Exam 16 Flashcards
Which officer reviews the proby notebook on a monthly basis?
A: Lieutenant
B: Company Commander (captain)
C: Battalion Chief
D: Deputy Chief
Which officer reviews the proby notebook on a monthly basis?
A: Lieutenant
B:✔Company Commander (captain)
C: Battalion Chief
D: Deputy Chief
Explanation:
Proby- Review weekly. Initial and date in blue or black ink
Officer on Duty- Review each tour the member works. Initial and date in red ink
Company Commander- Review monthly. Initial and date in red ink
Chief Officers- Review during company drill visits. Initial and date in red ink
AUC 323 add 2 sec 2.1
When stretching a foam handline, what is the maximum number of 2 ½ inch lengths that may be used off the eductor?
A: 6
B: 8
C: 10
D: 12
When stretching a foam handline, what is the maximum number of 2 ½ inch lengths that may be used off the eductor?
A: 6
B: 8
C:✔10
D: 12
Explanation:
NOTE: 1 ¾ INCH IS A MAXIMUM OF 6 LENGTHS
TB Foam Addendum 3 2.1
Of the following hydrant connections, which provides the largest water flow?
A: 10-foot soft suction
B: 10-foot semi-rigid suction
C: 35-foot soft connection
D: 3 ½” hose
Of the following hydrant connections, which provides the largest water flow?
A: 10-foot soft suction
B: 10-foot semi-rigid suction
C:✔35-foot soft connection
D: 3 ½” hose
Explanation:
10-foot soft suction – can be bent but will straighten when charged with water and is very difficult to kink. At 10 feet long, it is the shortest hydrant connection and requires accurate positioning close to the hydrant.
10-foot semi-rigid suction – can be bent and will straighten when charged.
35-foot soft connection – 35 feet long. It provides the largest flow of any hydrant connection, but has the potential to kink, so it needs to be properly flaked out.
3 ½” hose – no limit on the number of lengths that can be used. Allows for the greatest flexibility, but provides the least water flow.
Eng Ch 5 3.2
Members of Engine 256 and Ladder 171 were discussing the modified response program when a BARS ALARM response was received. Which company(s) were CORRECT in their response to the alarm?
A: Only the first due engine responded in emergency mode.
B: Only the first due engine and ladder responded in emergency mode.
C: All units responded in emergency mode
D: None of the units responded in emergency mode.
Members of Engine 256 and Ladder 171 were discussing the modified response program when a BARS ALARM response was received. Which company(s) were CORRECT in their response to the alarm?
A:✔Only the first due engine responded in emergency mode.
B: Only the first due engine and ladder responded in emergency mode.
C: All units responded in emergency mode
D: None of the units responded in emergency mode.
Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 6 – ADDENDUM 1
A IS CORRECT – For a BARS alarm response, only the first due engine responds in emergency mode. 2.2
When it comes to Major Aircraft incidents at Kennedy and LaGuardia Airports, the correct statement can be found in which choice?
A: The FDNY has the prime responsibility for aircraft incidents on airport property
B: FDNY personnel must not enter the Tarmac without a Port Authority escort unless there is a life threating emergency
C: When supplying a Port Authority Crash Truck with water, engine chauffeurs should not exceed 100 psi at the intakes of the Crash Truck
D: Ensuring an adequate delivery of water is the primary function of the FDNY
When it comes to Major Aircraft incidents at Kennedy and LaGuardia Airports, the correct statement can be found in which choice?
A: The FDNY has the prime responsibility for aircraft incidents on airport property
B: FDNY personnel must not enter the Tarmac without a Port Authority escort unless there is a life threating emergency
C: When supplying a Port Authority Crash Truck with water, engine chauffeurs should not exceed 100 psi at the intakes of the Crash Truck
D:✔Ensuring an adequate delivery of water is the primary function of the FDNY
Explanation:
AUC 325
A- The Port Authority has the prime responsibility for aircraft incidents on airport property
The FDNY has the prime responsibility for structural incidents on airport property ….Introduction
B- Under NO circumstances are the Fire Department Units to enter the Aeronautical area (Tarmac) without a Port Authority escort…sec 3.10.2.note
C- should not exceed 80 psi….sec 4.1.2
D- sec 4.1.1
Units respond to a reported odor of gas at the peck vent at a multiple dwelling. The Lieutenant quickly discusses the features of a peck vent with his members when they dismount the rig. Which choice accurately describes the peck vent?
A: There should normally be an odor of natural gas at a peck vent; it may have a blue cap.
B: There should normally be no odor of natural gas at a peck vent; it may have a blue cap.
C: There should normally be an odor of natural gas at a peck vent; it may have a red cap.
D: There should normally be no odor of natural gas at a peck vent; it may have a red cap.
Units respond to a reported odor of gas at the peck vent at a multiple dwelling. The Lieutenant quickly discusses the features of a peck vent with his members when they dismount the rig. Which choice accurately describes the peck vent?
A: There should normally be an odor of natural gas at a peck vent; it may have a blue cap.
B: There should normally be no odor of natural gas at a peck vent; it may have a blue cap.
C: There should normally be an odor of natural gas at a peck vent; it may have a red cap.
D:✔There should normally be no odor of natural gas at a peck vent; it may have a red cap.
Explanation:
Natural Gas 4.4.2
When placing the aerial ladder to the roof of a building, extend the ladder so that the tip is?
A: At least 5 feet above the point where the ladder comes in contact with the building.
B: At least 2 feet above the point where the ladder comes in contact with the building.
C: At least 5 feet above the roof or parapet.
D: At least 2 feet above the roof or parapet.
When placing the aerial ladder to the roof of a building, extend the ladder so that the tip is?
A:✔At least 5 feet above the point where the ladder comes in contact with the building.
B: At least 2 feet above the point where the ladder comes in contact with the building.
C: At least 5 feet above the roof or parapet.
D: At least 2 feet above the roof or parapet.
Explanation:
Lad 2 7.13
Which of the following is CORRECT regarding UTAC channels?
A: The primary channel to be used with cooperating agencies in the NY region is Zone B, Channel 9, UTAC 42D.
B: The secondary IO channel to be used when there are multiple operations in progress and the primary channel is unavailable is 43D.
C: UTAC repeater channels are only intended for interior operations. Direct channels are required for outside communications.
D: When transmitting on a repeater channel, members must press and hold the push to talk button for 1 second before beginning to speak to allow the repeater to activate and not cut off the beginning of the message.
Which of the following is CORRECT regarding UTAC channels?
A:✔The primary channel to be used with cooperating agencies in the NY region is Zone B, Channel 9, UTAC 42D.
B: The secondary IO channel to be used when there are multiple operations in progress and the primary channel is unavailable is 43D.
C: UTAC repeater channels are only intended for interior operations. Direct channels are required for outside communications.
D: When transmitting on a repeater channel, members must press and hold the push to talk button for 1 second before beginning to speak to allow the repeater to activate and not cut off the beginning of the message.
Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 14 – ADDENDUM 4
A IS CORRECT – 1.1 & #2 CHART
B – The Secondary IO channel to be used is 41D 2.1.2
C – UTAC repeater channels are only intended for exterior operations and cannot be relied upon for interior operations. 2.2.1 A
D – Members must press and hold the push to talk button for 2 seconds. 2.2.1B
You are taking up from an incident involving a tree that fell onto a house injuring several people, when channel 4 news approaches you and requests an interview. Since no superior officer is on scene, you decide to give the interview and answer all of the questions except?
A: Type of incident
B: Number of patients or victims
C: The hospital to which the patients were being transported to
D: Type of injuries of the patients or victims
You are taking up from an incident involving a tree that fell onto a house injuring several people, when channel 4 news approaches you and requests an interview. Since no superior officer is on scene, you decide to give the interview and answer all of the questions except?
A: Type of incident
B: Number of patients or victims
C: The hospital to which the patients were being transported to
D:✔Type of injuries of the patients or victims
Explanation:
Members shall not discuss the condition of patients(s) or victim(s) the care provided or other confidential information
AUC 332 sec 3.4.3
What is the maximum internal pressure of the airbags when used for lifting purposes?
A: 200 psi
B: 135 psi
C: 118 psi
D: 22 psi
What is the maximum internal pressure of the airbags when used for lifting purposes?
A: 200 psi
B: 135 psi
C:✔118 psi
D: 22 psi
Explanation:
A. WHEN THE HIGH PRESSURE GAUGE FALLS BELOW 200 PSI, CHANGE THE AIR CYLINDER.
B. SET THE LOW PRESSURE GAUGE TO 135 PSI BY TURNING THE PRESSURE REGULATOR KNOB CLOCKWISE.
D. WHEN USED TO SEAL LEAKS, THE 22 PSI SAFETY RELIEF VALVE ON THE ORANGE HOSE IS DESIGNED TO LIMIT THE INTERNAL AIR PRESSURE IN THE BAG TO 22 PSI.
TB Tools 20: 3.1.4, 4.2, 7.2.4
Members may encounter dumbwaiter fires in the course of their duties, specifically in nonfireproof multiple dwellings. Which of the following choices is not in accordance with Department standard operating procedures?
A: All units must be immediately notified of a dumbwaiter fire. It is important that the top floor, cockloft and cellar are checked as soon as possible.
B: If fire is reported in the dumbwaiter shaft, the roof firefighter should vent the dumbwaiter bulkhead. If heavy smoke is venting out of a dumbwaiter bulkhead, the roof firefighter should inform his/her officer.
C: If after venting a dumbwaiter bulkhead, the roof firefighter does not see any appreciable volume of smoke venting, this is a positive indication there is no fire in the dumbwaiter shaft and a notification is not required.
D: If the dumbwaiter bulkhead has been previously removed and tarred over, the roof firefighter should notify his/her officer. This could result in rapid extension to the cockloft.
Members may encounter dumbwaiter fires in the course of their duties, specifically in nonfireproof multiple dwellings. Which of the following choices is not in accordance with Department standard operating procedures?
A: All units must be immediately notified of a dumbwaiter fire. It is important that the top floor, cockloft and cellar are checked as soon as possible.
B: If fire is reported in the dumbwaiter shaft, the roof firefighter should vent the dumbwaiter bulkhead. If heavy smoke is venting out of a dumbwaiter bulkhead, the roof firefighter should inform his/her officer.
C:✔If after venting a dumbwaiter bulkhead, the roof firefighter does not see any appreciable volume of smoke venting, this is a positive indication there is no fire in the dumbwaiter shaft and a notification is not required.
D: If the dumbwaiter bulkhead has been previously removed and tarred over, the roof firefighter should notify his/her officer. This could result in rapid extension to the cockloft.
Explanation:
C) If after venting a dumbwaiter bulkhead, the roof firefighter does not see any appreciable volume of smoke venting, the roof firefighter should NOTIFY HIS/HER OFFICER as this may indicate there is an OBSTRUCTION in the shaft below.
Notes: Members should not place any part of their body in the shaft. In most cases these shafts are not in use, but they still may contain heavy objects not substantially secured that may fall through the shaft, such as pulleys, mechanisms, etc.
Lad 3 4.3
The TAC U channel has been programmed to allow for FD/PD interagency communications. Which of the following choices is INCORRECT regarding this channel?
A: Zone “B” channel 12 is designated as the TAC “U” Channel. This channel transmits at 5 watts.
B: When the TAC U channel is activated, all operating units shall remain on the Primary tactical channel unless specifically instructed to switch to another channel.
C: If an emergency alert tone is activated, only members of the FDNY will receive the alert over their HT’s and only on the channel on which the EA was activated.
D: Users of Interoperable (I/O) frequencies are reminded to use 10 codes or FD terminology while communicating on these frequencies
The TAC U channel has been programmed to allow for FD/PD interagency communications. Which of the following choices is INCORRECT regarding this channel?
A: Zone “B” channel 12 is designated as the TAC “U” Channel. This channel transmits at 5 watts.
B: When the TAC U channel is activated, all operating units shall remain on the Primary tactical channel unless specifically instructed to switch to another channel.
C: If an emergency alert tone is activated, only members of the FDNY will receive the alert over their HT’s and only on the channel on which the EA was activated.
D:✔Users of Interoperable (I/O) frequencies are reminded to use 10 codes or FD terminology while communicating on these frequencies.
Explanation:
COMMUNiCATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 14 – ADDENDUM 2
Users of Interoperable (I/O) frequencies are reminded to use plain language and refrain from using 10 codes or FD terminology while communicating on these frequencies. 1.1 Note
A – *** This is a change in our manuals from 6/28/22. It’s on your NOE. sec 2.1
B – 3.3
C – 2.2 Note
Which tactic/procedure is incorrect when operating at a Con-Ed Substation?
A: Sprinklers, if present, protect only transformers
B: Carbon dioxide extinguishers should not be used as an extinguishing agent at battery room fires
C: When raising Al or TL maintain an 18 foot safe clearance horizontally from the substation’s exterior fence line
D: Ask the Con-Ed White hat to retrieve the information from the FDNY lockbox located outside the substation
Which tactic/procedure is incorrect when operating at a Con-Ed Substation?
A: Sprinklers, if present, protect only transformers
B: Carbon dioxide extinguishers should not be used as an extinguishing agent at battery room fires
C: When raising Al or TL maintain an 18 foot safe clearance horizontally from the substation’s exterior fence line
D:✔Ask the Con-Ed White hat to retrieve the information from the FDNY lockbox located outside the substation
Explanation:
AUC 338 add 2
A- A 3 1/2” supply line shall be stretched, but not charged to the sprinkler Siamese if present. if requested by Con-Ed white hat, supply the Siamese with water at the posted pressure. Sprinklers if present protect only the transformers…sec 5.2
B- Dry Chemical extinguishers are to be used…sec 5.5
C- sec 6
D- INSIDE the substation …sec 4.2
At motor vehicle emergencies, the goal of vehicle stabilization is to prevent rocking of the vehicle. Which provision outlined below is incorrect?
A: Check under the vehicle for victims before any stabilization methods are taken.
B: Vehicles found on their side or roof shall be secured to a substantial object (apparatus, tree etc.) with a life-saving rope.
C: When deflating tires use vice grips or pliers to remove the valve stem.
D: When stabilizing vehicles on all four wheels, place chocks just behind the front wheels and in front of rear wheels, step side down.
At motor vehicle emergencies, the goal of vehicle stabilization is to prevent rocking of the vehicle. Which provision outlined below is incorrect?
A: Check under the vehicle for victims before any stabilization methods are taken.
B:✔Vehicles found on their side or roof shall be secured to a substantial object (apparatus, tree etc.) with a life-saving rope.
C: When deflating tires use vice grips or pliers to remove the valve stem.
D: When stabilizing vehicles on all four wheels, place chocks just behind the front wheels and in front of rear wheels, step side down.
Explanation:
B. Vehicles found on their side or roof shall be secured to a substantial object (apparatus, tree etc.) with UTILITY ROPE.
Disentanglement and Extrication 5.3, 5.4, 5.5, 5.6
Members may encounter difficulties when connecting hose to a Fire Department Connection (FDC.) This can include defective/damaged threads, frozen/stuck swivels and broken valves. Of the potential solutions described below, which is incorrect?
A: Tapping the swivel(s) on the FDC with a tool (spanner) may loosen paint, dirt, etc., and allow the swivel to operate.
B: Twist the supply hose 2-3 turns to the left, insert the male end, then twist the male end to the right (clockwise) into one of the female swivels of the FDC.
C: Insert a 3” x 3” x 3” Siamese into one of the female swivels of the FDC, which provides a female coupling for the male coupling of the 3 ½” supply hose to attach to.
D: Attach a 3” double male fitting to the malfunctioning female coupling of the FDC and then couple a 3” double female fitting to the double male to provide a female coupling for the male coupling of the 3 ½” supply hose to attach to.
Members may encounter difficulties when connecting hose to a Fire Department Connection (FDC.) This can include defective/damaged threads, frozen/stuck swivels and broken valves. Of the potential solutions described below, which is incorrect?
A: Tapping the swivel(s) on the FDC with a tool (spanner) may loosen paint, dirt, etc., and allow the swivel to operate.
B:✔Twist the supply hose 2-3 turns to the left, insert the male end, then twist the male end to the right (clockwise) into one of the female swivels of the FDC.
C: Insert a 3” x 3” x 3” Siamese into one of the female swivels of the FDC, which provides a female coupling for the male coupling of the 3 ½” supply hose to attach to.
D: Attach a 3” double male fitting to the malfunctioning female coupling of the FDC and then couple a 3” double female fitting to the double male to provide a female coupling for the male coupling of the 3 ½” supply hose to attach to.
Explanation:
B) Twist the supply hose 4-5 TURNS to the left, insert the male end, then twist the male end to the right (clockwise) into one of the female swivels of the FDC.
Eng Ch 5 4.3.4
Smoke may present itself in many colors. Which of the following choices is incorrect?
A: Grey smoke indicates that at least some flaming combustion or smoldering combustion is present.
B: The further the smoke travels, the more carbon it can lose, resulting in a grey smoke.
C: Dark smoke that has travelled some distance can cool and large carbon particles suspended in the smoke can adhere to surfaces.
D: In a building issuing dark smoke from some areas and grey smoke from other areas, usually the areas with dark smoke are remote from the fire.
Smoke may present itself in many colors. Which of the following choices is incorrect?
A: Grey smoke indicates that at least some flaming combustion or smoldering combustion is present.
B: The further the smoke travels, the more carbon it can lose, resulting in a grey smoke.
C: Dark smoke that has travelled some distance can cool and large carbon particles suspended in the smoke can adhere to surfaces.
D:✔In a building issuing dark smoke from some areas and grey smoke from other areas, usually the areas with dark smoke are remote from the fire.
Explanation:
D) In a building issuing dark smoke from some areas and grey smoke from other areas, usually the areas with GREY smoke are remote from the fire.
TB FD Ch 2 3.5.4 C
When operating at an aircraft incident, which side of the aircraft is referred to as the “rescue side” of the aircraft due to the layout of doors?
A: Nose side of aircraft
B: Tail side of aircraft
C: Right side of aircraft
D: Left side of aircraft
When operating at an aircraft incident, which side of the aircraft is referred to as the “rescue side” of the aircraft due to the layout of doors?
A: Nose side of aircraft
B: Tail side of aircraft
C: Right side of aircraft
D:✔Left side of aircraft
Explanation:
Port Authority will use this side as a reference point and the primary side for rescues
AUC 325 sec 6.2.4
For a member in distress, air may be supplied to the member through the use if the low pressure system by one of the following methods: 1) Via the Universal Air Connection 2) FAST Pak regulator with the member’s facepiece 3) Hansen fitting of the low pressure hose 4) FAST Pak facepiece and regulator. Which methods are correct?
A: 1, 2, 3, 4
B: 1, 2, 3 only
C: 2, 3, 4 only
D: 1, 2, 4 only
For a member in distress, air may be supplied to the member through the use if the low pressure system by one of the following methods: 1) Via the Universal Air Connection 2) FAST Pak regulator with the member’s facepiece 3) Hansen fitting of the low pressure hose 4) FAST Pak facepiece and regulator. Which methods are correct?
A: 1, 2, 3, 4
B: 1, 2, 3 only
C:✔2, 3, 4 only
D: 1, 2, 4 only
Explanation:
THE USE OF THE UNIVERSAL AIR CONNECTION IS A HIGH PRESSURE METHOD
Managing Members in Distress Ch 2 7.5, TB SCBA 9.1
Rowframe fires can spread at a rapid pace and it’s beneficial to have the proper resources in place sooner rather than later. Which of the following choices is not in accordance with Department policy?
A: When a floor is fully involved in fire from the front to the rear, a full first alarm assignment is required. It is also mandatory to call for an additional engine and ladder.
B: When two or more floors are fully involved, or a top floor fire has extended into the cockloft, the need for a second alarm must be considered.
C: When two buildings are involved, we have a 2nd alarm situation.
D: Prompt consideration must be given to transmitting a 3rd alarm when it extends beyond two buildings.
Rowframe fires can spread at a rapid pace and it’s beneficial to have the proper resources in place sooner rather than later. Which of the following choices is not in accordance with Department policy?
A:✔When a floor is fully involved in fire from the front to the rear, a full first alarm assignment is required. It is also mandatory to call for an additional engine and ladder.
B: When two or more floors are fully involved, or a top floor fire has extended into the cockloft, the need for a second alarm must be considered.
C: When two buildings are involved, we have a 2nd alarm situation.
D: Prompt consideration must be given to transmitting a 3rd alarm when it extends beyond two buildings.
Explanation:
A) When a floor is fully involved in fire from the front to the rear, a full first alarm assignment is required. It is also ADVISABLE to call for an additional engine and ladder.
These statements should be memorized word-for-word. Past exams have had questions like these where changing a single word made a statement incorrect.
BS/RF 7.6
The Roof Firefighter at a fire in a multiple dwelling is responsible for communicating vital pieces of information to the incident commander. Which of the following choices is INCORRECT?
A: The Location of stairways, fire escapes and party wall balconies.
B: Whether there is a difference in height of the building from front to rear, side to side, or street to street.
C: Persons trapped and their exact location.
D: When roof duties are completed, and the member is descending to conduct searches above the fire.
The Roof Firefighter at a fire in a multiple dwelling is responsible for communicating vital pieces of information to the incident commander. Which of the following choices is INCORRECT?
A: The Location of stairways, fire escapes and party wall balconies.
B: Whether there is a difference in height of the building from front to rear, side to side, or street to street.
C: Persons trapped and their exact location.
D:✔When roof duties are completed, and the member is descending to conduct searches above the fire.
Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 9 – UNIT COMMUNICATIONS
D IS INCORRECT – Not listed as a communication to Incident Commander. As per Ladders 3, that communication is made to the company officer – L-III pg 21 section 10.
A – 9.3.2 E
B – 9.3.2 G
C – 9.3.2 D
You are giving a drill on roof operations where a cell site is involved. The only correct point you gave can be found in which choice?
A: Cell site rooms have multiple points of ventilation. If involved in fire enter room and extinguish all visible fire
B: If coaxial cable or antenna grounds are in the way members can move or cut them in order to operate safely on the roof
C: Avoid cutting roof openings too close to cell site installation equipment, coaxial cables, or support system
D: Avoid using portable dry chemical extinguishers at incipient fires
You are giving a drill on roof operations where a cell site is involved. The only correct point you gave can be found in which choice?
A: Cell site rooms have multiple points of ventilation. If involved in fire enter room and extinguish all visible fire
B: If coaxial cable or antenna grounds are in the way members can move or cut them in order to operate safely on the roof
C:✔Avoid cutting roof openings too close to cell site installation equipment, coaxial cables, or support system
D: Avoid using portable dry chemical extinguishers at incipient fires
Explanation:
AUC 331
A- Cell site rooms have limited ventilation; operate from the exterior if at all possible…sec 5.9
B- Do not cut or dislodge coaxial cable or antenna grounds….sec 5.7 and 5.10
C- sec 6.10
D- Consider using portable dry chemical extinguishers at incipient fires…sec 6.9
Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding CFR documentation and record keeping?
A: A separate PCR is to be completed for each patient treated.
B: In all cases, members shall document the assessment and patient care provided by the CFR company and the EMS providers.
C: A PCR must be completed when patient care is provided by a CFR certified member regardless of response type and/or unit assignment (e.g., CFR certified member on a non-CFR unit performs patient care.)
D: A PCR is not required when a CFR company is on-scene (10-84) at any CFR assignment unless patient care is provided.
Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding CFR documentation and record keeping?
A: A separate PCR is to be completed for each patient treated.
B:✔In all cases, members shall document the assessment and patient care provided by the CFR company and the EMS providers.
C: A PCR must be completed when patient care is provided by a CFR certified member regardless of response type and/or unit assignment (e.g., CFR certified member on a non-CFR unit performs patient care.)
D: A PCR is not required when a CFR company is on-scene (10-84) at any CFR assignment unless patient care is provided.
Explanation:
B. Members shall document ONLY the assessment and patient care provided by the CFR company. DO NOT DOCUMENT CARE PROVIDED BY THE EMS CREW OR EMS PROVIDERS OTHER THAN WHERE APPLICABLE.
CFR Ch 5 1.2, 1.2.1, 1.2.2
Your unit is operating as the first arriving Ladder Company at a 12th floor fire in a 16-story Class 2, Fire Resistive high rise multiple dwelling. This building has only one open, interior stairs providing the only access to the roof. Of the following choices, you should know which choice to be incorrect?
A: The 1st Ladder officer must make a determination whether roof access for ventilation will be attempted.
B: When roof ventilation is to be attempted, and the stairway is an IDLH, two members must be assigned to vent the roof. If the stairway is not an IDLH, one member may be assigned to vent the roof.
C: When roof ventilation is to be attempted, the fire apartment door must be controlled until members verify their arrival on the roof and the bulkhead door is closed or they have attained an area of refuge.
D: When roof ventilation is to be attempted, if door control cannot be maintained, or any other condition exists that will impact the members assigned to roof ventilation, the officer shall immediately communicate this information to them.
Your unit is operating as the first arriving Ladder Company at a 12th floor fire in a 16-story Class 2, Fire Resistive high rise multiple dwelling. This building has only one open, interior stairs providing the only access to the roof. Of the following choices, you should know which choice to be incorrect?
A: The 1st Ladder officer must make a determination whether roof access for ventilation will be attempted.
B:✔When roof ventilation is to be attempted, and the stairway is an IDLH, two members must be assigned to vent the roof. If the stairway is not an IDLH, one member may be assigned to vent the roof.
C: When roof ventilation is to be attempted, the fire apartment door must be controlled until members verify their arrival on the roof and the bulkhead door is closed or they have attained an area of refuge.
D: When roof ventilation is to be attempted, if door control cannot be maintained, or any other condition exists that will impact the members assigned to roof ventilation, the officer shall immediately communicate this information to them.
Explanation:
B) When roof ventilation is to be attempted, WHETHER OR NOT the stairway is an IDLH, two members must be assigned to vent the roof (1st roof and a member of FE team or 2nd roof).
MD Ch 4 10.1.2 B
Which of the following building classifications is CORRECT?
A: A 150x150 Non-Fireproof MD that was renovated using metal C joist is classified as CL3LW.
B: A 25x60 Wood Frame PD that was renovated using metal C joist is classified as CL2LW.
C: A 80x80 15sty Fire Protected MD that was renovated using C joist is classified at CL2R.
D: A 200x200 Heavy Timber structure that was renovated using Mass Timber engineered products should be classified as CL6HT
Which of the following building classifications is CORRECT?
A:✔A 150x150 Non-Fireproof MD that was renovated using metal C joist is classified as CL3LW.
B: A 25x60 Wood Frame PD that was renovated using metal C joist is classified as CL2LW.
C: A 80x80 15sty Fire Protected MD that was renovated using C joist is classified at CL2R.
D: A 200x200 Heavy Timber structure that was renovated using Mass Timber engineered products should be classified as CL6HT
Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 4 – CIDS – NEW MATERIAL 3/22
A IS CORRECT – 4.5.3 Ciii – A Non-Fireproof structure which is constructed, renovated, repaired, using any type of structural light-weight materials should be classified as CL3LW.
B – CL4LW
C – CL2LW
D – CL6MT – Constructed, renovated, repaired
