Exam 2

Question 1

The following is true regarding transcriptionally active chromatin:
a) The nucleosomes are in the heterochromatic state.
b) The HdAC has stimulated Activators.
c) HAT proteins are active.
d) Methyl binding proteins are needed.

Answer 1

HAT proteins are active

Question 2

The following is not needed for the transcription of a gene needed for cell survival:
a) Euchromatin
b) CpG islands
c) RNA polymerase
d) Basal transcription factors

Answer 2

CpG islands

Question 3

The following would not be included as a part of a transcript from a gene:
a) A 3’ UTR
b) TATA box
c) An intron
d) Kozac sequence

Answer 3

TATA box

Question 4

The CpG island of a gene promoter___:
a) Can bind to the basal transcription site.
b) Causes euchromatin.
c) Attracts transcription factors.
d) Can stimulated chromosome compaction.

Answer 4

can stimulated chromosome compaction

Question 5

The correct sequence position of the following DNA elements in a gene and its promoter is: (Hint: The relative location of the DNA sequences do not necessarily have to be adjacent to one another.)

a) 3’-TATA -> start nucleotide -> intron -> UTR - 5’
b) 5’- Exon1 -> Intron 1 -> TATA-> UTR - 3’
c) 5’-TATA -> start nucleotide -> Intron 2 -> UTR - 3’
d) 3’ Enhancer-> TATA -> Exon 1-> Intron 5 -3’

Answer 5

c) 5’-TATA -> start nucleotide -> Intron 2 -> UTR - 3’

Question 6

The following protein would be predicted to have an tRNA binding domain:
a) eIF 2
b) TFIID
c) An activator
d) EF 4E protein

Answer 6

a) eIF 2

Question 7

During translation elongation using the mRNA encoding the 60S ribosomal subunit, the following is true:
a) Peptidyl transferase is active.
b) Ribosomes do not undergo translation.
c) Histone deacetylase (HDAC) is active at the enhancer site.
d) The ribosome binds to the Shine/Delgarno sequence.

Answer 7

peptidyl transferase is active

Question 8

The following is reasonable to assume regarding a mature mRNA encoding histone 2A.
a) Its signal is cleaved after delivery to the nucleus.
b) It has not been spliced yet.
c) It is controlled by proteins that attract the matrix stimulating factor.
d) It interacts with proteins having an NES.

Answer 8

it interacts with proteins having an NES

Question 9

The following is false of Lysosome Storage Diseases
a) A mutation may be on a hydrolase.
b) Waste products build up in the cell.
c) A mutation may be on the 40S subunit.
d) The infant may die at a very early age.

Answer 9

A mutation may be on the 40S subunit

Question 10

The following happens to vesicle transported proteins that are secreted:
a) Translation occurs in the nuclear membrane.
b) Translation is halted until the ribosome locates the TOM receptor.
c) They get unfolded for entry into the translocon.
d) Their release involves complexin.

Answer 10

their release involves complexin

Question 11

Secreted proteins _________
a) Are carried by the SRP to the translocon.
b) Have stop-transfer signal sequences.
c) Leave the cell through a specialized channel.
d) Travel in vesicles that have matrix targeting sequences.

Answer 11

are carries by the SRP to the translocon

Question 12

The following is false of the TOM40 receptor:
a) It interacts with the MSF.
b) It interacts with the TOM channel protein.
c) It interacts with a protein that has an NES sequence.
d) It is involved in mitochondrial entry.

Answer 12

it interacts with a protein that has an NES sequence

Question 13

The following is false regarding transport of a protein into the nucleus.
a) The protein could be a heterodimer.
b) The protein has an internal peptide targeting sequence.
c) Ran must be in its GTP bound state.
d) The NLS sequence gets recognized by importin-alpha

Answer 13

c) Ran must be in its GTP bound state.

Question 14

____________ is a method for identification of a specific protein.

Answer 14

Western

Question 15

______________ are proteins that attach peptides to GPI anchors.

Answer 15

Transamidase

Question 16

_______ is a sequence needed for basal transcription of genes.

Answer 16

TATA

Question 17

_________________is a motif used by a transcription factor to identify a specific nucleic acid sequence.

Answer 17

Alpha helix

Question 18

_______________ is the catalytic site for covalent bond synthesis between amino acids.

Answer 18

peptidyl transferase site

Question 19

______ is a protein that allows movement of the ribosome on the mRNA.

Answer 19

EF-G

Question 20

_________ allows for GTP/GDP exchange in nuclear transport.

Answer 20

RAN-GAP

Question 21

_____________ is an enzyme that can covalently bind a sugar to an amino acid.

Answer 21

Oligotransferase

Question 22

__________ is a non-standard nucleotide contained on tRNA.

Answer 22

Wobble Base

Question 23

____ is the DNA element that ensures nearby genes are not regulated by the same promoter.

Answer 23

Insulator

Question 24

____ is the most prominent gene sequence found in a population and generally is not associated with a disease.

Answer 24

Wild Type

Question 25

___ is the bridge protein between the PABP and eIF4E .

Answer 25

eIF4G

Question 26

___ is the bond catalyzed by the ribosome.

Answer 26

Pepetide

Question 27

__________ is the organelle that needs the M6P structure for targeting.

Answer 27

Lysosome

Question 28

_______ is an experimental technique that would be used to determine if histones are targeted to the nucleus.

Answer 28

Immunofluorescence

Question 29

The following is true regarding euchromatin. A: It is compacted B: Basal transcription factors can bind to the TATA Box. C: HdAC makes chromatin available for activator binding. D: Methyl transferase would be active.

Answer 29

Basal transcription factors can bind to the TATA box.

Question 30

______ is the enzyme active in transcription elongation of tRNA. A: DNA POL III B: RNA POL III C: RNA POL I D: DNA POL I

Answer 30

RNA POL III

Question 31

_______ is the technique that would be used to determine where in the genome a known transcription factor would bind. (remember a given TF may have several genes that it regulates). A: Northern Blotting B: Southern Analysis C: ChIP D: Immunofluorescence

Answer 31

ChIP

Question 32

______ is the term for the entry location of the tRNA in the ribosome. A: Peptidyltransferase site B: Aminoacyl Site C: TATA box D: COO- (carboxyl) end

Answer 32

Aminoacyl Site

Question 33

The following is the correct order in transcription initiation. A: HAT activity -->Coactivator Binding--> TFIIH activity --->Mediator interaction B: HAT activity -->Coactivator Binding--> Mediator interaction --> TFIIH activity C: Mediator interaction ---> HAT activity -->Coactivator Binding--> TFIIH activity D: HaDC activity -->Basal TF binding --> Coactivator Binding--> TFIIH activity

Answer 33

B: HAT activity -->Coactivator Binding--> Mediator interaction --> TFIIH activity

Question 34

______ is the protein that interacts with the mGuanine cap. A: EF-Tu B: eIF4E C: eIF4A D: EF-G

Answer 34

eIF4E

Question 35

________ is a protein that recognizes a tRNA for delivery to the Ribosome. A: TFIID B: EF G C: eIF A D: EF Tu

Answer 35

EF Tu

Question 36

_______ is the type of Experiment used by Beadle-Tatum. A: Northern Blotting B: Nutrient testing C: Single nucleotide induction D: Loss of Function Mutants

Answer 36

Loss of Function Mutants

Question 37

_______ are the family of proteins that make distal promotors accessible for transcription initiation. A: Structural Maintenance of Chromatin B: TFII Complex C: Regulatory TF Elements D: HdACs

Answer 37

Structural Maintenance of Chromatin

Question 38

________ is the protein that carries a protein to the mitochondria. A: TOM receptor B: Matrix Stimulating Factor C: RAN-GTP D: Matrix Targeting Signal

Answer 38

Matrix Stimulating Factor

Question 39

_______ is the eukaryotic protein containing the enzymatic activity for making a peptide bond. A: 50S Subunit B: EF-tu C: Aminoacyl site D: 60S Subunit

Answer 39

60S Subunit

Question 39

_______ is the eukaryotic protein containing the enzymatic activity for making a peptide bond. A: 50S Subunit B: EF-tu C: Aminoacyl site D: 60S Subunit

Answer 39

60S Subunit

Question 40

________ amino acid is encoded in the start codon AUG A: Leucine B: Arginine C: Methionine D: Glycine

Answer 40

Methionine

Question 41

________ is the organelle that a protein with the sequence NH3--AAGCKHKHNNTIL--COO would go to. A: RER B: Peroxisome C: Mitochondria D: Nucleus

Answer 41

Nucleus

Question 42

__________ is the protein that synthesis a GPI anchor. A: 80S Ribosome B: Transamidase C: Signal Peptidase D: Oligotransferase

Answer 42

Transmidase

Question 43

_______ a protein that would would interact with the Signal Recognition Particle Receptor. A: RAN Binding Protein B: Insulin C: Matrix Stimulating Factor D: ATP synthase

Answer 43

Insulin

Question 44

________ is the lattice structure that interacts with the M6P Receptor. A: Clathrin B: Hydrolase C: Peroxidase D: Stop-Transfer Anchors

Answer 44

Clathrin

Question 45

_______ is a protein that works with T-SNARES and Complexin for vesicle fusion. A: M6P Receptor B: TOM40 C: Syntaxin D: Clatharin

Answer 45

Syntaxin

Question 46

________ is a protein that recognizes an internal peptide sequence consisting of a cluster of basic amino acids. A: RAN-GAP B: Matrix Stimulating Factor C: SRP D: alpha-importin

Answer 46

Alpha-importin

Question 47

The following protein would need to be unfolded to enter its organelle. A: Na Ion Channel B: Histone 2A C: ATP Synthase D: A hydrolase

Answer 47

ATP Synthase

Question 48

________ is a protein not involved in Nuclear Localization. A: RAN-GAP B: Importin C: Transamidase D: RAN

Answer 48

Transmidase