More Questions Flashcards

Question

When operating at the scene of a high energy line break in a steam generating plant which statement below is incorrect? A: Asbestos pipe insulation can be found in the plant, on pipes buried under the street and in the buildings supplied with steam. B: Never enter a Con Edison generating plant without Con Ed personnel. C: FDNY personnel should only enter the plant to mitigate the emergency and perform search and rescue. D: A pinhole leak in a high pressure steam pipe, though invisible near the source, is capable of instantly cutting through a steel bolt.

Answer 1

When operating at the scene of a high energy line break in a steam generating plant which statement below is incorrect? A: Asbestos pipe insulation can be found in the plant, on pipes buried under the street and in the buildings supplied with steam. B: Never enter a Con Edison generating plant without Con Ed personnel. C:✔FDNY personnel should only enter the plant to mitigate the emergency and perform search and rescue. D: A pinhole leak in a high pressure steam pipe, though invisible near the source, is capable of instantly cutting through a steel bolt. Explanation: C. FDNY personnel should only enter the plant to perform search and rescue. PLANT PERSONNEL WILL MITIGATE THE EMERGENCY. Steam 4.1

Answer 2

When operating as the Lobby Control Unit Leader, you should strive to keep two elevators in a state or readiness on which floors? A: Lobby and fire floor B: Lobby and floor below fire floor C:✔Lobby and two floors below the fire D: Both elevators in Lobby Explanation: Lobby and Forward Staging Area ICS ch 2 add 4 sec 4.2 High-Rise Office P-4 (glossary)

Answer 3

A salty Manhattan engine chauffeur would know which point below is correct regarding the operation of fire pumps in high rise office buildings? A:✔Most high-rise buildings are equipped with 2 manual fire pumps. B: For a fire on the 13th floor, 250 psi is the recommended pump pressure. C: If a building has a combination standpipe/sprinkler system with the Siamese connected to both systems, the usual arrangement for the fire pumps is both will be manual. D: If the fire pumps fail to start after performing the four step procedure, members should repeat the four step starting procedure. Explanation: Firefighting Procedures High Rise Office Bldgs. A-Sec. 4.1.8 F, Note: each will have its own control panel and both SHALL be started AND used. B-Sec. 4.1.7-200 psi. C-Sec. 4.1.8 one will be automatic and one will be manual. D-Sec. 4.1.5 if they fail to start, use the emergency power lever, push or pull it to the on position.

Answer 4

Some places of worship have a ventilation opening for the concealed attic space called an “attic vent.” Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding Department operations relating to this structural feature? A: For firefighters, this ventilation opening provides an excellent location for water application to extinguish fire in the area above the concealed attic or cockloft. B: This ventilation opening is typically located on the front or rear of the long side of a place of worship. When located in the front, it will be a few feet above the Rose window. C:✔When fire is not visible within the large area but suspected to be within the concealed area of the attic or cockloft, water application into the rose window is the priority. D: Water application into the ventilation opening should be the priority following the control of a fire within the large open space using the rose window. Explanation: When fire is located within the large open area, the first priority is a tower ladder stream into the ROSE WINDOW. However, when fire is not visible within the large area but suspected to be within the concealed area of the attic or cockloft, water application into the VENTILATION OPENING is the priority. Places of Worship 3.2

Answer 5

Which unit is responsible for shutting the utilities at a Private Dwelling fire? A: 1st arriving Ladder Company B:✔2nd arriving Ladder Company C: Rescue D: Squad Explanation: Private Dwellings ch 4 sec 4.2

Answer 6

Both Con Edison Gas and National Grid use two types of single resource crews; one is capable of assessing and working on natural gas pipe above ground, and one is in charge of natural gas pipe below ground. Knowing the names of these crews and their duties is essential to ensuring the prompt arrival of these resources at gas emergencies. Which of the following choices is incorrect? A: Con Edison Gas’ above-ground branch crews are called “Gas Distribution Services” or “GDS” crews. Below-ground branch crews for Con Edison Gas are called “Gas Construction” crews. B:✔National Grid’s above-ground branch crews are called “Gas Field Operations” crews. National Grid’s below-ground branch crews are called “ Customer Meter Service” crews. C: Calling either Utility Company for a “construction crew” should be sufficient to get a crew capable of working on pipe below-ground. D: It is important to specify the need for a “construction crew” if the operation may require work below ground. If a curb valve/service valve fails on a low pressure system, a “construction crew” will be required. Explanation: B) National Grid’s above-ground branch crews are called “CUSTOMER METER SERVICE” crews. National Grid’s below-ground branch crews are called “GAS FIELD OPERATIONS” crews. EP Gas 11

Answer 7

Investigation of complaints (A-17) must be investigated within what time frame upon receipt? A:✔Within 24 hours upon receipt B: Within 48 hours upon receipt C: Within 1 week upon receipt D: Immediately upon receipt Explanation: Complaints shall be investigated promptly, but must be investigated within 24 hours after receipt - Fax unendorsed copy of A-17 (final or interim) to BISP Unit immediately after conducting an investigation - ONLY final reports shall be emailed through chain of command AUC 5 ch 3 add 6 sec 2.2

Answer 8

Rehabilitation following a fire operation and proper maintenance of bunker gear are essential to firefighter safety. Which of the following choices is incorrect? A: Battalion Chiefs may authorize up to 2 hours of rest and rehabilitation. B: Deputy Chiefs May authorize up to 3 hours of rest and rehabilitation. C: During rest and rehabilitation time, members shall shower and change into clean work duty uniforms as soon as possible. D:✔Members may have their gear laundered by the Decon Support Unit following a fire. These members are not required to send in their bunker gear for mandatory, advanced cleaning if the gear was decontaminated by the the Decon Support Unit within the previous six months. Explanation: D) When members have their gear laundered by the Decon Support Unit following a fire, they SHALL STILL send in their bunker gear for mandatory, advanced cleaning. Sending bunker gear out for decontamination to the Decon Support Unit does NOT satisfy advanced cleaning requirements. AUC 310 10.4.3, 10.4.4. 14.2

Answer 9

Beginning “each tour”, immediately after the 0900 and 1800 roll calls, all of the following maintenance items are required on the apparatus with the exception of which choice? A: Fill Fuel Tank B: Check Seat Belts C: Check Warning Devices D:✔Check Battery Condition Explanation: D) This falls under DAILY maintenance A Note: Fuel Tank - Also, after extended periods of operation, or when necessary, check and fill fuel during tour. Also done every tour: Purge air tanks Check Intercom system TB App C-2 3.1-3.2

Answer 10

The building and subway repeater channels each have a reverse channel on the UHF mobile radio. Which one listed is correct? A: Channel 13 is the reverse channel for channel 12 B:✔Channel 12 is the reverse channel for channel 11 C: Channel 16 is the reverse channel for channel 14 D: Channel 17 is the reverse channel for channel 15 Explanation: 12 is reverse for 11 (+1) 14 is reverse for 12 (+2) 17 is reverse for 14 (+3) 19 is reverse for 15 (+4) THESE CHANNELS WERE ADDED TO BULLETIN WITH ITS RELEASE IN JULY 2020 Communications Ch 13 5.2

Answer 11

Engine 99 arrives first due at the scene of a reported gas leak in apartment 3A on the 3rd floor of a multiple dwelling. There are no other units on-scene. The officer takes the following actions. Which one is incorrect? A: The gas meter was activated prior to entering the building. B: The meter displayed 5% LEL in the lobby, so the officer proceeded to the callers apartment to gather more information. C:✔The remaining members of the company immediately stretched a precautionary hoseline into the lobby of the building. D: The officer reported the conditions to the ladder officer and the BC upon their arrival. Explanation: C. The remaining members of the company were PREPARED TO stretch a precautionary hoseline POSITIONED OUTSIDE THE POTENTIAL BLAST ZONE. Natural Gas 6.5 Pg 20 Note: on page 32 it states " If the Natural Gas Meter displays any readings at the building entrance/first floor, the LADDER COMPANY INSIDE TEAM should go directly go to the basement/cellar to investigate. Do not delay by going to a caller on an upper floor"

Answer 12

You are an S/A Lt. working in Wood City, Brooklyn. Your first run is a phone alarm for fire in a vacant and on arrival, you find heavy fire venting from all floors of a four-story vacant frame in the middle of a row of 7 vacant frames. Which of the following line placement options is INCORRECT for the second line at this fire when the first line was stretched to exposure 2? A: The second line was needed to back up the first and was stretched to exposure 2. B:✔The second line was stretched to the fire building. C: The second line was stretched through exposure 4 to operate in the rear yard. D: The second line was stretched to exposure 4. Explanation: B IS INCORRECT – 6.7B3 – If not needed to back up the first hose line, stretched to the opposite exposure or through an exposure to the rear yard. A – 6.7B3 C – 6.7B3. D – 6.7B3

Answer 13

If unable to obtain a male patient's name on a CFR run, the correct description of the patient shall be written on the PCR as follows ________. A: John Doe B:✔Unknown Male C: FDNY Bus designation (ex- 46B) D: Name section shall be left blank Explanation: CFR ch 5 sec 4.4.1 B If unable to obtain a name, a description of the patient’s gender preceded by ‘Unknown’ shall be written in these boxes (e.g., Unknown Male). This area shall never be left blank and ‘JANE/JOHN DOE’ shall NOT be used.

Answer 14

Which collapse consideration is listed incorrectly for loft buildings? A: Wide-dimensional Cast-iron lofts having front and rear walls supporting girders pose catastrophic collapse potential should they be compromised. B: Floor and/or wall collapse can be caused by excessive water use and water absorption into structural elements and building contents. Roof and floor drains should be checked by firefighters and cleared of debris, as necessary, utilizing hand tools. C: A brick wall with sand lime mortar can have this bonding material washed out by large caliber streams, dislodging bricks and seriously weakening the wall. D:✔If the structural stability of gravity tank supports is questionable, consider draining the contents of the tank and diverting the water off the roof into a drain pipe, or by opening a standpipe outlet on an upper floor. Explanation: If the structural stability of gravity tank supports is questionable, consider draining the contents of the tank and diverting the water off the roof into a drain pipe, or by opening a standpipe outlet on a LOWER floor. Loft 9.1.1, 9.1.3-9.1.5

Answer 15

Harlem units respond to a reported fire in a subway station. Upon arrival, the first engine officer saw it was a train car fire. He correctly transmitted a 10-__. A: 28 no code B: 28 code 1 C:✔28 code 2 D: 28 code 3 Explanation: Communications Ch 8 page 9 10-28 code is transmitted for a Subway or Railroad System 10-28 code 1 Structural fire 10-28 code 2 Non-Structural fire (e.g. train fire, rubbish on the tracks, etc.) 10-28 code 3 Emergency (non-medical)

Answer 16

The correct suffix when responding in as a System Control Unit can be found in which choice? A:✔E100Y B: E100S C: E100I D: L100S Explanation: B- E100S Communications Unit C- E100I FireIce Unit D- Ladder companies are NOT designated as a System Control Unit Communications Ch 2 p-37

Answer 17

Ladder 100 is operating 2nd due at a fire on the top floor of a brownstone type rowframe. Which action performed by Ladder 100 is incorrect? A: The company split and examined exposures for extension to the cockloft with the inside team operating in the most severely threatened exposure. B: If Ladder 100’s inside team determines that a stop of the fire can be made in the exposure, a hand line must be called for. C:✔Ladder 100’s roof firefighter made an examination of the returns of the exposures. Returns remote from the fire must be checked for extension to the cockloft. D: Because there was no rear fire escape, Ladder 100’s OV firefighter proceeded to the roof. Explanation: C. Ladder 100’s roof firefighter made an examination of the returns of the exposures. Returns remote from the fire SHOULD BE AVOIDED AS THIS ACTION COULD SPREAD THE FIRE IN THE COCKLOFT. NOTE D: WHEN THERE IS NO REAR FIRE ESCAPE, THE 2ND OV SHALL TEAM UP WITH THE CHAUFFEUR FOR EXPOSURE EXAMINATION OR THEY SHALL PROCEED TO THE ROOF. **EITHER OPTION IS CORRECT** Rowframes 5.8

Answer 18

CFR-D Units must begin each tour with __ certified Firefighters. In the event that during a tour the minimum CFR-D staffing reduces to __ Firefighter(s) and 1 Officer, the Company shall remain available for CFR-D response. A:✔2,1 B: 3,2 C: 3,1 D: 4,2 Explanation: CFR Ch 2 sec 1.8 Note

Answer 19

The statement that incorrectly describes the MSA Altair Digital Gas Meter can be found in which choice? A: The MSA Altair Digital Gas Meter does not replace existing Sensit TKX Detectors, but must be used in conjunction with the Sensit TKX Detector B: The MSA Altair Digital Gas Meter is equipped with two sensors, one for combustible gas and the other for oxygen C: When the MSA Altair Digital Gas Meter is OOS, the officer on duty shall not send the meter through the bag for a replacement, instead the officer on duty shall call Haz-Mat Operations and request a replacement D:✔The MSA Altair Digital Gas Meter can be used to detect gases other than natural gas Explanation: A- sec 1.1 B- sec 1.2 C- sec 3.1 D- The meter should NOT be used to detect gases other than natural gas..... sec 1.2 Emergency Procedures Natural Gas add 2

Answer 20

Which flagging column entry should be made in the company journal when a Department mechanic repairs the apparatus in quarters? A: RP B:✔RPR C: MAINT D: MECH Explanation: CJ 5

Answer 21

You are working in Ladder 171 and your unit is operating at a fire in a taxpayer which is now under control. As a vent support unit, you are tasked of coordinating the ventilation of the 100x100 building where CO readings have been holding in the 100 PPM area. Which statement regarding using fans for ventilation is CORRECT? A: Gasoline powered positive pressure fans will not significantly reduce the CO levels due to the emissions produced by the fans. B: In the area where the fire was controlled by sprinklers, the exhaust area should be as low as possible to minimize the smoke damage to the structure. C: A rule of thumb is the air inlet where the fan is located should be double the size of the exhaust opening. D:✔Fans blowing fresh exterior air into the structure have shown to be 75% more efficient than negative pressure ventilation. Explanation: AUC 349 – POSITIVE PRESSURE FANS D IS CORRECT– 9.3 A – If CO levels are 0-60 range, PPF will not significantly reduce those levels. The levels in the question are at 100. 8.2 B – Exhaust area should be as high as possible 9.2 C – OPPOSITE -- Exhaust opening should be double the size of the opening where the PPF is located 9.2

Answer 22

Following the priority order for valve closures when operating at a gas emergency, which valve would you shut if you were unable to shut the master meter valve? A: Interior gas riser valve B: Individual meter valve C:✔Head of service valve D: Curb valve Explanation: 1. Appliance valve 2. Interior gas riser valve 3. Individual meter valve 4. Master meter valve 5. Head of service valve 6. Curb valve/Service valve 7. Main Valve CODE: “ANY INTERIOR INDIVIDUAL MIGHT HAVE CLOSED MAIN” Natural Gas 6.7.3

Answer 23

Which of the following choices regarding the Electronic BF-4 is INCORRECT? A:✔Once all the members for the tour have reported for duty and are assigned riding positions, a final EBF-4 shall be submitted. This Final EBF-4 cannot be changed. B: Only members actually riding the apparatus of that unit shall be included on the unit EBF-4. Do not include members detailed to another unit for the tour. C: In the event a probationary firefighter is not identified by an PR notation, only the company commander can add the designation following the instructions provided. D: The officer shall ensure that each member has the correct radio and the spare radio designation on the EBF-4 is accurate. Explanation: AUC 346 – ELECTRONIC RIDING LIST (EBF-4) A IS INCORRECT – Final EBF-4 shall be updated anytime during the tour as necessary (e.g. ML, early relief, staff change, reduced staffing) 2.3 B – 2.4 C – 2.7 Note D – 2.6 Note

Answer 24

The FAST officer is the most influential member of the FAST unit. Which procedure described below for the FAST officer is incorrect? A: The officer of the FAST unit shall announce their arrival on the scene over the handie-talkie and report to the ICP, unless otherwise directed by the IC. B: If assigned by the IC to other than FAST duties, the FAST officer shall remind the IC of their FAST designation. C:✔When communicating to other units, the FAST officer shall utilize the word FAST in lieu of their unit designation. Ex: “FAST to Command” D: The FAST officer should bring an up to date copy of the response ticket to the ICP which would include any CIDS information that is available. Explanation: C. When communicating to other units, the FAST officer shall utilize the word FAST AFTER THE UNIT DESIGNATION. Ex: “L-157-FAST to Command” Managing Members in Distress Ch 2: 4.1, 4.2, 4.3, 4.5

Answer 25

E165 and L85 respond to a CO alarm in a private dwelling. The CO levels are slightly fluctuating and the members' actions were correct in all cases except ________. A: 9 PPM- Inform occupant that our meter has not detected an elevated CO level and the members SCBA shall be worn. B: 10 PPM- Inform occupants that they have a potentially dangerous level of CO and the members SCBA shall be used. C: 10 PPM drops to 9 PPM so the officers let the premises be reoccupied, because the appliance causing the CO was shut down. D:✔10 PPM- Begin evacuation of all persons in the affected, ventilation, and the members SCBA shall be used. Explanation: D. RECOMMEND that all persons leave the affected area and begin ventilation. You BEGIN evacuation when levels hit 100PPM. HazMat Ch 4 sec 4.4.3 and 4.5.2 SCBA shall be worn at all CO investigations and used at all CO Emergencies. sec 4.2.5 CO Incidents: Meter readings of 9 PPM or less CO Emergency: Meter readings of greater than 9 PPM Meter readings of greater than 9 PPM but less than 100 PPM: Inform occupants that they have a potentially dangerous level of CO. Recommend that all persons leave the affected area and begin ventilation. If it is determined that an appliance is malfunctioning and thereby producing CO, it should be shut down. Once the faulty appliance is shut down and ventilation has reduced the CO level to 9 PPM or less the premises may be reoccupied. Meter Readings of 100 PPM and Greater: Inform occupants that we have detected a potentially lethal level of CO. Begin evacuation of the affected area and ventilate. Sec 4.5

Answer 26

When performing rapid evacuation at a major gas emergency, which one tactic mentioned is incorrect? A:✔This is similar to primary searches conducted at fires and is accomplished with as few members in the potential blast zone as possible. B: Rapid evacuation is conducted by knocking on doors and moving from door to door to alert occupants. C: Forcible entry should only be accomplished for a known life hazard and should not be attempted to access areas that show no signs of being occupied. D: Conventional forcible entry involving the use of an axe to strike the halligan is not permitted. Explanation: A. This is SIGNIFICANTLY DIFFERENT FROM primary searches conducted at fires and is accomplished with as few members in the potential blast zone as possible. Natural Gas 9.1.3

Answer 27

The HT is equipped with a "time-out-timer" which cuts off the transmitter after how many seconds? A: 15 B: 20 C:✔30 D: 60 Explanation: Communications ch 9 sec 9.5.10.Note

Answer 28

Capt Welch is drilling the members of a slashing Brooklyn firehouse about the danger of vacant structures. He makes 4 statements and is correct in all except? A: Primary markings shall be made alongside the front entrance of the building at a height that is in line with the area directly over the front entrance. Markings should be high enough to ensure visibility. To achieve this height, a ladder may be required. B: The letters “FO” (floor openings) shall be made directly underneath vacant building markings in cases when members determine that floors within the building have holes or openings that may endanger members. C:✔Any company may place vacant building markings using the prescribed format. As soon as possible thereafter, the supervising officer must notify the administrative company that the building has been marked and an eCIDS card was entered. D: The letters “RO” (roof open) shall be made directly over the vacant building markings in cases when a roof is opened to the degree that there is little need for future vertical ventilation Explanation: Vacants Sec 3.1 Company officers from the administrative unit shall ensure that all vacant buildings in their administrative districts are entered into the eCIDS program.

Answer 29

All of the following features are indicative of Newer Cast-Iron Lofts (1880s – 1901) except? A: These lofts have exterior walls made from brick, stone, framed wrought-iron/cast-iron or steel. B: These lofts may be 8-12 stories, and 50 feet wide by 90 feet deep. C:✔All exterior walls have a minimum 2 hour fire resistive rating. D: Windows are operable but the installation of central HVAC systems are more often found serving multiple floors of a common tenant. Explanation: All exterior walls have a minimum 3 hour fire resistive rating. B Note: There are also larger, irregularly (P-shaped) constructed buildings as well as buildings with conventional dimensions having up to 100 feet frontages and 200 feet depths. Loft 4.2.1

Answer 30

While operating at the scene of a collapse members hear 1 long blast and 1 short blast from a lookouts airhorn. They should perform which one of the following actions? A: Cease operations B:✔Resume operations C: All quiet D: Evacuate the area Explanation: 1 long blast (3 seconds): Cease operations/all quiet (CODE 1 = CEASE (1 WORD)) 1 long blast 1 short blast: Resume operations (CODE 2 = RESUME OPS (2 WORDS)) 3 short blasts (1 second each): Evacuate the area (CODE 3 = EVACUATE THE AREA (3 WORDS)) Collapse Page 19

Answer 31

Following a string of Maydays, the officers of Engine 256 and Ladder 171 decided to have a drill on Mayday Operations. Which statement below regarding use of the Pak-Tracker is CORRECT? A: When taking a reading with the Pak Tracker, always pause for 4-5 seconds. B: The Pak Tracker will emit a two-tone audible alarm when it receives a signal from a Pass Device in full alarm for 20 seconds. C:✔During a search, the LED’s will begin to light when the signal strength rises above the 50% level. D: Once a Pak Tracker locks onto one signal, it still retains the ability to receive additional Pass Alarm signals. Explanation: TRAINING BULLETINS SCBA ADDENDUM 8 C IS CORRECT - 7.6 A – Always pause for 3-4 seconds. 7.9 B – Goes into full alarm for 10 seconds 5.2 D – The Pak-Tracker receiver can only lock onto one SCBA signal at a time. 5.4

Answer 32

To make corrections on the PCR, members shall place a single line through the word(s) to be omitted or corrected and write the accurate information above the word(s) to be corrected. When correcting a darkened circle, _______________. A:✔place a single line through the error and fill in the correct section. The initials of the member making the correction shall be placed above the single line. B: place a double line through the error and fill in the correct section. The initials of the member making the correction shall be placed above the single line. C: place a single line through the error and fill in the correct section. Initials next to the error are no longer necessary. D: place a double line through the error and fill in the correct section. Initials next to the error are no longer necessary. Explanation: CFR Ch 5 sec 3.4

Answer 33

When using the tower ladder as a high point anchor at a confined space, members should be aware of its weight-supporting capacity of at least ___ lbs. A: 500 B: 800 C:✔1000 D: 1200 Explanation: Aerial Ladders 250 lbs Emergency Procedures Confined Space sec 4.3

Answer 34

Uses of portable ladders at fires can be incorrectly described in which choice? A: During a tenement fire without a front fire escape, portable ladders shall be raised adjacent to and above the fire area when the fire is in the cellar, 1st floor, and/or 2nd floor B: During a tenement fire with a front fire escape, a portable ladder shall be raised to the first balcony at a point opposite the drop ladder C: During a tenement fire when a rear rescue is to be performed, portable ladders must, if possible, be taken through the 1st floor public hall, apartments or store to the rear yard to effect rescue D:✔During a tenement fire with party wall balconies, the 16' hook ladder may be used to gain access to various balcony levels by the Roof or OV FFs for search and rescue Explanation: 12' hook ladder *** The ladder may be brought to the rear yard as mentioned above, or brought to the roof via Aerial, TL or utility rope and lowered to the top balcony Portable Ladders sec 10

Answer 35

You are the first arriving Engine Officer at a fire in a parking garage and have opted to place a foam line in operation to contain the extension. You transmit the box to get a 3 & 2 response. How much foam and operating time will you get from your standard 3 engine and 2 ladder assignment supplying one foam hand line with 3% solution? A: 15 cans with an operation time of approximately 15 mins B:✔13 cans with an operation time of approximately 17 mins C: 10 cans with an operation time of approximately 15 mins D: 12 cans with an operation time of approximately 17 mins Explanation: TRAINING BULLETIN - FOAM B IS CORRECT -- Engine companies carry three 5-gallon cans and trucks 2 5-gallon cans for a total of 13 cans on a first alarm assignment. Operational time for a single foam line at 3% will be approximately 17 minutes.... 7.2

Answer 36

Liquefied Petroleum Gases are _______ than air A:✔1.5 to 2 times heavier B: 2.5 to 3 times heavier C: 1.5 to 2 times lighter D: 2.5 to 3 times lighter Explanation: HazMat Ch 1 sec 1.2.5

Answer 37

Company officers should be familiar with the proper layout of the company journal. Of the following choices, which is incorrect? A: Inside the front cover, affix a current accurate company roster. B:✔In quarters where a Battalion Depot (mask cylinders) is located, the company journal shall be ruled and indexed for entries by MSU members and chief officers on page 495 running forward as necessary. C: Pages 497 running backwards to 495 shall be ruled and indexed to record company drills. D: Pages 500 running backward to 498 shall be ruled and indexed to record chief's visits. Explanation: In quarters where a Battalion Depot (mask cylinders) is located, the company journal shall be ruled and indexed for entries by MSU members and chief officers on page 494 running backwards as necessary. CJ 3.1-3.3, 3.5

Answer 38

First alarm units are taking up from a fire in the mezzanine area of a taxpayer. They are discussing some of the features of these mezzanines but are incorrect in which one choice below? A: Some are found in the rear of the store or building, some along one side from front to rear or along part of one side, and a few have been erected in the center of the premises. B:✔The mezzanine area is in most cases used for sales areas, but it can contain storage areas and offices. C: Access to this area may be via small wooden stairs or just a ladder. Very seldom will there be another means of access. D: In the majority of the mezzanines this area will not be enclosed and there will be a railing at the edge. Explanation: B. The mezzanine area is in most cases used for STORAGE OF GOODS, but it can contain OFFICES (PREDOMINANT IN SUPERMARKETS AND FACTORIES) AND ALSO SALES AREAS TO WHICH THE PUBLIC WILL HAVE ACCESS. Taxpayers 2.4

Answer 39

During a High Rise Fire Proof Multiple Dwelling fire, which FFs are responsible to bring the K.O. Curtain to the floor above? A: 1st and 2nd Roof FFs B: 1st Roof FF and Squad Roof FF C:✔1st and 3rd Roof FFs D: 2nd and 3rd Roof FFs Explanation: Multiple Dwellings Ch 2 sec 9.1, 9.3

Answer 40

The incorrect use of a portable ladder can be found in which choice? A: In most cases, when operating at a Brownstone fire, taking the ladder through the second floor of an adjoining Brownstone and passing it out the rear window to another member in the yard below is faster than using the fire building B:✔When transporting a portable ladder through a Brownstone, it is important to take the ladder through with the butt facing the front of the building C: In a row frame, transporting a ladder through the interior of the building to the rear is generally less complicated because there are front and rear doors or window entries at ground level D: Most often, all floors in the rear of a Brownstone can be reached with portable extension ladders. For example: 35' extension ladder can reach the 4th floor Explanation: When transporting a portable ladder through a Brownstone, it is important to take the ladder through with the butt facing the REAR of the building Portable Ladders p- 20

Answer 41

Motor vehicle accidents with victims pinned pose a unique challenge to our members. Which comment below describing these operations is incorrect? A: The “golden hour” refers to the first hour from the beginning of an accident with critical injuries. A victim delivered to a surgical team within this first hour has the best chance for survival. B: Crumple zones have drastically increased the ability of occupants to survive the impact, but it can complicate the disentanglement effort due to the strength of the deformed metal structures. C:✔The transverse dash beam located behind the dashboard ties into the B posts and the floor pan making dashboard lifts more difficult. D: The side door beam, when driven into the frame upon impact, will make door removal more difficult due to its strength. Explanation: C. The transverse dash beam located behind the dashboard ties into the A POSTS and the floor pan making dashboard lifts more difficult. Disentanglement 1.1, 2.3, 2.4, 2.5

Answer 42

Members are discussing roof ventilation at taxpayer fires and make the following points. Which one is incorrect? A: Generally, vertical openings are made at the roof level. Scuttles, skylights, or covers of former skylights that are located over or near the main body of fire should be opened first. B: An insufficient vent opening will cause the heat, smoke, and fire to “back up” and vent toward other available flow path openings, including the entrance opening used by the advancing hose line. C: A roof sector supervisor must supervise roof operations when more than one power saw is working on the roof. D:✔A roof sector supervisor should be assigned as early as possible to supervise roof operations. This must be a chief officer as designated by the IC. Explanation: A roof sector supervisor should be assigned as early as possible to supervise roof operations. This COULD BE A CHIEF OR COMPANY OFFICER as designated by the IC. CROSS REF 5.5.20: WHEN ROOF CUTTING IS CRITICAL, A CHIEF OFFICER SHOULD BE ASSIGNED AS ROOF SECTOR SUPERVISOR TO COORDINATE AND DIRECT ROOF OPERATIONS. Taxpayers 5.4.5, 5.4.6, 5.4.12, 5.4.14

Answer 43

While in quarters, you receive a phone call on the Department phone from a civilian complaining about rubbish in the hall of their apartment building. Immediately upon hanging up the phone, you should make an entry in the company journal with which flagging column entry? A: Cmp B:✔Com C: AFID D: BISP

Answer 44

Ladder 58 responds to their second lithium ion battery fire of the tour. L58 officer states the batteries should be moved to the following location in order of preference until it can be appropriately over packed. Which order is correctly stated? 1. Bathroom tub in fire apartment, with all cells fully submerged in water. 2. Sink large enough that all cells can be fully submerged in water. 3. Garbage pail or bucket large enough that all cells are capable of being fully submerged in water. 4. When the above options are not practical, the Incident Commander may remove the batteries or mobility device via a fire apartment window. A: 1,3,2,4 B: 2,1,3,4 C: 2,3,1,4 D:✔1,2,3,4 Explanation: HM 20 sec 5.5

Answer 45

The incorrect Incinerator operation can be found in which choice? A: Officer, FE team, and OV FF of the ladder company will generally operate inside the building to ventilate, search, and to locate the blockage B: An indication that the blockage is above the floor you are on, is when you open a chute door and smoke comes out C: An indication that the blockage is below the floor you are on, is when you open a chute door and a draft goes inward or there is little smoke D:✔Before leaving the lobby area, the Roof FF is to ensure the stairwell door at ground floor level is closed as to not create an updraft in the building Explanation: It is very important that, before the Roof FF leaves the lobby he chocks open the stairwell door at the ground floor level. This will provide for maximum draft and vertical ventilation when the roof bulkhead door is opened Training Bulletins Fires 7 sec 2

Answer 46

In situations where size, construction, layout, or operational requirements of a building warrant, an enhanced “minimum response” representing the number of engines and ladders required, placed last in the “transmitted data” section of eCIDS, would trigger a predetermined response. Which choice below most correctly reflects how this should be entered? A:✔MINRESP 33 B: MIN RESP 33 C: MINRESP 3 3 D: CLE MAND 33 Explanation: Comm 4 4.5.3 E5

Answer 47

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding collapse considerations at fires in places of worship? A: Both older and newer architecture places of worship are susceptible to early collapse. B:✔The steeple is the tapered, pointed structure, usually with a Crucifix or other religious artifact at its tip. A dome above a tower is more unstable than a steeple above a bell tower. C: When the roof fails, it can push the sidewalls out into the street. Conversely, when the sidewalls are weakened by fire and fail, the roof will collapse and fall, along with the ceiling, into the nave or floor area. D: When evaluating the collapse potential and establishing collapse zones, the exposure 2 and 4 sides due to the bearing walls and the exposure side of the steeple or bell tower (front of the building) are the most dangerous areas during a fire. Explanation: The steeple is the tapered, pointed structure, usually with a Crucifix or other religious artifact at its tip. A STEEPLE atop a bell tower is MORE UNSTABLE than a DOME above a tower. Places of Worship 4.2, 4.3, 4.6, 4.7

Answer 48

The discharge pressure for standpipe operations during a fire on the 72nd floor in a High-Rise multiple dwelling can be found in which choice? A: 450 psi B:✔460 psi C: 480 psi D: 500 psi Explanation: 105+355 (71x5) = 460 The guideline of supplying a standpipe system with 105 psi, plus an additional 5 psi per floor of elevation should be used as the primary guide at most operations in buildings that are known to be older, traditional construction Eng Ops ch 5 sec 4.3.8 Eng Ops Ch 8 add 2 DO NOT CONFUSE THIS HIGH-RISE OFFICE BUILDINGS. Office buildings are floors 1-10 150 psi 11-20 200 psi 21-30 250 psi etc..... High-Rise Office sec 4.1.7

Answer 49

The most common color of high voltage cables on Hybrid vehicles can be found in which choice? A: Red B: Black C: Yellow D:✔Orange Explanation: On most, the high voltage cables are color coded ORANGE. Although some cables are color coded BLUE ***NEVER CUT ANY HIGH VOLTAGE CABLES Training Bulletins Fires 8 sec 11.6

Answer 50

Several features of rowframe buildings are described below. Which one is incorrect? A:✔These buildings can be either balloon or platform construction. B: The salient feature common to all, regardless of variations in design, is the common cockloft spreading over all the buildings in a row. C: Common or poorly fire stopped cockloft and cornice permits rapid fire spread into exposures. D: Light and airshafts are found in some, while not in others. Usually, the buildings of longer length will have the shafts. Explanation: A. These buildings can be either balloon or BRACED FRAME construction. Rowframes 5.1.3, 5.2.2, 5.2.4, 5.2.6

Answer 51

There are times when members may have to utilize their PSS to rapidly exit a room on fire. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding this evolution? A: The PSS should only be used after all other means of self rescue have been exhausted. B: When a member has decided to deploy the Personal Safety System, a Mayday transmission for a “trapped member” must be transmitted. C: When a point of safety is reached after using your Personal Safety System, the Incident Commander must be notified. D:✔Anchoring the hook into the corner of a window is the preferred method of securing the PSS, rather than tying off to a substantial object. Explanation: If conditions permit, tying off to a substantial object is the preferred method of anchoring the personal safety system. B Note: In addition to all other required information relayed for a trapped member, include that you are in the process of deploying the Personal Safety System. Evol 24 3

Answer 52

Which of the following is CORRECT regarding power removal during a natural gas emergency? A: In most cases, power cannot be removed from the potential blast zone without introducing the risk of ignition. B: If members can remove power from the area of the leak before natural gas readings reach greater than 80% LEL, it should be done. C: If any readings display levels greater than 80% LEL, the opportunity to cut power has expired. D:✔When unable to locate the source of the leak, do not cut power. Explanation: EMERGENCY PROCEDURES – NATURAL GAS D IS CORRECT – 9.2.2 A – Power cannot be removed without introducing the risk of ignition. 9.2.2 B – BEFORE natural gas readings REACH 80% LEL C – IF any readings display LEVELS OF 80% LEL OR GREATER, the opportunity has expired.

Answer 53

Inflatable water rescue hose can be deployed in either a straight line or loop. Which other feature of this operation is described incorrectly? A: More than two lengths of hose can be used for larger operations increasing the amount of people that can be supported. B:✔Units should have the air filled hose secured with the lifesaving rope. C: Each looped length is capable of supporting 10 people. D: Straight line deployment can be used at incidents from a pier or shore involving a few victims within close proximity. Explanation: Units should have the air filled hose secured with UTILITY ROPE. Water Rescue 2 Addendum 1: 4.1, 4.2, 4.3

Answer 54

When stretching and operating a foam handline, the incorrect procedure can be found in which choice? A: Location for the eductor is at the pumper outlet only B: When using 1 3/4" hose, the maximum stretch is 6 lengths to the nozzle C: When using 2 1/2" hose, the maximum stretch is 10 lengths to the nozzle D:✔150 PSI shall be supplied to the eductor Explanation: 200 PSI at the eductor Training Bulletins Foam Evolution 1 sec 2

Answer 55

The Pak-Tracker will receive a signal from a PASS device that has been in full-alarm mode for how long? A:✔10 seconds B: 20 seconds C: 30 seconds D: 60 seconds Explanation: The receiver will emit a 2-tone audible alarm, and the LCD display will show the SCBA's identity (unit and member assignment) and relative signal strength ***The Pak-Tracker receiver can only lock onto one SCBA at a time Training Bulletins SCBA add 8 sec 5.2 and 5.4

Answer 56

Chemical suicides have been growing worldwide. Warning signs may be present on the car, in an apartment, or other confined areas. A chemical suicide person may exhibit all of the following signs except: A: Victim appears to be sleeping B: Victim showing signs of chemical exposure (difficulty breathing, convulsions or gasping) C:✔Victim blue in color (similar to carbon monoxide poisoning) D: Presence of chemical containers or strong chemical odors, such as hydrogen sulfide (rotten egg smell) Explanation: Victim red in color Haz-Mat 11 sec 3

Answer 57

The distance between each set of directional/distance markers on a search rope is ___ feet. A: 6 feet B:✔25 feet C: 35 feet D: 50 feet Explanation: TB Rope 6 sec 3.3

Answer 58

The most correct signal to give for an alarm system activation resulting from a utility power fluctuation can be found in which choice? A: 10-35-1 B: 10-35-2 C: 10-35-3 D: 10-35-4 E:✔10-40-2 Explanation: A-alarm testing or servicing B- Construction activities C- Ordinary household activities D- other known cause Also, use 10-35 no code for an alarm activation WITHOUT a known cause or when no condition warranting an emergency response Communications ch 8 page 8-10

Answer 59

Prior to the arrival of the FAST Truck, the designated Safety Team shall be positioned outside of the IDLH atmosphere and are responsible for all of the following except? A: Monitor handie-talkie transmissions for calls for assistance from members operating in an IDLH atmosphere, mayday, or urgent transmissions, and transmissions from interior teams that are not being acknowledged. B: Be prepared to enter the IDLH atmosphere to render assistance if required. C: Be prepared to transmit the necessary mayday or urgent handie-talkie message if an interior team needs immediate assistance. D:✔Ensure that the Safety Chief is notified that the Safety Team is entering the IDLH atmosphere if necessary. Explanation: Ensure that the Incident Commander is notified that the Safety Team is entering the IDLH atmosphere if necessary. MMID Ch 1 3.1

Answer 60

For a top floor fire in an Old Law Tenement, the 2nd arriving Extinguisher FF should bring all tools below except? A: Handie-Talkie B: Flashlight C: two 6’ hooks D:✔Pressurized Water Extinguisher Explanation: For top floor fires, they should take two 6` hooks in lieu of the pressurized water extinguisher. Lads 3 3.4.4

Answer 61

The correct 10 code for a vehicle accident with no injuries and no wash down can be found in which choice? A: 10-36-1 B:✔10-36-2 C: 10-36-3 D: 10-36-4 Explanation: A- Vehicle accident or emergency requiring washdown C- Vehicle accident with injuries D- Vehicle accident, with or without injuries, with a trapped victim requiring extrication Communications ch 8 p- 10

Answer 62

Two members discussing trenching operations at taxpayer fires agreed on all statements below except which incorrect choice? A: The width of the trench should be at least three feet wide. A trench cut may be made in any direction. B: Trenching does not take the place of ventilation holes. Although a trench may serve as an additional ventilation source, it’s main purpose is to prevent the fire from passing that point at which the cut is made. C:✔️It is essential that units trench a large roof area of a taxpayer when fire has seriously involved a major portion of the cockloft to reduce the possibility of extension and possible loss of the building. D: The Roof Sector Supervisor can start a trench cut where he/she sees the necessity for it. Immediate notification to the Incident Commander of the operation is mandatory. Explanation: It is not practical to trench a large roof area of a taxpayer where fire has seriously involved a major portion of the cockloft. Emphasis must be placed on ventilation holes. Taxpayer 5.6

Answer 63

Which of the following chemical agents would cause skin blistering? A: Organophosphates B: Pulmonary agents C:✔Vesicants and choking agents D: VX Explanation: Nerve Agents (Organophosphates) - respiratory distress, convulsions, S-L-U-D-G-E-M Blister Agents (Vesicants) - signs and symptoms do not appear for several hours - skin blistering. Chocking agents also cause blisters. Blood (Pulmonary) Agents - victims gasping for air, convulsions VX is a nerve agent ERP Add 2 2.2

Answer 64

Which description of a lightweight parallel chord wood truss is incorrect? A: This type of support system is made up of 2x3” or 2x4” wooden web and chord members connected with sheet metal gusset plates. B: The gusset plates penetrate 1/4”-1/2” into the wooden truss member. C:✔The web is the weakest point of the support system. D: Due to the open-web characteristic of the truss system, fire which has entered a ceiling (trussloft) or roof space (cockloft/attic) may likely affect all truss supports on that level. Explanation: C. The GANG NAILS (AKA GUSSET PLATES) are the weakest point in the support system. Private Dwellings Ch 6: 3.2; 3.2.1

Answer 65

When operating on a highway, lighting and carrying flares can play an important role in terms of safety. Choose the incorrect information in regards to flares. A: When lighting flares or carrying a lit flare, care must be taken to point flares away from body at all times B:✔Carry lit flares in a vertical position to avoid burning wax or chemical from dropping onto hand or body C: Never look directly at a lit flare. This may cause temporary night blindness D: Replenish lit flares approximately every 30 minutes Explanation: Carry lit flares in a HORIZONTAL position to avoid burning wax or chemical from dropping onto hand or body Training Bulletins Fires 8 p-7

Answer 66

As with all other types of occupancies, size-up in private dwellings is essential to a successful operation. Which size-up factor mentioned below is incorrect? A: Modern three family MDs are often built with three separate entrances that have no common area. These structures require private dwelling tactics due to their PD style design. B: The main entrance is usually located in front of a PD, but sometimes it is located on the side as seen from the street. Secondary entrances can be located on the front, side and/or rear. C:✔Open joist construction of cellar ceilings increases the potential for rapid spread of heat, smoke, and fire. Open lightweight construction with a sheetrock ceiling will lead to early collapse. D: One or two offset windows on the exposure 2 or 4 side of a dwelling indicates that these are windows at the top and/or bottom of the second floor staircase. These offset windows should not be entered for VEIS. Explanation: C. Open joist construction of cellar ceilings increases the potential for rapid spread of heat, smoke, and fire. Open lightweight construction (ABSENCE OF A SHEETROCK CEILING) will lead to early collapse. Private Dwellings Ch 2: 2.4, 2.6, 2.7

Answer 67

When does “Rollover” occur in a fire? A:✔The Growth Stage B: The Fully Developed Stage C: The Decay Stage D: The Incipient Stage Explanation: Ventilation Glossary page vi Fire Dynamics ch 2 sec 1.2.3

Answer 68

All of the following statements are correct concerning the water extinguisher except? A: The water extinguisher is a pressure vessel and shall be hydrostatically tested at 5 year intervals or at any time an extinguisher shows evidence of corrosion or mechanical damage B:✔Using the extinguisher with a finger over the nozzle should only be used at very small or smoldering fires where there is a detectable thermal draft created by the fire C: The pressurized water extinguisher shall be inspected daily and after each use D: Water is expelled in 55 seconds Explanation: Training Bulletin Tools 1 B. Using the extinguisher with a finger over the nozzle should only be used at very small or smoldering fires where there is NO detectable thermal draft caused by the fire. D. Description, 4th bullet

Answer 69

There are many emergency procedures while using the SCBA. Which was performed incorrectly? A: Quick release- member transmits a mayday B: Low profile- No mayday is transmitted. Lay SCBA cylinder side down C: Reduced profile- Use right hand as a guide when passing through obstacle D:✔Swim move- try this move before the reduced profile. Bring left arm through obstacle first Explanation: D. Place right knee, right shoulder, and head through studs (placing left shoulder through first, may cause low pressure hose to get pinched) Training Bulletin SCBA 6.1 **When a member becomes entangled or trapped where he/she needs to perform an emergency procedure, that member MUST transmit a MAYDAY. You give a MAYDAY for a quick release

Answer 70

When placed to the roof, a portable ladder's tip should be at least ___ feet above the roof or parapet. A:✔2 B: 3 C: 4 D: 5 Explanation: Ladders 1 (7.4)

Answer 71

Arson is a serious crime in New York City and it is imperative that all officers be alert to signs indicating a suspicious fire. A competent Lt would be most correct when he made which statement below? A: Absence of a "V" Pattern always indicates an incendiary fire B: Small crazing indicates remoteness from the point of origin and/or relatively slow heat build up C:✔Checkering of glass usually results from water being applied to heated glass and indicates the window was still in place when firefighters operated at the fire D: Heavy smoke stains, remote from the point of origin, usually indicate a rapid build up of fire Explanation: A) COULD mean an accelerant was used B) Large crazing indicates this D) Usually indicate a SLOW fire build up TB Arson 6.5.4, 6.7.2, 6.7.3

Answer 72

If a dog attacks a member, other members in the immediate vicinity should render assistance. If anyone is bitten, every attempt should be made to isolate the dog for examination and notify all of the following except? A:✔Division B: EMS C: NYPD D: Medical Officer E: Board of Health Explanation: The Center for Animal Care and Control, if the dog is a stray Training Bulletins Fires 2 sec 4.13

Answer 73

What is the proper terminology for a firefighter to transmit when he/she finds an unconscious member? A: URGENT INJURED MEMBER B: MAYDAY DOWN MEMBER C: URGENT UNCONSCIOUS MEMBER D:✔MAYDAY UNCONSCIOUS MEMBER Explanation: Provide the following information: Location Unit and identity of the injured member Nature and extent of the injuries, if known Resources needed Comm 9.4.1 C3a

Answer 74

The Heads Up Display (HUD) on the SCBA consists of four lights to represent the cylinder pressure at Full, Three-Quarters, One-Half, and One-Quarter. The most correct statement in regards to the HUD can be found in which choice? A: The lights are circular in shape B:✔When cylinder valve is turned on, the HUD will initialize and illuminate all lights for 20 seconds C: One-Half cylinder will be indicated by one yellow light flashing rapidly D: One-Quarter cylinder will be indicated by a two red lights at the far left flashing rapidly at ten times a second Explanation: A- 4 Rectangular and 1 circular (Low battery) C- Flashing Slowly D- One red light ****Full cylinder- 2 green lights glowing **** Three-Quarters- 1 green light glowing **** One-Half- 1 yellow light flashing slowly at once a second **** One-Quarter- 1 red light at the far left flashing rapidly at ten times a second Training Bulletins SCBA sec 3.8.9

Answer 75

Which statement incorrectly describes a Ventilation-Induced Flashover? A: Ventilation-Induced Flashover is initiated by the introduction of oxygen into a pre-heated, fuel rich (smoke filled) oxygen deficient area B: Modern content fires rapidly consume more of the available oxygen within the fire compartment creating conditions favorable for a ventilation-induced flashover to occur C:✔Ventilation-Induced Flashover occurs when oxygen is introduced to a fire which has entered an early decay stage. Once Ventilation-Induced Flashover occurs, the fire within the compartment is said to be in the Flashover stage D: Ventilation-Induced Flashover is similar to a backdraft except a backdraft involves significantly more pressure, causing an explosion Explanation: Fire Dynamics (May, 2021) sec 4 Ventilation-Induced Flashover occurs when oxygen is introduced to a fire which has entered an early decay stage. Once Ventilation-Induced Flashover occurs, the fire within the compartment is said to be in the FULLY DEVELOPED stage 4 stages of fire - Incipient - Growth - Fully Developed - Decay

Answer 76

The Drager 6500 CO meter is has been issued to units for monitoring Carbon Monoxide (CO) gas in ambient air. Which one feature of this meter is described incorrectly? A: The Drager meter is always to remain on. B:✔The alarm threshold 2 (A2) is activated at 100 PPM and cannot be acknowledged or be silenced. C: The alarm threshold 1 (A1) is activated at 35 PPM and can be acknowledged and silenced by pressing the OK button. D: The Drager CO meter will display reading up to 2000 PPM. Explanation: B. The alarm threshold 2 (A2) is activated at 100 PPM and CAN BE acknowledged and silenced BY PRESSING THE OK BUTTON. Haz Mat Ch 4 Addendum 2 2.1, 2.3, 2.5, 2.7