm decreases total lung capacity by ___
5%
61
what happens to respiratory rate during pregnancy?
unchanged
62
there is slight ___ during pregnancy, which ____ PaCO2
hyperventilation; decreases
63
____ raises sensitivity of respiratory center to carbon dioxide during pregnancy
progesterone
64
____ decreases airway resistance during pregnancy
progesterone
65
____ is linked to epistaxis during pregnancy
estrogen
66
____ makes the ureters elongated and distensible during pregnancy
progesterone
67
relaxation of pelvic joints and instability is caused by ____
relaxin
68
increased uterine size leads to ____
lordosis
69
____ decreases maternal metabolism of glucose
hPL
70
which hormone acts as a growth hormone during pregnancy?
hPL
71
___ maintains corpus luteum production of estrogen and progesterone until placenta takes over
human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
72
omega 3 fatty acids support ___
fetal brain development
73
safer fish options include ___ and ___
salmon, shrimp
74
max of ____ mg/day of caffeine to prevent infertility or growth issues
200-300
75
lunch/deli meat, hot dogs, and soft cheeses all increase risk for ____
Listeria
76
you can use ____ if the pregnancy is from assisted reproductive technology
ART-derived gestational age
77
very preterm is a baby born ___
before 32 weeks
78
moderately preterm is a baby born ___
between 32-34 weeks
79
late preterm is a baby born ___
between 34-36 weeks
80
early term is a baby born ___
37-39 weeks
81
full term is a baby born ___
39-41 weeks
82
late term is a baby born ___
41-41 and 6
83
post-term babies are born ___
after 42 weeks gestation
84
monitor ___ and ___ with use of labetalol
BP and HR
85
monitor for ____ when using nifedipine
hypotension in mom and baby
86
use ____ cautiously in patients with heart disease
hydralazine
87
contraindications of Mg Sulfate are ___ and ___
myocardial damage, impaired renal function
88
name 3 maternal complications of HTN disorders
seizures, stroke, placental abruption
89
name 3 fetal complications of HTN disorders
premature birth, intrauterine fetal demise, intrauterine growth restriction
90
if blood glucose is > ____, then you fail the glucose challenge test
130-140
91
daily intake of carbs prior to OGTT must exceed ___
150 g
92
no eating for ____ hours prior to OGTT
8-14 hrs beforehand
93
uterine irritability is a sign of
placental abruption
94
manage mild placenta previa with ___
pelvic rest
95
manage mild placental abruption with ____
bedrest, tocolytics, and Rhogam
96
____ prevent uterine contractions
tocolytics
97
ACHES stands for...
Abdominal pain Chest pain Headaches Eyesight changes Severe leg pain
98
renal blood flow increases during ___ and decreases during ____
T2; T3

5032 - OB/Peds (30 decks)

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