Exam 8 Flashcards by Jesse Cusimano

There are a few isolated low rise fireproof multiple dwellings (LRFPMDs) where there is only one open interior stairway to the roof, and the roof cannot be accessed via aerial or tower ladder. In this situation, which tactic would be considered incorrect?
A: A decision must be made by the company officer as to whether or not roof ventilation is required.

B: If the stairway is not an IDLH and safety permits, the Roof Firefighter may be ordered to take the interior stair to the roof, provided that the fire apartment door is controlled and maintained closed by the ladder company officer.

C: If the stairway is an IDLH, then the Roof Firefighter shall not ascend to the roof and emphasis will be placed on horizontal ventilation as coordinated by the ladder company officer.

D: If ordered by the IC, the Roof Firefighter will provide ventilation of the stairway bulkhead. The Roof Firefighter will remain on the roof until the fire is under control and the interior stairway is safe to descend.

C:✔If the stairway is an IDLH, then the Roof Firefighter shall not ascend to the roof and emphasis will be placed on horizontal ventilation as coordinated by the ladder company officer.

Explanation:
C) If the stairway is an IDLH, then the Roof Firefighter MUST BE TEAMED UP with another member before ascending to the roof. In either case, the fire apartment door must be maintained closed until the Roof Firefighter has communicated to their Officer that they are on the roof in a safe area, and that the bulkhead door is closed.
MD Ch 3 4.1.4 B 2 Note

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Of the following choices, which offers an incorrect portrayal of “Stack Effect” according to the recently released fire dynamics bulletin?
A: Stack Effect describes the movement of air throughout a building that occurs when the temperature of the interior of a building is different than the temperature of the external environment.

B: Stack Effect only occurs in buildings of significant height, such as hi-rise buildings.

C: Stack Effect impacts the vertical direction and magnitude of air movement inside the building itself. Air inside the building can either move up or down the vertical shafts.

D: Stack Effect impacts the horizontal direction and magnitude of air being exchanged between the interior of the building and the external environment and the horizontal air movement on each individual floor to and from the vertical shafts.

B:✔Stack Effect only occurs in buildings of significant height, such as hi-rise buildings.

C: Stack Effect impacts the vertical direction and magnitude of air movement inside the building itself. Air inside the building can either move up or down the vertical shafts.

Explanation:
B) Stack Effect occurs in buildings of ALL SIZES including private dwellings; although in hi-rise buildings it is significantly MORE PROMINENT.
TB FIre Dynamics Ch 4 1.1-1.3

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In order to protect members of the FDNY while operating at an incident/emergency of a Danger Zone, the IC shall use tape to isolate the designated area members should not enter. The color of this tape can be found in which choice?
A: Yellow with Black lettering

B: Red with Black lettering

C: Black with Yellow Lettering

D: Black with Red yellowing lettering

B:✔Red with Black lettering

C: Black with Yellow Lettering

D: Black with Red yellowing lettering

Explanation:
Units are reminded that the danger zone should not be entered except to save life or authorized by the IC or Sector Chief. This applies to all members, during all stages of the operation
AUC 360

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When cutting an American Lock Series 2000 with the saw, what is the proper location of the cut?
A: 1/4 of the distance up from the keyway.

B: 2/3rds of the distance up from the keyway.

C: 1/4 of the distance up from the side opposite the keyway.

D: 2/3rds of the distance up from the side opposite the keyway.

When cutting an American Lock Series 2000 with the saw, what is the proper location of the cut?
A: 1/4 of the distance up from the keyway.

B:✔2/3rds of the distance up from the keyway.

C: 1/4 of the distance up from the side opposite the keyway.

D: 2/3rds of the distance up from the side opposite the keyway.

Explanation:
TB Forcible Entry 1 6.1 C

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Which choice below shows a portable ladder that was marked incorrectly?
A: The numerical length of a straight ladder shall be marked on the side of each end rail within 12 inches of the end of the ladder.

B: The numerical length of an extension ladder shall be marked on the side of the rails within 12 inches of the butt end only of the bed ladder.

C: The unit designation of a straight ladders shall be marked within 18 inches of each end of the ladder.

D: The unit designation of an extension ladder shall be marked within 18 inches of each butt of the ladder.

B: The numerical length of an extension ladder shall be marked on the side of the rails within 12 inches of the butt end only of the bed ladder.

C:✔The unit designation of a straight ladders shall be marked within 18 inches of each end of the ladder.

D: The unit designation of an extension ladder shall be marked within 18 inches of each butt of the ladder.

Explanation:
C) The unit designation shall be marked within 18 inches of each “butt” whether it is a straight ladder or extension ladder.
Note: Ladder length markings shall be visible when ladders are stored on the apparatus.
Lad 1 6

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Which of the following “rules of thumb” that govern quick calculations involved in street hydraulics is incorrect?
A: Add 20 psi friction loss per length of 1 ¾” hose.

B: Add 10 psi friction loss per length of 2 ½” hose.

C: Add 5 psi per floor of elevation but subtract 5 psi per floor of elevation loss below grade (one floor is roughly 10 feet).

D: A 1 ¾” hoseline nozzle (15/16” tip) requires 50 psi at the tip and a 2 ½” hoseline nozzle (1 1/8” tip) requires 40 psi at the tip.

Which of the following “rules of thumb” that govern quick calculations involved in street hydraulics is incorrect?
A: Add 20 psi friction loss per length of 1 ¾” hose.

B:✔Add 10 psi friction loss per length of 2 ½” hose.

C: Add 5 psi per floor of elevation but subtract 5 psi per floor of elevation loss below grade (one floor is roughly 10 feet).

D: A 1 ¾” hoseline nozzle (15/16” tip) requires 50 psi at the tip and a 2 ½” hoseline nozzle (1 1/8” tip) requires 40 psi at the tip.

Explanation:
B) Add 5 PSI friction loss per length of 2 ½” hose.
Note: Fog nozzle requires 100 psi at the tip.
Eng Ch 5 4.2.7

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When encountering displaced pets/pet remains at the scene of a fire/emergency, the FDNY shall protect/secure the pet with a responsible party. The term “responsible party” includes all of the following except?
A: Any adult 18 years of age or older

B: Neighbor

C: Building representative

D: Owner

B: Neighbor

C: Building representative

D: Owner

Explanation:
A- When encountering displaced pets/pet remains at the scene of a fire or emergency, the FDNY shall protect/secure the pet with a responsible party (owner, neighbor, building representative, NYPD, etc.)
If possible, cover the pet remains and keep them out of view of the public and media. If reunification with the owner is not possible, the FDNY IC shall contact the Animal Care Center through the respective borough dispatcher

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When operating at the scene of a major gas emergency, which of the following tactics is incorrect?
A: The size of the potential blast zone will be determined by the Incident Commander and identified by yellow, “DANGER DO NOT ENTER” TAPE.

B: Apparatus should not be located within the potential blast zone; however, do not enter a potential blast zone to move apparatus.

C: Other agencies should be prevented from entering the potential blast zone unless they are involved in direct, life-saving procedures; this includes utility company personnel.

D: At major gas emergencies, the potential blast zone shall be considered an exclusion zone for all personnel and shall only be entered for direct, life-saving purposes.

When operating at the scene of a major gas emergency, which of the following tactics is incorrect?
A:✔The size of the potential blast zone will be determined by the Incident Commander and identified by yellow, “DANGER DO NOT ENTER” TAPE.

B: Apparatus should not be located within the potential blast zone; however, do not enter a potential blast zone to move apparatus.

C: Other agencies should be prevented from entering the potential blast zone unless they are involved in direct, life-saving procedures; this includes utility company personnel.

D: At major gas emergencies, the potential blast zone shall be considered an exclusion zone for all personnel and shall only be entered for direct, life-saving purposes.

Explanation:
A. The size of the potential blast zone will be determined by the Incident Commander and identified by RED, “DANGER DO NOT ENTER” TAPE.

CROSS REF AUC 360: “DANGER DO NOT ENTER” TAPE CAN ONLY BE PASSED BY MEMBERS FOR “SIL”

SECTOR CHIEF APPROVAL
IC APPROVAL
LIFE

Natural Gas 9.0

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All members assigned to a Tower Ladder should be proficient in “bucket” operations. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information?

A: Whenever a Tower Ladder operation is in progress, the pedestal position should be staffed. This provides an extra pair of eyes to warn of impending danger and override bucket controls in an emergency.

B: Each member operating in a Tower Ladder bucket must personally verify the placement of both door latches.

C: Each member operating in a Tower Ladder bucket must ensure proper use of the installed safety belt or life belt/personal harness secured to a substantial part of the bucket (one of the bucket posts or the waterway) prior to raising the boom from the bedded position.

D: Prior to gaining entry by way of the bucket, members should clear the entire window. Setting the end of a 6’ hook firmly into the center of a window, and/or placing the bucket cord light into the window to be entered, may offer a reference point in the event a hasty retreat is required.

All members assigned to a Tower Ladder should be proficient in “bucket” operations. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information?

B: Each member operating in a Tower Ladder bucket must personally verify the placement of both door latches.

D:✔Prior to gaining entry by way of the bucket, members should clear the entire window. Setting the end of a 6’ hook firmly into the center of a window, and/or placing the bucket cord light into the window to be entered, may offer a reference point in the event a hasty retreat is required.

Explanation:
D) Prior to gaining entry by way of the bucket, members should clear the entire window. Setting the end of a 6’ hook firmly into the CORNER of a WINDOW SILL, and/or placing the bucket cord light into the window to be entered, may offer a reference point in the event a hasty retreat is required.
Note: When there is a need to search an adjoining area or room, it is sound practice to exit the IDLH and reposition the bucket to an appropriate window.
TL Ch 3 3

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Chief Blue stopped by Engine 100 for company drill and made a number of comments about the features of Brownstones and how they affect fire operations. Which comment made was incorrect?
A: Immediate ventilation, entry, isolation and search (VEIS) of the top floor is mandatory, and is considered to be one of the most important operations at these fires.

B: Doors at the top of the cellar and first floor (basement) stairs normally prevent the immediate extension of cellar fires up the main interior stairs. However, there will be a rapid build-up of smoke and heat on upper floors.

C: There are abundant means of venting the cellar, include windows located in the front and rear, and possibly a bilco door.

D: In some cases, rear extensions have been added on the first floor which may be two or three stories in height and 10 to 20 feet in depth, with their own cockloft.

C:✔There are abundant means of venting the cellar, include windows located in the front and rear, and possibly a bilco door.

D: In some cases, rear extensions have been added on the first floor which may be two or three stories in height and 10 to 20 feet in depth, with their own cockloft.

Explanation:
C) There are LIMITED means of venting the cellar. The MOST THAT CAN BE EXPECTED are a couple of very small windows at ground level in the rear, an opening under a grating near the first floor (basement) vestibule, and possibly a coal chute.
C Note: It is a punishing operation for the engine company to advance down the one interior stair. It might be necessary for the ladder company to cut holes in the first floor (basement) flooring, near windows opening to the outside of the building in order to adequately ventilate the cellar. A charged line should be in position.
A Note: The single open interior stair often becomes involved in fire and/or heavily charged with smoke. Buildup of heat and smoke on the top floor is extremely rapid, and occupants are often trapped above the fire.
BS/RF 2.2.9-2.2.12

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Which statement in regards to the Exterior Insulation Finish System involved in fire (EFIS) is incorrect?
A: EFIS consists of 3 layers, which consists of the foam plastic insulation, the reinforcing mesh, and the finish coat. The component of primary concern during firefighting operations is the foam plastic insulation

B: The first arriving engine must stretch a handline to the interior of the building to protect occupants exiting the building

C: The thermal imaging camera (TIC) should be used on both the interior and exterior to determine the extent of fire spread

D: Upon transmission of signal 10-75 for a fire in an EFIS building, an additional Engine and Ladder shall be special called. The special called Ladder shall be a Tower Ladder if one is not assigned on the first alarm assignment

B:✔The first arriving engine must stretch a handline to the interior of the building to protect occupants exiting the building

C: The thermal imaging camera (TIC) should be used on both the interior and exterior to determine the extent of fire spread

Explanation:
AUC 362
A- sec 1.2 and 1.3
B- The first arriving engine should consider using the deck gun for a rapid attack and knockdown. Initial handlines should be positioned for both an interior and exterior attack on the fire. Depending on conditions, a fire may be quickly knocked down from the exterior before the interior attack commences…sec 2.1 and 2.2
C- sec 2.4
D- sec 2.8

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Listed below are some characteristics of steam and the steam system in NYC. Which one is correct?
A: Con Ed is the only entity generating high pressure steam in NYC.

B: Only low pressure steam may be used in buildings.

C: Steam is invisible.

D: Water slugs can be pushed through piping by the steam at speeds as high as 300 MPH.

Listed below are some characteristics of steam and the steam system in NYC. Which one is correct?
A: Con Ed is the only entity generating high pressure steam in NYC.

B: Only low pressure steam may be used in buildings.

C:✔Steam is invisible.

D: Water slugs can be pushed through piping by the steam at speeds as high as 300 MPH.

Explanation:
A. Con Ed IS NOT the only entity generating high pressure steam in NYC. DISTRICT STEAM SYSTEMS SHOULD BE ENTERED INTO CIDS PROGRAM.

B. HIGH pressure steam IS USED IN BUILDINGS FOR A NUMBER OF PURPOSES E.G., TO PROVIDE HEAT AND HOT WATER, TO HEAT FOOD, RUN AIR CONDITIONERS.

D. Water slugs can be pushed through piping by the steam at speeds as high as 200 MPH.

Steam 1.2, 2.1, 2.3, 3.1

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The Post Radio was developed to assist with field communication issues in a variety of buildings and structures around the city. Which choice is CORRECT regarding the features of this radio?
A: Power output of 40 watts supplied by a rechargeable 12-volt, 18 amp/hour sealed lead acid battery.

B: Using the 20% transmit, 20% receive, 60% standby formula, the battery provides sufficient wattage for 6 hours of operation.

C: The battery shall be charged weekly and after each use for at least 8 hours.

D: Prolonged use may require up to 18 hours to fully charge.

B: Using the 20% transmit, 20% receive, 60% standby formula, the battery provides sufficient wattage for 6 hours of operation.

C:✔The battery shall be charged weekly and after each use for at least 8 hours.

D: Prolonged use may require up to 18 hours to fully charge.

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 12 – POST RADIO
C IS CORRECT – 2.3
A – Power Output is 45 WATTS 2.2
B – 20/20/60 formula provides for 4 HOURS of operation. 2.2
D – Prolonged use may require up to 20 hours to fully charge. 2.3

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While conducting a drill on roof operations, a member of ladder 171 dropped his radio causing excessive damage and rendering the radio inoperable. A spare was requested by the officer on duty while members discussed the spare radio procedure. Which choice below is CORRECT?
A: Immediately notify the administrative Battalion for the need for a spare radio.

B: Forward the defective radio with antenna and remote speaker mic. Do not include battery.

C: Upon receipt of the spare radio, ensure proper ID has been placed in HT by transmitting to the Spare HT from another HT.

D: An Unusual Occurrence Report is required for excessive damage to the radio.

B: Forward the defective radio with antenna and remote speaker mic. Do not include battery.

C: Upon receipt of the spare radio, ensure proper ID has been placed in HT by transmitting to the Spare HT from another HT.

D:✔An Unusual Occurrence Report is required for excessive damage to the radio.

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 11 ADDENDUM 4
D IS CORRECT – 2.1.4
A – Notify the administrative Division – 2.1.1
B – Forward defective radio with battery, antenna, and remote speaker mic to Division. 2.1.7.
C – Ensure proper ID has been placed in HT by transmitting from SPARE HT TO ANOTHER HT (Not the other way around). 2.1.5.

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The FDNY “Suspicious Activity Reporting” (SAR) policy has been in effect since September of 2019. The incorrect SAR policy can be found in which choice?
A: SAR forms shall be carried on apparatus

B: An imminent threat requires a forthwith notification to NYPD and BFI

C: If a FDNY member(s) suspects terrorist activity, that member(s) shall immediately confront the individual and notify NYPD

D: Information regarding your suspicions should not be transmitted over the Department radio unless there is an immediate threat to member safety.

The FDNY “Suspicious Activity Reporting” (SAR) policy has been in effect since September of 2019. The incorrect SAR policy can be found in which choice?
A: SAR forms shall be carried on apparatus

B: An imminent threat requires a forthwith notification to NYPD and BFI

C:✔If a FDNY member(s) suspects terrorist activity, that member(s) shall immediately confront the individual and notify NYPD

D: Information regarding your suspicions should not be transmitted over the Department radio unless there is an immediate threat to member safety.

Explanation:
AUC 363
A- sec 4.6
B- sec 6.4
C- If a member suspects an individual is engaging in terrorist activity; they should NOT confront that individual….sec 8.2
D- sec 8.7

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When an unconscious member is discovered at an operation there are several steps that can be taken to assist in identifying the members. Which one is incorrect?
A: If possible, depress the EAB of the member in distress. Notify the IC via handie-talkie after the EAB activation of the distressed member.

B: Positioning the unconscious member on their right side will provide access to several identifying features.

C: The unconscious members tools may indicate member’s assigned position.

D: If unable to activate the distressed member’s EAB, key the mic on the distressed member’s handie-talkie to obtain their identity on EFAS.

When an unconscious member is discovered at an operation there are several steps that can be taken to assist in identifying the members. Which one is incorrect?
A:✔If possible, depress the EAB of the member in distress. Notify the IC via handie-talkie after the EAB activation of the distressed member.

B: Positioning the unconscious member on their right side will provide access to several identifying features.

C: The unconscious members tools may indicate member’s assigned position.

D: If unable to activate the distressed member’s EAB, key the mic on the distressed member’s handie-talkie to obtain their identity on EFAS.

Explanation:
A. If possible, depress the EAB of the member in distress. Notify the IC via handie-talkie BEFORE the EAB activation of the distressed member.

Managing Members in Distress Ch 3 10.1.2

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Which of the following choices contains an incorrect description of Old Law Tenements?
A: They are three to seven stories, 20’ to 25’ wide and 50’ to 85’ deep.

B: There will always be an interior stairway to cellar.

C: Some form of light/air shaft may be provided and these shafts are open at the top.

D: There is limited fire stopping.

Which of the following choices contains an incorrect description of Old Law Tenements?
A: They are three to seven stories, 20’ to 25’ wide and 50’ to 85’ deep.

B:✔There will always be an interior stairway to cellar.

C: Some form of light/air shaft may be provided and these shafts are open at the top.

D: There is limited fire stopping.

Explanation:
B) Interior stairs to cellar (MAY have been removed IF building has been renovated).
Notes: Combustible contents and structural components result in a hot smoky fire. The presence of Energy Efficient Windows (EEW) will further increase heat, gases and smoke conditions, possibly leading to a flashover or backdraft.
Lad 3 1.2

When a building is under construction, demolition, or abatement (CDA), the Standpipe/Sprinkler requirements must be in accordance with the Fire Code and Laws. The incorrect requirement can be found in which choice?
A: All exposed standpipes and sprinkler piping must be painted red. (except sprinkler branch piping)

B: A metal sign must be present at the Siamese connection for the sprinkler system reading “Sprinkler Siamese Connection” with a green light over the sign. The green light must be lit at night

C: No Standpipe shall be considered to be in a state of readiness unless it is painted red

D: Dedicated sprinkler valve handles must be painted green

B:✔A metal sign must be present at the Siamese connection for the sprinkler system reading “Sprinkler Siamese Connection” with a green light over the sign. The green light must be lit at night

C: No Standpipe shall be considered to be in a state of readiness unless it is painted red

D: Dedicated sprinkler valve handles must be painted green

Explanation:
Must be a Red light. The red light is a requirement for both Standpipes/Sprinklers
AUC 5 ch 2 add 2

The members of Ladder Company 177 were discussing monitoring EFAS following the morning Roll Call and the following statements were made. Which one was CORRECT as stated?
A: It shall be the responsibility of the first arriving Battalion firefighter, prior to performing their primary duties to monitor EFAS until relieved by an EFAS trained member of the FAST Unit.

B: Upon arrival of the FAST Unit, an EFAS trained member will report to the Battalion vehicle being used to monitor EFAS. A second member will monitor the Battalion’s FAST Unit HT.

C: When the Division is on scene, it shall be the responsibility of the Division Back-up firefighter to report to the Battalion vehicle being used to monitor EFAS and relieve the EFAS firefighter and monitor the EFAS.

D: If the Division arrives on scene before the FAST Unit, it shall be the responsibility of the Division Back up firefighter to relieve the Battalion firefighter and perform EFAS duties.

B: Upon arrival of the FAST Unit, an EFAS trained member will report to the Battalion vehicle being used to monitor EFAS. A second member will monitor the Battalion’s FAST Unit HT.

D:✔If the Division arrives on scene before the FAST Unit, it shall be the responsibility of the Division Back up firefighter to relieve the Battalion firefighter and perform EFAS duties.

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL CHAPTER 9 ADDENDUM 3 – EFAS
D IS CORRECT – 2.3
A – AFTER performing their primary duties. 2.1
B – The EFAS trained member will monitor the EFAS in the Battalion vehicle and the Battalion’s FAST Unit HT. A second member is not assigned this duty. 2.2
C – The Division firefighter does not relieve the EFAS trained firefighter, they ASSIST…

The chain saw is a very dangerous tool that must be operated with proper care. Which choice below discussing the operation of the chain saw is incorrect?
A: Never make plunge cuts with the tip of the blade.

B: Never use the tip of the blade for cutting.

C: Never overreach to operate the saw above your shoulders.

D: Never use the chain saw for the ventilation or overhauling of structural fires

B: Never use the tip of the blade for cutting.

C: Never overreach to operate the saw above your shoulders.

D:✔Never use the chain saw for the ventilation or overhauling of structural fires

Explanation:
D. EXCEPT FOR PIER FIRE OPERATIONS, the chain saw IS NOT TO BE USED for the ventilation or overhauling of structural fires.

THE BOOK OF NEVERS: THERE ARE A LOT OF NEVERS IN TOOLS 24. BE ABLE TO RECOGNIZE THEM ON TEST DAY.

TB Tools 24: 2.1,5.6, 7.7

At a recent “All Hands” fire, the LCC of Ladder 100, an aerial ladder, made a number of good decisions. Indicate the single mistake that was made.
A: The LCC remained on the turntable when members that entered the building via aerial ladder were in a precarious position.

B: Since the aerial ladder was committed to the roof, and was the only safe egress from the roof, it was not moved unless absolutely necessary.

C: When finished utilizing the aerial ladder, the LCC first raised the ladder away from the building before retracting it.

D: When placing the aerial ladder to the roof, the LCC extended the ladder so that the tip was at least 2 feet above the point where the ladder came in contact with the building.

B: Since the aerial ladder was committed to the roof, and was the only safe egress from the roof, it was not moved unless absolutely necessary.

C: When finished utilizing the aerial ladder, the LCC first raised the ladder away from the building before retracting it.

D:✔When placing the aerial ladder to the roof, the LCC extended the ladder so that the tip was at least 2 feet above the point where the ladder came in contact with the building.

Explanation:
D) When placing the ladder to the roof, extend the ladder so that the tip is AT LEAST 5 feet above the point where the ladder comes in contact with the building.
B Note: If it must be moved, direct radio communication must be made with members on the roof. It must also be evident that there is no immediate need for roof egress at the time and that this new critical task will not delay the prompt replacement of the aerial ladder at the original location. Units shall be informed of this temporary removal and the ladder must be returned to the same location as quickly as possible.
C Note: This will prevent cornices or building material from being pulled to the street.
Lad 2 7.5, 7.6, 7.7

Which procedure is incorrect when operating at a Buckeye Pipeline leak?
A: Upon confirmation of a leak, transmit a 2nd alarm and a 10-86 for the leak location and include the Location of leak, Amount of product, Topography, and Exposures

B: Patrolling the pipeline for a leak can be on foot or by apparatus

C: Department apparatus should not be brought closer than 500’ to a leak

D: Division drills is the only time units can actually close the valves to the Buckeye Pipeline

B: Patrolling the pipeline for a leak can be on foot or by apparatus

C: Department apparatus should not be brought closer than 500’ to a leak

D:✔Division drills is the only time units can actually close the valves to the Buckeye Pipeline

Explanation:
AUC 149
A- sec 7.8.
B- sec 6.3.2
C- sec 7.18. ***Be aware of this distance update.
D- Borough Drills only…sec 10.5.10

Which description of the Fast-Pak is correct?
A: The low pressure side of the bag has a “T”-Handle” cover and contains a Non-CBRN Regulator, an AV2000 facepiece with a nosecup, a 6-foot long low-pressure hose and the dual manifold (Hansen fitting).

B: The high pressure side of the bag contains a 4500 psi Scott air cylinder (45 minutes of use).

C: There is a remote pressure gauge with a “Low Air Whistle” assembly.

D: An affixed carabiner is attached on one end only to assist in packaging of downed firefighters.

B: The high pressure side of the bag contains a 4500 psi Scott air cylinder (45 minutes of use).

C:✔There is a remote pressure gauge with a “Low Air Whistle” assembly.

D: An affixed carabiner is attached on one end only to assist in packaging of downed firefighters.

Explanation:
A. The low pressure side of the bag has a “BALL-HANDLE” cover and contains a Non-CBRN Regulator, an AV2000 facepiece with a nosecup, a 6-foot long low-pressure hose and the dual manifold (Hansen fitting).

B. The high pressure side of the bag contains a 4500 psi Scott air cylinder (15 MINUTES of use).

D. An affixed carabiner is attached ON EACH END to assist in packaging of downed firefighters.

THESE ARE ALL NEW FEATURES OF THE RELATIVELY NEW FAST PAK

TB SCBA Addendum 1 Fast Pak 2.2, 2.3, 2.4, 2.5

Question 24:
Members of an elite study group were discussing radio signals and several statements were made about the 10-70 code. Which of the following is CORRECT?
A: The transmission of a 10-70 requires an “urgent” HT transmission to all units on the scene.

B: The transmission of a 1070 requires an “urgent” message to the dispatcher from the Incident Commander.

C: The second arriving unit will be designated the “Water Resource Unit”; however, any engine company can be assigned this designation.

D: No Water/Insufficient Pressure at a Standpipe Outlet or Sprinkler System warrants a 1070 signal.

Question 24:
Members of an elite study group were discussing radio signals and several statements were made about the 10-70 code. Which of the following is CORRECT?
A:✔The transmission of a 10-70 requires an “urgent” HT transmission to all units on the scene.

B: The transmission of a 1070 requires an “urgent” message to the dispatcher from the Incident Commander.

C: The second arriving unit will be designated the “Water Resource Unit”; however, any engine company can be assigned this designation.

D: No Water/Insufficient Pressure at a Standpipe Outlet or Sprinkler System warrants a 1070 signal.

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 8 - RADIO COMMUNICATIONS
A IS CORRECT – PG 8-19
B – The transmission of the 10-70 shall be an “urgent” message to the dispatcher from the unit transmitting the signal. PG 8-19
C – Not Stated that any engine company can be assigned this designation. 8-19
D – Sprinkler not included in situations that would require a 10-70. 8-19

What is the priority order of roof access at a fire in a low rise fireproof multiple dwelling (LRFPMD)? A: 1. An enclosed evacuation stairway. 2. Stairway in an attached, adjoining building or in an individual building with two separate sections protected by fire doors, the use of a protected adjoining section. 3. Aerial Ladder or Tower Ladder. B: 1. Stairway in an attached, adjoining building or in an individual building with two separate sections protected by fire doors, the use of a protected adjoining section. 2. An enclosed evacuation stairway. 3. Aerial Ladder or Tower Ladder. C: 1. Aerial Ladder or Tower Ladder. 2. Stairway in an attached, adjoining building or in an individual building with two separate sections protected by fire doors, the use of a protected adjoining section. 3. An enclosed evacuation stairway. D: 1. Aerial Ladder or Tower Ladder. 2. An enclosed evacuation stairway. 3. Stairway in an attached, adjoining building or in an individual building with two separate sections protected by fire doors, the use of a protected adjoining section.

What is the priority order of roof access at a fire in a low rise fireproof multiple dwelling (LRFPMD)? A: 1. An enclosed evacuation stairway. 2. Stairway in an attached, adjoining building or in an individual building with two separate sections protected by fire doors, the use of a protected adjoining section. 3. Aerial Ladder or Tower Ladder. B:✔1. Stairway in an attached, adjoining building or in an individual building with two separate sections protected by fire doors, the use of a protected adjoining section. 2. An enclosed evacuation stairway. 3. Aerial Ladder or Tower Ladder. C: 1. Aerial Ladder or Tower Ladder. 2. Stairway in an attached, adjoining building or in an individual building with two separate sections protected by fire doors, the use of a protected adjoining section. 3. An enclosed evacuation stairway. D: 1. Aerial Ladder or Tower Ladder. 2. An enclosed evacuation stairway. 3. Stairway in an attached, adjoining building or in an individual building with two separate sections protected by fire doors, the use of a protected adjoining section. Explanation: Acronym: ADEL Adjoining building stairs/Doors (fire) Enclosed evacuation stairway Ladder (AL/TL) MD Ch 3 4.1.4 B 2

A CFR patient that is responsive but unable to follow commands would fall into which CUPS criteria? A: Critical B: Unstable C: Potentially unstable D: Stable

A CFR patient that is responsive but unable to follow commands would fall into which CUPS criteria? A: Critical B:✔Unstable C: Potentially unstable D: Stable Explanation: Unstable: “DRUG” Difficulty Breathing Responsive but unable to follow commands Unresponsive with no gag or cough reflexes General impression poor CFR Ch 2 3.1.4

When it comes to operating at a Lithium-ion battery fire, the incorrect tactic/procedure can be found in which choice? A: A thermal imaging camera shall not be relied upon to determine if a Lithium-Ion battery Pak or cell is compromised B: Water may not prevent a battery from entering thermal runaway. If able to penetrate the battery case, water may provide a cooling effect on the adjacent battery cells. This may reduce propagation to other cells C: Dry chemical is effective for any type of lithium-ion related extinguishment D: Firefighters must not place the lithium-ion battery Pak or cells in the pocket of their bunker coat or pants

When it comes to operating at a Lithium-ion battery fire, the incorrect tactic/procedure can be found in which choice? A: A thermal imaging camera shall not be relied upon to determine if a Lithium-Ion battery Pak or cell is compromised B: Water may not prevent a battery from entering thermal runaway. If able to penetrate the battery case, water may provide a cooling effect on the adjacent battery cells. This may reduce propagation to other cells C:✔Dry chemical is effective for any type of lithium-ion related extinguishment D: Firefighters must not place the lithium-ion battery Pak or cells in the pocket of their bunker coat or pants Explanation: Haz-Mat 20 (New as of April 2022) A- sec 4.3 B- sec 4.3.2 C- Dry chemical is INEFFECTIVE for any type of lithium-ion related extinguishment.....sec 4.3.3 D- sec 5.4.1

Which of the following choices is CORRECT regarding Emergency Roll Calls? A: The Bureau of Operations mandates training roll calls to be conducted semi-annually. Incident Commanders are encouraged to conduct training emergency roll calls whenever they feel it is warranted. B: Training roll calls will be conducted during actual fire operations to keep members well versed in emergency roll call procedures. C:✔Chief officers should use this time to have company officers conduct the training roll calls as a way to prepare for an actual occurrence. D: Rescue, Squad, and Ladder Company members shall answer the roll call as per ladder company position assignments. Explanation: COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 9 – ADDENDUM 2 – EMERGENCY ROLL CALL PROCEDURES C IS CORRECT – 1.3 A – Training Roll Calls are conducted quarterly 1.3 B – Upon the completion of operations (not during fire operations) 1.3 D – Rescue company members shall answer the roll call as per ladder company position assignments. Squad companies answer according to Engine company position assignments. 1.5

Ventilation of low rise fireproof multiple dwellings (LRFPMDs) must be carefully coordinated. Which of the following choices is not in accordance with Department guidelines? A: Emphasis will generally be placed on venting the attack stair bulkhead after the fire has been controlled. B: When ordered, venting of the attack stairway in LRFPMDs will be accomplished by the 1st and 2nd arriving Roof firefighter positions. C: The officer of the first ladder company will initiate and control ventilation of the fire apartment. D: Particularly on windy days, the opening of the attack stairway bulkhead should be delayed until a proper size-up can be made.

Ventilation of low rise fireproof multiple dwellings (LRFPMDs) must be carefully coordinated. Which of the following choices is not in accordance with Department guidelines? A:✔Emphasis will generally be placed on venting the attack stair bulkhead after the fire has been controlled. B: When ordered, venting of the attack stairway in LRFPMDs will be accomplished by the 1st and 2nd arriving Roof firefighter positions. C: The officer of the first ladder company will initiate and control ventilation of the fire apartment. D: Particularly on windy days, the opening of the attack stairway bulkhead should be delayed until a proper size-up can be made. Explanation: A) Emphasis will generally be placed on venting the attack stair bulkhead AFTER APPROVAL OF THE IC, EARLY IN THE OPERATION. Don’t confuse this with vertical ventilation at fires in HRFPMDs. MD Ch 3 1.4

When the Drager PAC 6500 C.O. meter exceeds 2000 PPM, the C.O. meter will display what LCD reading on the screen? A: "OL" B: “rrr" C: The actual reading ex: "2005 PPM" D: "XXX"

When the Drager PAC 6500 C.O. meter exceeds 2000 PPM, the C.O. meter will display what LCD reading on the screen? A: "OL" B:✔"rrr" C: The actual reading ex: "2005 PPM" D: "XXX" Explanation: Haz-Mat 4 add 2 sec2.7.Note New Bulletin as of January 2021

Which statement pertaining to ventilation is incorrect? A: The exchange of heat and smoke being replaced with fresh air during ventilation is generally bidirectional with heat and smoke exhausting at the top and air flowing in towards the bottom. B: Vertical ventilation methods of releasing smoke and heat from inside the fire building will generally create unidirectional flow paths. C: Modern fires rapidly react to ventilation and the in-flow of additional oxygen. D:✔Changes of the ventilation profile indicators must be communicated via handie-talkie to the Engine company officer operating inside the fire area and the IC. Explanation: D. Changes of the ventilation profile indicators must be communicated via handie-talkie TO THE LADDER company officer operating inside the fire area and the IC. Ventilation Glossary : “Modern Content Fire”; “Ventilation”; “Ventilation Profile”; “Vertical Ventilation”

Your unit arrives at a high rise office building fire as the 4th arriving Ladder Company. In which choice below was an incorrect action taken? A: Your unit reported to the Incident Command Post and each member was equipped with an extra SCBA cylinder. B: Since the fire was on a floor serviced by the high-rise bank of elevators, your unit proceed to a location below the fire floor and then used a stairway other than the attack stairway to proceed to the roof. C: Your members did not undertake roof ventilation until ordered by the Incident Commander. D:✔You knew that a logical assignment after roof operations would be the lower floors of the elevator bank serving the fire floor. Explanation: D) You knew that a logical assignment after roof operations would be the UPPER floors of the elevator bank serving the fire floor. B Note: Obtain an elevator that provides the safest access to the roof. If the fire is on a floor that is not serviced by the high-rise bank of elevators, the high-rise bank will be used if it is in a blind shaft. If the fire is on a floor that is serviced by the high-rise bank of elevators, they shall proceed to a location below the fire floor and then use a stairway other than the attack stairway to proceed to the roof. HROB 8.6.1

Members conducting operations inside the potential blast zone at a major gas emergency took the following actions. They were incorrect in which one? A: They entered the potential blast zone to conduct rapid evacuation. B: They used door bells and knocked on doors to attempt to alert occupants to evacuate. C: They ensured only intrinsically safe equipment was used. D: They avoided standing on doormats and traversing across carpeted areas.

Members conducting operations inside the potential blast zone at a major gas emergency took the following actions. They were incorrect in which one? A: They entered the potential blast zone to conduct rapid evacuation. B:✔They used door bells and knocked on doors to attempt to alert occupants to evacuate. C: They ensured only intrinsically safe equipment was used. D: They avoided standing on doormats and traversing across carpeted areas. Explanation: B. DO NOT USE DOOR BELLS AS THIS MAY TRIGGER AN ELECTRIC SPARK; KNOCK ON DOORS. Natural Gas 9.1.1

Lithium-ion batteries or mobility devices which are involved in fire, or subjected to elevated temperatures must be moved from the area in which members will be operating. The correct order of preference in which to move these batteries until a Haz-Mat unit arrives on scene can be found in which choice? A: 1)Bathroom tub in fire apartment with all cells fully submerged in water, 2)Sink large enough that all cells can be fully submerged in water, 3) Garbage pail or bucket large enough that all cells are capable of being fully submerged in water B: 1)Garbage pail or bucket large enough that all cells are capable of being fully submerged in water, 2)Sink large enough that all cells can be fully submerged in water, 3)Bathroom tub in fire apartment with all cells fully submerged in water C: 1)Sink large enough that all cells can be fully submerged in water, 2)Garbage pail or bucket large enough that all cells are capable of being fully submerged in water, 3) Bathroom tub in fire apartment with all cells fully submerged in water D: 1)Bathroom tub in fire apartment with all cells fully submerged in water, 2) Garbage pail or bucket large enough that all cells are capable of being fully submerged in water, 3)Sink large enough that all cells can be fully submerged in water

Lithium-ion batteries or mobility devices which are involved in fire, or subjected to elevated temperatures must be moved from the area in which members will be operating. The correct order of preference in which to move these batteries until a Haz-Mat unit arrives on scene can be found in which choice? A:✔1)Bathroom tub in fire apartment with all cells fully submerged in water, 2)Sink large enough that all cells can be fully submerged in water, 3) Garbage pail or bucket large enough that all cells are capable of being fully submerged in water B: 1)Garbage pail or bucket large enough that all cells are capable of being fully submerged in water, 2)Sink large enough that all cells can be fully submerged in water, 3)Bathroom tub in fire apartment with all cells fully submerged in water C: 1)Sink large enough that all cells can be fully submerged in water, 2)Garbage pail or bucket large enough that all cells are capable of being fully submerged in water, 3) Bathroom tub in fire apartment with all cells fully submerged in water D: 1)Bathroom tub in fire apartment with all cells fully submerged in water, 2) Garbage pail or bucket large enough that all cells are capable of being fully submerged in water, 3)Sink large enough that all cells can be fully submerged in water Explanation: Haz-Mat 20 sec 5.2, 5.5, 5.5.1, 5.5.2, 5.5.3 When the options in A are not practical, the IC may remove the batteries or mobility device via a fire apt window...sec 5.6 This is a new bulletin as of April 2022

During company drill in Brooklyn, a newly trained ECC made the following comments. Which comment was incorrect? A: Whenever a hose line is supplied with the booster tank, the ECC must communicate to the Engine Officer that they are on booster water. The Engine Officer should also be notified when the water level in the booster tank is half empty. B: If the Fire Department Connection (FDC) is found to be inoperable, or if the position of the FDC in relation to the hydrant makes connection to the FDC impractical, the standpipe system can be supplied by way of the first-floor standpipe outlet instead. C: At most operations in buildings with a standpipe that are of newer, modern construction, the ECC should generally supply the standpipe system with a pressure of 105 psi, plus an additional 5 psi per floor of elevation, measured to the floor of the standpipe being used. D: The ECC should supply the sprinkler system with 150 psi, but should be prepared to increase pressure upon any indication that the system requires more water. This can be based on reports of system performance from operating members.

During company drill in Brooklyn, a newly trained ECC made the following comments. Which comment was incorrect? A: Whenever a hose line is supplied with the booster tank, the ECC must communicate to the Engine Officer that they are on booster water. The Engine Officer should also be notified when the water level in the booster tank is half empty. B: If the Fire Department Connection (FDC) is found to be inoperable, or if the position of the FDC in relation to the hydrant makes connection to the FDC impractical, the standpipe system can be supplied by way of the first-floor standpipe outlet instead. C:✔At most operations in buildings with a standpipe that are of newer, modern construction, the ECC should generally supply the standpipe system with a pressure of 105 psi, plus an additional 5 psi per floor of elevation, measured to the floor of the standpipe being used. D: The ECC should supply the sprinkler system with 150 psi, but should be prepared to increase pressure upon any indication that the system requires more water. This can be based on reports of system performance from operating members. Explanation: C) At most operations in buildings with a standpipe that are known to be of OLDER, TRADITIONAL construction, the ECC should generally supply the standpipe system with a pressure of 105 psi, plus an additional 5 psi per floor of elevation, measured to the floor on which the HOSE LINE WILL BE OPERATING. Eng Ch 5 4.2.11, 4.3.5, 4.3.7, 4.3.8, 4.4.3

At an Under River Rail operation, the presence and availability of emergency exits may impact operations. Which of the following choices is incorrect? A: Evacuating passengers via emergency exit stairs may be a viable choice in some instances, depending on the depth of the shaft, stairway configuration, and smoke condition. B: Emergency exit stairs may be difficult to climb. If a person stops climbing the stairs due to injury or fatigue, the evacuation may be delayed or brought to a standstill. C:✔Fire Department members always receive priority in emergency evacuation stairway use when civilians are evacuating. D: When two staircases are present, designate an Evacuation Stairway and an Attack Stairway. Explanation: C) Fire Department members attempting to descend a stairway must FIRST allow civilians to evacuate. D Note: In some cases, there is another set of emergency exits between the tube and the nearest station. These exits should be evaluated as an alternate or supplemental means of egress. URR 7.2.2 B

While exiting the building from an EMS run in apartment 10D an occupant from apartment 5A came up to you and complained her smoke detector hasn't worked in months. At this point, the only correct action for you to take can be found in which choice? A: Notify dispatcher to create a ticket and have the company take a walk up to the occupant's apartment to take a look at the smoke detector. Then transmit a 10-38-1 for a defective smoke detector B: Take the necessary information from the occupant and notify the Bureau of Fire Prevention's Field Public Operations Support Unit (FPOSU) C: Notify the Dispatcher to have the Battalion respond D: Inform the occupant of 5A to call 311

At a fire in a private dwelling of lightweight construction, which Engine Company tactic would be most correct? A: A 2nd hoseline must be positioned to back up the 1st line. When the 2nd line is needed to address a potential life hazard or is directed by the IC to a location remote from the 1st hoseline, a 3rd hoseline must be positioned as a back-up line. B: The IC shall special call an additional Engine and Ladder for a structural fire in a building constructed of lightweight materials. C: When the fire is of such magnitude that it cannot be quickly knocked down with the two hoselines, then alternative strategies (i.e. KO Curtain, breaching wall, etc.) must be considered. D: Nozzle firefighters should use the “alternating knees” method due to the potential of fire and heat weakening the floor system and causing a collapse.

At a fire in a private dwelling of lightweight construction, which Engine Company tactic would be most correct? A:✔A 2nd hoseline must be positioned to back up the 1st line. When the 2nd line is needed to address a potential life hazard or is directed by the IC to a location remote from the 1st hoseline, a 3rd hoseline must be positioned as a back-up line. B: The IC shall special call an additional Engine and Ladder for a structural fire in a building constructed of lightweight materials. C: When the fire is of such magnitude that it cannot be quickly knocked down with the two hoselines, then alternative strategies (i.e. KO Curtain, breaching wall, etc.) must be considered. D: Nozzle firefighters should use the “alternating knees” method due to the potential of fire and heat weakening the floor system and causing a collapse. Explanation: B) The IC shall special call an additional ENGINE Company for a structural fire in a building constructed of lightweight materials. C) When the fire is of such magnitude that it cannot be quickly knocked down with the two hoselines, then an OUTSIDE OPERATION must be considered. D) Nozzle firefighters should use the LEG FORWARD method due to the potential of fire and heat weakening the floor system and causing a collapse. PD Ch 6 4.2.2, 4.2.3, 4.2.6

The Gemtor soft-pack energy absorber is a component of the new KLSR rope. In the event of an unintended impact load, approximately 600 lb. load falling ____ feet or more, the Gemtor energy absorber will begin to deploy, absorbing some of the energy, lessening the chance of a failure of the substantial object and/or the rope. A: 1 B:✔2 C: 3 D: 4 Explanation: NOTE: DEPLOYMENT OF THIS DEVICE REQUIRES THE ROPE TO BE PUT OOS IMMEDIATELY (TB ROPE 10 4.11) ALSO CROSS REF ROPE 3 4.7: FOR THE PERSONAL HARNESS A MEMBER FALLING 3 FEET OR MORE IS CONSIDERED A SUFFICIENT IMPACT LOAD TO WARRANT PLACING THE PERSONAL HARNESS OUT OF SERVICE. *BE AWARE OF THIS DIFFERENCE* TB Rope 10 Data Sheet 6 2.3

In what way do wood braced-frame constructed buildings collapse? A: Inward/Outward Collapse B: Curtain-Fall Wall Collapse C: Ninety-Degree-Angle Wall Collapse D: Tent Floor Collapse

In what way do wood braced-frame constructed buildings collapse? A:✔Inward/Outward Collapse B: Curtain-Fall Wall Collapse C: Ninety-Degree-Angle Wall Collapse D: Tent Floor Collapse Explanation: B) Curtain-Fall Wall Collapse - Exterior masonry wall drops like a falling curtain cut loose at the top; the collapse of a brick veneer, brick cavity or masonry-backed stone wall. The impact of an aerial platform master stream striking a veneer wall at close range can cause a curtain-fall collapse of bricks. C) Ninety-Degree-Angle Wall Collapse - A type of building wall collapse; the wall falls straight out as a monolithic piece at a 90-degree angle, similar to a falling tree. The top of the falling wall strikes the ground a distance from the base of the wall that is equal to the height of the falling section. Bricks or steel lintels may bounce or roll out beyond this distance. D) Tent Floor Collapse - A floor collapse in the shape of a tent; when a floor collapses and an interior partition or wall holds up the center of the fallen floor. If the interior partition were not present, the result would be a pancake collapse. Collapse Add 3 3,4,7