Exam 7 Flashcards
When arriving to a fire in a Con-Ed electric substation, which tactic/procedure is incorrect?
A: Units shall report to the designated muster site
B: Have a member retrieve information about the substation from the Lockbox located just outside the substation
C: If a Con-Ed representative (White hat) is not on scene then call the posted number and request one to respond
D: If a sprinkler siamese is present, stretch a 3 1/2” supply line to the siamese. Only charge the supply line if requested by Con-Ed white hat
When arriving to a fire in a Con-Ed electric substation, which tactic/procedure is incorrect?
A: Units shall report to the designated muster site
B:✔Have a member retrieve information about the substation from the Lockbox located just outside the substation
C: If a Con-Ed representative (White hat) is not on scene then call the posted number and request one to respond
D: If a sprinkler siamese is present, stretch a 3 1/2” supply line to the siamese. Only charge the supply line if requested by Con-Ed white hat
Explanation:
Have a Con-Ed white hat retrieve information from the Lockbox located INSIDE the substation. The Lockbox contains info that can be useful to the IC including PCB info, overhead photo, a site diagram and list of the hazards present at the substation
AUC 338 add 2 sec 4 and 5
When both the engine and ladder companies arrive together at a high rise fireproof multiple dwelling where no outside operations are indicated, and only one Fire Service-equipped elevator is available, which choice below most correctly reflects who should go up in the elevator first?
A: The ladder officer with the forcible entry team, OV and the engine officer with the control FF, with all rolled up lengths and standpipe kit.
B: The ladder officer with the forcible entry team and the engine officer with two firefighters (nozzle & control) with all rolled up lengths and standpipe kit.
C: The ladder officer with the forcible entry team, OV and the engine officer with the backup FF, with all rolled up lengths and standpipe kit.
D: The ladder officer with the forcible entry team, OV and the engine officer with all rolled up lengths and standpipe kit.
When both the engine and ladder companies arrive together at a high rise fireproof multiple dwelling where no outside operations are indicated, and only one Fire Service-equipped elevator is available, which choice below most correctly reflects who should go up in the elevator first?
A:✔The ladder officer with the forcible entry team, OV and the engine officer with the control FF, with all rolled up lengths and standpipe kit.
B: The ladder officer with the forcible entry team and the engine officer with two firefighters (nozzle & control) with all rolled up lengths and standpipe kit.
C: The ladder officer with the forcible entry team, OV and the engine officer with the backup FF, with all rolled up lengths and standpipe kit.
D: The ladder officer with the forcible entry team, OV and the engine officer with all rolled up lengths and standpipe kit.
Explanation:
A
Note: The Engine Officer may also choose to leave out the Control FF and take the Nozzle FF instead.
The ladder officer with the forcible entry team and the engine officer with two firefighters (nozzle & control) with all rolled up lengths and standpipe kit shall go up first in a non Fire Service-equipped elevator. If the elevator has Fire Service, and no outside operations are indicated, the OV will be operating the elevator. This will necessitate reducing the elevator load by one of the engine firefighters.
MD Ch 2 5.6
Units are just taking up from a box where they encountered elevators in Sabbath mode. The Lieutenant gathers the members to discuss some of the features of these elevators, but he was incorrect in which point mentioned below?
A: Sabbath elevators are designed for religious services and operate automatically without the need to push any buttons.
B: Sabbath elevators shall not be used by firefighters.
C: When in Sabbath mode, these elevators typically stop at every floor or every other floor automatically.
D: Most often a sign will be present indicating this type of elevator.
Units are just taking up from a box where they encountered elevators in Sabbath mode. The Lieutenant gathers the members to discuss some of the features of these elevators, but he was incorrect in which point mentioned below?
A: Sabbath elevators are designed for religious services and operate automatically without the need to push any buttons.
B:✔Sabbath elevators shall not be used by firefighters.
C: When in Sabbath mode, these elevators typically stop at every floor or every other floor automatically.
D: Most often a sign will be present indicating this type of elevator.
Explanation:
B. Sabbath elevators shall not be used by firefighters IF THE FIREFIGHTER SERVICE FEATURE IS MISSING OR NOT OPERATIONAL.
NOTE: These elevators are required to be operable in fire service mode in accordance with building and fire code requirements.
Units shall verify the firefighter service feature is operational before electing to utilize any Sabbath elevator.
UPDATED JULY 2021
TB Emergencies 1 6.4.7
You are a new Lt. working your first day tour in Engine 327 and you are having difficulty with the apparatus mobile radio handset. Which of the following choices regarding problems with the handset is CORRECT?
A: In the event the first call is not acknowledged within 20 seconds, press the handset button and repeat the call. Do not make more than three attempts to contact the dispatcher.
B: If the third call is not acknowledged, assume the radio is inoperative and attempt to contact the citywide dispatcher via another mobile unit.
C: If no radio response is received after three attempts, switch to another frequency and advise the dispatcher of the difficulty being encountered on that frequency.
D: If the member is unable to communicate with the citywide dispatcher by radio, contact the borough or citywide dispatcher via telephone.
You are a new Lt. working your first day tour in Engine 327 and you are having difficulty with the apparatus mobile radio handset. Which of the following choices regarding problems with the handset is CORRECT?
A: In the event the first call is not acknowledged within 20 seconds, press the handset button and repeat the call. Do not make more than three attempts to contact the dispatcher.
B: If the third call is not acknowledged, assume the radio is inoperative and attempt to contact the citywide dispatcher via another mobile unit.
C: If no radio response is received after three attempts, switch to another frequency and advise the dispatcher of the difficulty being encountered on that frequency.
D:✔If the member is unable to communicate with the citywide dispatcher by radio, contact the borough or citywide dispatcher via telephone.
Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 8 – RADIO COMMUNICATIONS
D IS CORRECT – 8.4.3
A – In the event the first call is not acknowledged within 30 SECONDS, press the handset and repeat the call. 8.4.3
B – If the 3rd call is not acknowledged, assume the radio is inoperative and attempt to transmit your message from another mobile unit. 8.4.3
C – If no radio response is received after three attempts from another mobile unit, the member operating the radio shall switch to the citywide frequency and advise the citywide dispatcher of the difficulty being encountered on that borough frequency. 8.4.3
When accessing the Language Interpretive Services via phone, you must provide the Language Line representative with the personal code of the unit you are working in. The personal code for E-231 can be found in which choice?
A: FDNY units all have the same personal code…..9999
B: 9231
C: 7231
D: 5231
When accessing the Language Interpretive Services via phone, you must provide the Language Line representative with the personal code of the unit you are working in. The personal code for E-231 can be found in which choice?
A: FDNY units all have the same personal code…..9999
B: 9231
C: 7231
D:✔5231
Explanation: 5 are for Engines...Ex 5231, 5001, 5063 7 are for Ladders....Ex 7120, 7136, 7024 Also, the FDNY Operations Client ID# is 502991 AUC 343 sec 4.2
Specific factors require the stretching and operation of certain size hoselines at fire operations. Each of the units listed below made a decision compatible with Fire Department standard operating procedures except in which incorrect choice?
A: Engine 1 is assuming a purely defensive position at a tenement fire so they stretched a 2 1/2” hoseline.
B: Engine 2 is advancing into a commercial building that has a large, uncompartmented fire area, so they stretched a 2 1/2” hoseline.
C: Engine 3 stretched a second line into a taxpayer. The Officer ordered this line to be 1 3/4” even though the 1st line was a 2 1/2”.
D: Engine 4 is operating off of a standpipe at a small fire in a subway and stretched a 1 3/4” hose line.
Specific factors require the stretching and operation of certain size hoselines at fire operations. Each of the units listed below made a decision compatible with Fire Department standard operating procedures except in which incorrect choice?
A: Engine 1 is assuming a purely defensive position at a tenement fire so they stretched a 2 1/2” hoseline.
B: Engine 2 is advancing into a commercial building that has a large, uncompartmented fire area, so they stretched a 2 1/2” hoseline.
C: Engine 3 stretched a second line into a taxpayer. The Officer ordered this line to be 1 3/4” even though the 1st line was a 2 1/2”.
D:✔Engine 4 is operating off of a standpipe at a small fire in a subway and stretched a 1 3/4” hose line.
Explanation:
D) Engine 4 is operating off of a standpipe at a small fire in a subway and stretched a 2 1/2” hose line.
There are five situations in which the use of the 1 ¾” hoseline would not be appropriate and a larger hoseline should be used:
Acronym: DALAS
Defensive (purely) position
Area of fire size/extent unknown
Large, uncompartmented fire area
Advanced fire conditions
Standpipe operations
*be advised that “Large volume of water required to cool a superheated fire area” was removed as a factor requiring a 2 1/2” hose line in this latest update.
All hoselines stretched at an operation do NOT need to be the same size; if the initial hoseline stretched is a 2 ½” line, subsequent hoselines are NOT required to also be 2 ½” hose. If the engine officer determines the use of a smaller hoseline would be appropriate, subsequent hoselines may be 1 ¾” hose.
Eng Ch 4 4.2.1, 4.7
If a gas leak is serious enough to consider shutting down the following valves, consider treating the incident as a major gas emergency. Which one is incorrect?
A: Master meter valve
B: Interior gas riser valve
C: Head of service valve
D: Service valve
If a gas leak is serious enough to consider shutting down the following valves, consider treating the incident as a major gas emergency. Which one is incorrect?
A: Master meter valve
B:✔Interior gas riser valve
C: Head of service valve
D: Service valve
Explanation:
Just be aware the “service valve” is AKA the “curb valve”
Natural Gas 6.0 (Last Bullet Pg 25)
Pressing the EAB on either the HT base or the remote mic causes all of the following to occur. Which choice is INCORRECT?
A: A “Beacon Tone” is sounded on the HT with the EAB activation.
B: Within range, the company, position, and name of the member who pressed the EAB displays in the EFAS.
C: HT transmission power on the tactical channel is increased from 2 to 5 watts, providing more power for the message to get through.
D: An “Emergency Alert Tone” is sounded on all HT’s within range (other than the HT with EAB activation) on all frequencies.
Pressing the EAB on either the HT base or the remote mic causes all of the following to occur. Which choice is INCORRECT?
A: A “Beacon Tone” is sounded on the HT with the EAB activation.
B: Within range, the company, position, and name of the member who pressed the EAB displays in the EFAS.
C: HT transmission power on the tactical channel is increased from 2 to 5 watts, providing more power for the message to get through.
D:✔An “Emergency Alert Tone” is sounded on all HT’s within range (other than the HT with EAB activation) on all frequencies.
Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 9 ADDENDUM 3 – EFAS
D IS INCORRECT – On the same frequency. 2.2
A – 2.2
B – 2.2
C – 2.2
What color is the Bridge/Tunnel field guide, which is found on all Engines and Ladders to perform initial damage assessment at the scene of an incident involving a bridge or tunnel?
A: Green
B: Red
C: Orange
D: Yellow
What color is the Bridge/Tunnel field guide, which is found on all Engines and Ladders to perform initial damage assessment at the scene of an incident involving a bridge or tunnel?
A:✔Green
B: Red
C: Orange
D: Yellow
Explanation: A- Green- Field Guide B- Red- Command Chiefs Guide C- Emergency Response Guide (on all engines and ladders) for Haz-Mat incidents AUC 344
Lt Powers and Lt Lynam were discussing various conditions that may be encountered at a fire scene and had to correct which incorrect comment made by a third member?
A: A smoke explosion can occur without warning but will only occur when there is a sudden change in ventilation.
B: A smoke explosion occurs when a smoke-air mixture falls within its flammable range, either internal or external to the fire compartment, and is ignited in a manner resulting in a significant pressure front.
C: Backdrafts are caused when there is an introduction of oxygen to a compartment that has been pressurized by the smoke and fire gases of an oxygen-deficient fire in the Decay Stage.
D: Flash fires involve a flame moving though a flammable mixture with considerable speed, without developing a significant over-pressure. Flash fires usually self-extinguish, although sometimes may ignite secondary fires.
Lt Powers and Lt Lynam were discussing various conditions that may be encountered at a fire scene and had to correct which incorrect comment made by a third member?
A:✔A smoke explosion can occur without warning but will only occur when there is a sudden change in ventilation.
B: A smoke explosion occurs when a smoke-air mixture falls within its flammable range, either internal or external to the fire compartment, and is ignited in a manner resulting in a significant pressure front.
C: Backdrafts are caused when there is an introduction of oxygen to a compartment that has been pressurized by the smoke and fire gases of an oxygen-deficient fire in the Decay Stage.
D: Flash fires involve a flame moving though a flammable mixture with considerable speed, without developing a significant over-pressure. Flash fires usually self-extinguish, although sometimes may ignite secondary fires.
Explanation:
A) A smoke explosion can occur without warning and occurs WITHOUT a sudden change in ventilation.
C Note: Similar to smoke explosions, backdrafts are accompanied by a significant overpressure.
TB FD Ch 3 6.1, 6.2, 7.1, 8.1, 8.3
When rescuing victims attempt to remove the victim via the safest available route. Which is the correct preferential order of removal?
A: Interior stairs, fire escape, horizontal exits, ladders, life-saving rope.
B: Interior stairs, ladders, horizontal exits, fire escape, life-saving rope.
C: Interior stairs, horizontal exits, ladders, fire escape, life-saving rope.
D: Interior stairs, horizontal exits, fire escape, ladders, life-saving rope.
When rescuing victims attempt to remove the victim via the safest available route. Which is the correct preferential order of removal?
A: Interior stairs, fire escape, horizontal exits, ladders, life-saving rope.
B: Interior stairs, ladders, horizontal exits, fire escape, life-saving rope.
C: Interior stairs, horizontal exits, ladders, fire escape, life-saving rope.
D:✔Interior stairs, horizontal exits, fire escape, ladders, life-saving rope.
Explanation:
CODE: “I HAVE FIVE LITTLE RATS”
THIS WAS ASKED ON 2021 CAPTAIN EXAM
TB Search: 13.2
Which of the following situations does NOT require an emergency roll call?
A: An Urgent Message from the 1st Due Engine Chauffeur following the Loss of Water supplying the 1st & 2nd lines at an MD fire.
B: An Urgent Message from the Roof Firefighter indicating a Danger of Collapse in the rear of a taxpayer.
C: An Urgent Message from the IC to units to discontinue an interior attack and institute an exterior attack at heavy fire in a row of frames.
D: A Mayday Message from the Ladder Company Officer indicating a partial collapse of the floor in a 2-sty commercial.
Which of the following situations does NOT require an emergency roll call?
A: An Urgent Message from the 1st Due Engine Chauffeur following the Loss of Water supplying the 1st & 2nd lines at an MD fire.
B:✔An Urgent Message from the Roof Firefighter indicating a Danger of Collapse in the rear of a taxpayer.
C: An Urgent Message from the IC to units to discontinue an interior attack and institute an exterior attack at heavy fire in a row of frames.
D: A Mayday Message from the Ladder Company Officer indicating a partial collapse of the floor in a 2-sty commercial.
Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 9 & 9 – ADDENDUM 2 – EMERGENCY ROLL CALL PROCEDURES
B IS INCORRECT – An Urgent message for Collapse Feared does not require a roll call to follow. Danger of Collapse is the terminology used under the description
A, C, D – Ch 9 Add 2- 2.1 1st Bullet – Roll Call is necessary when – Mayday transmission for Collapse Imminent/Collapse Occurred, Urgent transmission for Interior attack discontinued and exterior attack instituted, or Loss of Water endangering members.
The incorrect procedure regarding the EBF-4 can be found in which choice?
A: Unlike the Intranet EBF-4, the In-Rig EBF-4 can only be filled out for the current tour
B: The EBF-4 must be completed immediately AFTER the start of the tour
C: The riding list should be updated throughout the tour as needed
D: The In-Rig EBF-4 must be used every Saturday on the 9x6 tour to submit the riding list instead of the EBF-4 application on the Intranet
The incorrect procedure regarding the EBF-4 can be found in which choice?
A: Unlike the Intranet EBF-4, the In-Rig EBF-4 can only be filled out for the current tour
B: The EBF-4 must be completed immediately AFTER the start of the tour
C: The riding list should be updated throughout the tour as needed
D:✔The In-Rig EBF-4 must be used every Saturday on the 9x6 tour to submit the riding list instead of the EBF-4 application on the Intranet
Explanation:
The In-Rig EBF-4 must be used every SUNDAY on the 9x6 tour to submit the riding list instead of the EBF-4 application on the Intranet
AUC 246 sec 6
Newly promoted Lieutenant Green had to call his friend, Captain Red, for advice on what actions to take since a specific portable ladder could not be held securely on his unit’s spare apparatus. The advice offered was correct except in which one choice?
A: The Fire Tools and Equipment Unit shall immediately be notified by telephone. A requisition shall be forwarded and an entry made in the company journal.
B: Provision shall be made to secure the ladder as safely as possible pending repair or relocation of ladder holding devices by the Fire Tools and Equipment Unit.
C: Any temporary fastenings made shall be checked after each response.
D: If the officer on duty feels that the ladder cannot be temporarily secured to the spare apparatus in a safe manner, and there is a danger of loss of the ladder during response, the unit shall be placed out of service.
Newly promoted Lieutenant Green had to call his friend, Captain Red, for advice on what actions to take since a specific portable ladder could not be held securely on his unit’s spare apparatus. The advice offered was correct except in which one choice?
A: The Fire Tools and Equipment Unit shall immediately be notified by telephone. A requisition shall be forwarded and an entry made in the company journal.
B: Provision shall be made to secure the ladder as safely as possible pending repair or relocation of ladder holding devices by the Fire Tools and Equipment Unit.
C: Any temporary fastenings made shall be checked after each response.
D:✔If the officer on duty feels that the ladder cannot be temporarily secured to the spare apparatus in a safe manner, and there is a danger of loss of the ladder during response, the unit shall be placed out of service.
Explanation:
D) If the officer on duty feels that the ladder cannot be temporarily secured to the spare apparatus in a safe manner, and there is a danger of loss of the ladder during response, the LADDER SHALL BE LEFT OFF THE APPARATUS. An entry of this action shall be made in the company journal.
Lad 1 5
During operations at the scene of an MVA with a victim pinned, which tactic described below is correct?
A: The engine officer should divide the company into two teams. The officer and two CFR FF (equipped with trauma bag and cervical collars) proceed to the scene of the accident.
B: When a fire or hazardous condition exists a foam handline must be stretched.
C: The ladder company chauffeur must bring the Hurst tool equipment to the scene of the accident and initiate the operation.
D: The ladder company officer should ensure the disconnection of the battery. When disconnecting the battery, remove the positive terminal first.
During operations at the scene of an MVA with a victim pinned, which tactic described below is correct?
A:✔The engine officer should divide the company into two teams. The officer and two CFR FF (equipped with trauma bag and cervical collars) proceed to the scene of the accident.
B: When a fire or hazardous condition exists a foam handline must be stretched.
C: The ladder company chauffeur must bring the Hurst tool equipment to the scene of the accident and initiate the operation.
D: The ladder company officer should ensure the disconnection of the battery. When disconnecting the battery, remove the positive terminal first.
Explanation:
B. When a fire or hazardous condition exists, STRETCHING AND CHARGING A HOSELINE IS PARAMOUNT. CONSIDER A FOAM HANDLINE.
C. THE ROOF AND OV bring the Hurst tool equipment to the scene of the accident and initiate the operation.
NOTE: THE LADDER COMPANY POSITIONS IN THIS SECTION ARE ONLY A GUIDE AND SHOULD BE EVALUATED BY THE COMPANY OFFICER AT ROLL CALL AND DISTRIBUTED ACCORDING TO EXPERIENCE AND STAFFING.
D. The ladder company officer should ensure the disconnection of the battery. When disconnecting the battery, remove the NEGATIVE terminal first.
Disentanglement & Extrication 4.1, 4.2
Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding the transmission of the 1045 signal?
A: Once transmitted, the 1045 signal shall never be cancelled.
B: Signal 10-45 code 3 and 4 do not require the submission of a BF 19 form.
C: Signal 10-37 with any code shall not be used at any fire operation.
D: Signal 10-45 shall not be used to indicate a fatality or injury to an on-duty member.
Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding the transmission of the 1045 signal?
A:✔ Once transmitted, the 1045 signal shall never be cancelled.
B: Signal 10-45 code 3 and 4 do not require the submission of a BF 19 form.
C: Signal 10-37 with any code shall not be used at any fire operation.
D: Signal 10-45 shall not be used to indicate a fatality or injury to an on-duty member.
Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 8 – RADIO COMMUNICATIONS
A IS INCORRECT – Other than to address any patient discrepancies, the 10-45 shall not be cancelled once it is transmitted. 10-45 pg 8-14…
All vehicles powered by Compressed Natural Gas (CNG), which require a Fire Department permit to operate using such fuel, are required to have a warning placard where on the vehicle?
A: Front and rear bumper
B: Front bumper only
C: Rear bumper only
D: On all four sides of vehicle
All vehicles powered by Compressed Natural Gas (CNG), which require a Fire Department permit to operate using such fuel, are required to have a warning placard where on the vehicle?
A:✔Front and rear bumper
B: Front bumper only
C: Rear bumper only
D: On all four sides of vehicle
Explanation:
All other vehicles that DO NOT require a Fire Department permit and registered in New York are likely to be placarded only on the rear bumper
Haz-Mat 1 sec 4.2.1
During company drill, the senior member had to correct the probationary firefighter when he made which incorrect comment regarding fire extension in nonfireproof tenements?
A: When checking for extension, there are six sides to examine in the fire area: the four walls, the ceiling above, and the floor.
B: The search for fire extension is often done by sense of touch alone. All places where fire might have extended and display no immediate signs of burning such as discoloration, blistering, smoke, etc. should be examined by touch.
C: In Old Law Tenements, the floor beams are laid parallel to the front of the building forming horizontal channels for fire travel as far as both side walls of the building. This permits lateral fire spread within the building and possible extension into adjoining buildings via beam ends and/or defective masonry.
D: The partitions that separate apartments in Old Law Tenements have fire stopping between the ceiling of one floor and the under side of the floor above which effectively limits fire extension.
During company drill, the senior member had to correct the probationary firefighter when he made which incorrect comment regarding fire extension in nonfireproof tenements?
A: When checking for extension, there are six sides to examine in the fire area: the four walls, the ceiling above, and the floor.
B: The search for fire extension is often done by sense of touch alone. All places where fire might have extended and display no immediate signs of burning such as discoloration, blistering, smoke, etc. should be examined by touch.
C: In Old Law Tenements, the floor beams are laid parallel to the front of the building forming horizontal channels for fire travel as far as both side walls of the building. This permits lateral fire spread within the building and possible extension into adjoining buildings via beam ends and/or defective masonry.
D:✔The partitions that separate apartments in Old Law Tenements have fire stopping between the ceiling of one floor and the under side of the floor above which effectively limits fire extension.
Explanation:
D) The partitions that separate apartments in Old Law Tenements are NOT fire stopped between the ceiling of one floor and the under side of the floor above.
D Note: This may permit lateral extension across the building and could be first discovered by the unit working on the floor above the fire floor when they encounter extension and/or an unusually heavy smoke condition in the apartment which is not directly over the fire apartment.
C Note: An exception exists where these horizontal arteries are interrupted by public hall and stairs which retard lateral extension. Where these horizontal channels terminate at air shafts, they have allowed fire which has burned through flooring to the apartments above to extend via shaft windows to either or both adjoining buildings.
Lad 3 7.1.2. 7.1.3, 7.1.6, 7.1.7
When dealing with a member in distress, removing the member from the IDLH is critical for survival. Assuring that the distressed member has an adequate supply of air is the next priority. Which procedure is incorrect when managing a distressed members air supply?
A: Once the member is located, a FAST Pak must be called for immediately, regardless of whether the member has air or not.
B: If the condition of the members SCBA is in doubt do not provide air via the low pressure system.
C: Use the downed member’s facepiece, unless it is damaged or missing, instead of the facepiece with the FAST Pak.
D: Once an unconscious member is supplied with air, turn the purge valve half way to allow a constant flow of air.
When dealing with a member in distress, removing the member from the IDLH is critical for survival. Assuring that the distressed member has an adequate supply of air is the next priority. Which procedure is incorrect when managing a distressed members air supply?
A: Once the member is located, a FAST Pak must be called for immediately, regardless of whether the member has air or not.
B:✔If the condition of the members SCBA is in doubt do not provide air via the low pressure system.
C: Use the downed member’s facepiece, unless it is damaged or missing, instead of the facepiece with the FAST Pak.
D: Once an unconscious member is supplied with air, turn the purge valve half way to allow a constant flow of air.
Explanation:
B. If the condition of the members SCBA is in doubt do not provide air via the HIGH pressure system.
Managing Members in Distress Ch 3 7.2, 7.4, 7.7, 7.9
Which of the following indicates the CORRECT use of the 10-25 CODE?
A: Lt. A transmitted a 10-25-4 for contents fire in a transformer room in the subcellar of a building.
B: Lt. B transmitted a 10-25 code 2 for smoke seeping from a pair of blown manholes.
C: Lt. C transmitted a 10-25 Code 3 for smoke issuing from a manhole under pressure.
D: Lt. D transmitted a 10-25 Code 1 for replacing a missing manhole cover.
Which of the following indicates the CORRECT use of the 10-25 CODE?
A: Lt. A transmitted a 10-25-4 for contents fire in a transformer room in the subcellar of a building.
B:✔Lt. B transmitted a 10-25 code 2 for smoke seeping from a pair of blown manholes.
C: Lt. C transmitted a 10-25 Code 3 for smoke issuing from a manhole under pressure.
D: Lt. D transmitted a 10-25 Code 1 for replacing a missing manhole cover.
Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 8 – RADIO COMMUNICATIONS.
B IS CORRECT – 10-25 Code 2 – Fire has blown one or more manhole covers or smoke is issuing from a manhole under pressure.
A – 25-4 is for fire or smoke condition from a transformer at any location. (This is a contents fire in the transformer room)
C – 25-2
D – 25 no code.
Each designated riding position on the apparatus has been assigned an air-purifying respirator (APR) that can only be used when authorized by the IC, and when certain criteria has been met. Choose the incorrect criteria.
A: The air contaminant has been identified
B: The oxygen level is between 16.5% and 23.5%
C: The concentration of the material has been measured
D: The filter cartridge is specific for the contaminant
E: Air monitoring is on-going
Each designated riding position on the apparatus has been assigned an air-purifying respirator (APR) that can only be used when authorized by the IC, and when certain criteria has been met. Choose the incorrect criteria.
A: The air contaminant has been identified
B:✔The oxygen level is between 16.5% and 23.5%
C: The concentration of the material has been measured
D: The filter cartridge is specific for the contaminant
E: Air monitoring is on-going
Explanation:
The oxygen level is between 19.5% and 23.5%
ERP 7.3
Of the following Brownstone features, which is inconsistent with Department guidelines?
A: The entrance to the second floor (parlor) is usually by way of exterior stair or stoop. Entrance to the first floor (basement) is through a doorway located under the exterior stoop.
B: Interior wooden stairs connect the cellar and first floor (basement), and first floor (basement) and second floor (parlor). An open interior stair connects the second floor (parlor) and upper floors.
C: Originally, bars were often encountered on both front and rear first floor (basement) windows and iron gates beneath the front stoop, negating access and egress.
D: There is normally a rear entrance from the yard to the second floor (parlor floor).
Of the following Brownstone features, which is inconsistent with Department guidelines?
A: The entrance to the second floor (parlor) is usually by way of exterior stair or stoop. Entrance to the first floor (basement) is through a doorway located under the exterior stoop.
B: Interior wooden stairs connect the cellar and first floor (basement), and first floor (basement) and second floor (parlor). An open interior stair connects the second floor (parlor) and upper floors.
C: Originally, bars were often encountered on both front and rear first floor (basement) windows and iron gates beneath the front stoop, negating access and egress.
D:✔There is normally a rear entrance from the yard to the second floor (parlor floor).
Explanation:
D) There is normally a rear entrance from the yard to the FIRST FLOOR (basement).
B Note: An iron ladder gives access from the top floor to the roof through a scuttle.
C Note: Note: Additional bars and gates may be found on upper floors.
Note: The need for 10-foot hooks to pull ceilings on the second floor (parlor floor) may exist in some Brownstone buildings. Ceilings on the second floor (parlor floor) have much ornamental plasterwork, often in the center and around the perimeter of the room.
Note: In some instances these buildings have been renovated by removal of the front stoop converting the former first floor (basement) entrance to the main access for the building.
BS/RF 2.1.3-2.2.6
A CFR unit must complete a PCR in which of the following circumstances: 1) Dead On Arrival; 2) Refuse Medical Aid; 3) Emotionally Disturbed Person?
A: 1, 2, 3
B: 1 & 2 only
C: 2 & 3 only
D: 1 & 3 only
A CFR unit must complete a PCR in which of the following circumstances: 1) Dead On Arrival; 2) Refuse Medical Aid; 3) Emotionally Disturbed Person?
A:✔1, 2, 3
B: 1 & 2 only
C: 2 & 3 only
D: 1 & 3 only
Explanation:
ALL THREE LETTERS: DOA; RMA; EDP = PCR
CFR Ch 2: 4.4 Note, 4.9.1, 4.10.1
There are many factors involved in determining whether a 1 3/4” or 2 1/2” hose stretch would be more appropriate. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A: While the officer should use their discretion in assessing the size of the fire area in determining if a 2 1/2” hoseline is required, a general guideline is that a fire area over 50 feet wide can be considered “large”. The area should also be “uncompartmented.”
B: For fires in a commercial portion of a mixed occupancy building (two or three story building with a store on the first floor and one or two apartments above), the use of 2 ½” hose is always necessary.
C: The presence of a commercial occupancy (OLT with a store, etc.) does not mandate the use of a 2 ½” hoseline. The use of 1 ¾” hose may be appropriate, depending on conditions.
D: For fires in a 1- or 2-story taxpayer, the large fire area and large amount of combustible contents will require the use of a 2 ½” hoseline. Also, the high ceilings and availability of a roof vent directly over the fire area constitute an uncompartmented fire area.
There are many factors involved in determining whether a 1 3/4” or 2 1/2” hose stretch would be more appropriate. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A: While the officer should use their discretion in assessing the size of the fire area in determining if a 2 1/2” hoseline is required, a general guideline is that a fire area over 50 feet wide can be considered “large”. The area should also be “uncompartmented.”
B:✔For fires in a commercial portion of a mixed occupancy building (two or three story building with a store on the first floor and one or two apartments above), the use of 2 ½” hose is always necessary.
C: The presence of a commercial occupancy (OLT with a store, etc.) does not mandate the use of a 2 ½” hoseline. The use of 1 ¾” hose may be appropriate, depending on conditions.
D: For fires in a 1- or 2-story taxpayer, the large fire area and large amount of combustible contents will require the use of a 2 ½” hoseline. Also, the high ceilings and availability of a roof vent directly over the fire area constitute an uncompartmented fire area.
Explanation:
B) For fires in a commercial portion of a mixed occupancy building (two or three story building with a store on the first floor and one or two apartments above), the use of 2 ½” hose MAY NOT be necessary.
These commercial occupancies are not a taxpayer, and they generally do not have a large fire area. Such commercial occupancies are commonly less than 50 feet wide, do not have a direct opening to a roof vent, and may have narrow aisle space with limited open area. This situation may not fit the above described criteria of a “large, uncompartmented fire area”. Unless the fire area is sufficiently large, or one of the other described conditions is present, the use of 1 ¾” hose may be appropriate in these occupancies.
Eng Ch 4 4.8.4, 4.9.1
