Exam 2 Flashcards
(169 cards)
1
Q
An animate or inanimate object that serves as a long term habitat and focus of dissemination for an infectious agent
A
Reservoir
2
Q
An individual or object from which an infection is actually acquired
A
Source of infection
3
Q
Reservoir for Cryptosporidium parvum
A
Cattle
4
Q
Source of infection for crypto parvum
A
Water
5
Q
Exampe of a case where the reservoir and source are the same
A
Syphilis (humans are reservoir and source)
6
Q
Objects that are able to transfer disease organisms
A
Fomite
7
Q
Any live animal that transmits an infectious agent from one host to the next. Typically used to describe arthropod reservoirs
A
Vector
8
Q
Vector type that actively participates in the pathogen’s life cycle
A
Biological vector
9
Q
Vector type that is a passive participant in the transmission of disease
A
Mechanical
10
Q
Spread of disease through a population from one infected individual to another (can be indirect or direct)
A
Horizontal Transmission
11
Q
Spread of disease from parent to offspring via placenta, sperm, milk or ovum (always direct)
A
Vertical transmission
12
Q
Example of direct contact transmission
A
Cat to human ringworm
13
Q
Cat to human to cat is an example of what type of transmission?
A
Indirect contact transmission
14
Q
A sneeze or a cough from infected to uninfected individuals is an example of what type of transmission?
A
Direct Airborne (aerosol) Transmission
15
Q
A sneeze that contaminates a ventilation system that eventually infects animal/human is an example of what type of transmission?
A
Indirect Airborne (Aerosol) Transmission
16
Q
Toxoplasma gondii and listeria monoctogenes are examples of diseases spread through which mode of transmission?
A
Placental
17
Q
In placental transmission, the microbe can cross the placenta and enter the ____ ____ and spread disease
A
Umbilical vein
18
Q
Placental transmission depends upon the ______ _____ and the ______ involved
A
Gestation stage and the microbe involved
19
Q
Fomites spread disease through _______ transmission
A
Indirect
20
Q
Bedding with E coli is an example of which type of transmission?
A
Fomites
21
Q
Arthropods (vector transmission) spread disease through ______ transmission
A
Indirect
22
Q
Disease classification that has severities and duration between acute and chronic. Accounts for some forms of anthrax.
A
Subacute Disease
23
Q
Term for someone who studies the factors that determine the frequency and distribution of disease within populations
A
Epidemiologist
24
Q
The number of new cases of disease in a defined population over a specific time period as compared to the general healthy population i a certain time period (typically over a year)
A
Incidence (morbidity rate)
25
Total number of cases in a population compared to the entire population
Prevalence
26
Formula for determining prevalence
Total number of cases in a population divided by the total number of individuals in a population X 100
27
Term for a disease always present within a population of a geographic area
Endemic disease
28
Disease affecting animals of specific geographic area. Constantly present in specific animal community but occurs in small number of cases
Enzootic disease
29
Term for disease with few isolated cases of disease in a widespread area in an unpredictable manner
Sporadic
30
Term for a sudden onset and widespread outbreak within a group
Epidemic disease
31
Term for a widespread disease in a population of animals other than humans. Spread rapidly, simultaneously affecting a large number of animals in a region
Epizootic disease
32
Term for a disease that is a widespread epidemic usually across continents
Pandemic Disease
33
Term for a widespread epizootic disease
Panzootic disease
34
United Nations organization for monitoring zoonoses
WHO (The World Health Organization)
35
What is the World Health Organization responsible for?
Promoting cooperation of health care among nations
Carry out disease control and eradication
Improve quality of human/animal life
36
This organization sends out teams of epidemiologists to investigate outbreaks and assist with bringing the outbreak under control
WHO
37
United States agency that functions to assist state and local health department in all aspects of epidemiology
CDC
38
Primary federal agency for conducting and supporting medical research
National Institutes of Health (NIH)
39
Line of defense that limits access to the internal tissues and organs of the body
First line of defense
40
What are the anatomic properties of the first line of defense?
Unbroken skin, Mucous membranes, Hairs and cilia
41
The second line of defense is composed of _______ and _______ protection
cellular and chemical
42
Fever stimulating chemical that could be bacteria, virus or parasites
Pyrogen
43
What are the benefits of Fevers?
Inhibit replication
Stimulate WBCs to destroy microbes, reduce iron available for bacterial replication
44
What are the disadvantages of fevers?
Increase HR, increased caloric demand, seizures, dehydration
45
Causitive agent of Anthrax
Bacillus anthracis
Non-motile, gram +, endospore forming bacilli
46
Conditions in which anthrax multiplies
60 degrees, heavy rainfall
47
Animals most commonly associated with the epizootic form of anthrax
Cattle, bison and deer (typically a disease of herbivores)
48
What are the three forms of anthrax?
Peracute, Acute and Chronic
49
Form of anthrax presenting with ataxia, dyspnea, trembling or sudden death. (Typically do not show any signs)
Peracute Anthrax
50
Form of anthrax in ruminants that produces localized edema, typically in the neck, thorax and shoulders.
Chronic anthrax
51
Form of anthrax causing lingual and pharyngeal edema and/or hemorrhage of the pharyndeal and cervical lymph nodes in swine
Chronic anthrax
52
Why should necropsies never be performed on animals suspected to have anthrax infection?
Spores form when exposed to oxygen
53
How are anthrax endospores destroyed?
Autoclaving, boiling for 30 minutes, expose to dry heat at 140 degrees for 3 hours, chemical disinfection at high concentration for a long period of time, cremation
54
Treatment for bite wounds
Clean, irrigate, debride, antibiotics (within 24 hours)
55
Disease also known as "Bang's disease", Contagious abortion, Matta Fever, or Mediterranean fever
Brucellosis
56
What species is resistant to Brucellosis?
Cats
57
Brucellosis in cattle is uncommon due to what in the US?
Vaccinations
58
Common transmission of Brucellosis to humans is from what species?
Sheep and goats
59
In what states is Brucellosis more prevalent?
Texas, California, Virginia and Florida
60
What are the mechanical vectors for Brucellosis?
Contaminated food, water and exretement
Ingestion of bacteria present in large animals in aborted fetuses and uterine discharges
Sexually transmitted fluids
Open wounds, conjunctiva or inhalation
Ingestion of contaminated milk
61
What is the pathogenesis of Brucellosis?
Brucella are engulfed by neutrophils and are carried in the lymphatic fluid to the lymph nodes, blood and organs
62
Clinical signs of Brucellosis
Spontaneous abortion, inability to conceive, inflammation of sex organs, death
63
What are methods of diagnosis of Brucellosis?
Gram stain
Culture
Serum Agglutination and ELISA
64
Treatment for Brucellosis?
Not attempted. Many recover from disease signs but infection remains. Infected animals are often eliminated.
65
How can Brucellosis be managed?
Vaccination and testing before breeding
66
What is the most common cause of acute infectious diarrhea?
Campylobacteriosis
67
Disease also known as vibriosis and vibrionic abortion
Campylobacteriosis
68
Disease that produces endotoxins that invade jejunum, ileum and colon as well as hemorrhagic legions
Campylobacteriosis
69
Disease that causes hepatitis in poultry and abortion in ruminants
Campylobacteriosis
70
What is the treatment for Campylobacteriosis?
7-28 day antibiotic treatment
71
Infection found in almost all anaerobic environments, gram positive and endospore forming bacilli
Clostridial infections
72
Infection associated with botulism, c-diff, and tetanus (uncommon in the US)
Clostridial infections
73
Disease causing rapidly fatal motor palysis
Botulism
74
Disease common in chickens causing flaccid paralysis of legs, wings, eyelids and neck
Botulism
75
Disease with lower cases in cattle causing drooling, inability to urinate, dysphagia and death
Botulism
76
What species are resistant to Botulism?
Dogs, cats and pigs
77
Sheep become infected with this disease via eating infected rabbits
Botulism
78
In horses, this disease causes death, stilted gait, muscular tremors, dysphagia, constipation
Botulism
79
What species is most sensitive to Cl Tetani?
Horses
80
What species are most resistant to Cl tetani?
Dogs, cats and birds
81
How are clostridial infections diagnosed?
ELISA, gram stain, tissue culture, and history
82
How is clostridium treated?
Antibiotics and antitoxins
No treatment depending on species of clostridium due to ineffectivity based on severity of infection
83
Disease that causes diamond shaped lesions
Erysipellas
84
During what seasons is Erysipeloid most prominent?
Summer or early fall
85
How is Erysipelas transmitted?
Wounds and ingestion of contaminated feces
86
Disease that produces enzymes that dissect tissues
Erysipelas
87
How are pigs treated for Erysipelas?
Antiserum and antibiotics
Chronic infections may require culling
88
What species infected with Erysipelas are treated with Penicillin?
Birds and sheep
89
Disease also known as malleus?
Glanders
90
Disease causing SQ nodules, and is a fatal skin and respiratory disease affecting horses, donkeys and mules
Glanders
91
What is the causative agent of Glanders?
Burkholderia mallei
92
Disease that produces toxins that interfere with energy production, lysis of cell membranes and cell death
Glanders
93
What are the three forms of Glanders?
Acute, chronic and latent
94
How is Glanders diagnosed?
Culture, PCR, ELISA, and Mullein test
95
Why is treatment of Glanders not recommended?
Potential spread to humans
96
How is Glanders managed/controlled?
Infected animals should be euthanized. No vaccine exists.
97
Disease excreted in urine, parturition fluids and contaminated water and soil
Leptrospirosis
98
Disease seen more during summer and fall, with high incidence in tropical areas
Leptospirosis
99
What occurs during the acute or early phase of Lepto?
enters the blood stream and multiplies in the kidney - also enter the ceberospinal fluid
100
What occurs during the subacute or second phase of Lepto?
Blood infection resolves, endotoxin produced leads to decrease red blood cells and tissue injury
101
How is Lepto diagnosed?
Urinalysis, culture (6 weeks in the dark), agglutination, ELISA, PCR
102
Treatment for this disease is only efficient if initiated early.
Leptospirosis
103
Disease also known as "circling disease"
Listeriosis
104
Disease occuring primarily in newborn infants, elderly patients and immunocompromised people
Listeriosis
105
Disease that may be present in the intestinal tract of 1-10% of humans
Listeriosis
106
Causitive agent of listeriosis
Listeria monocytogenes
107
What is the peak time for listeriosis?
Between February and April
108
What are the reservoirs for Listeriosis?
soil and intestinal tract
109
What kind of transmission of listeriosis occurs in ruminants?
Vertical transmission
110
Disease that binds to epithelial cells of the GI tract, triggers phagocytosis
Listeriosis
111
What occurs after neurological symptoms of listeriosis?
Death
112
How can listeriosis be managed?
Feed high quality feed, isolate infected animals
113
Disease also known as shipping fever in cattle and snuffles in rabbits
Pasteurellosis
114
Yersinia pestis is the causative agent of what bacterial disease?
Plague
115
What are the three forms of plague?
Bubonic, Pneumonic, and septicemic
116
Approximately 50% of cats contract what form of plague?
Bubonic
117
What can be used to treat plague?
Streptomycin and tetracycline combination
118
How is the plague diagnosed?
Fluorescent antibody test, aspirate lymph node, PCR
119
Disease causing food poisoning
Salmonellosis
120
What are the 3 forms of salmonellosis?
Septicemia, Acute enteritis, chronic enteritis
121
Primary reservoirs of salmonellosis
Poultry, livestock and reptiles
122
What diseases are caused by strep?
Scarlet fever, pneumonia, strangles, mastitis
123
Antibiotic of choice for strep infections
penicillin
124
Disease also known as deer fly fever or rabbit fever
Tulamemia
125
Francisella tularensis is the causitive agent of what disease?
Tularemia
126
Treatment for Tulameria
Streptomycin and tetracycline
127
Disease also known as Goat bloat fever or Query fever
Q Fever
128
Disease commonly seen in slaughterhouse workers in the 1940s
Q fever
129
Coxiella burnetti is the causitive agent of what disease?
Q fever
130
Q fever is seen worldwide except what country?
New Zealand
131
How is Q fever diagnosed?
Can not be cultured.
ELISA test
Complement fixation
132
What is the treatment for Q fever?
Tetracycline
133
Disease typically infected and spread by hard ticks
RMSF
134
How is Q fever transmitted?
Inhalation, direct or indirect contact with infected animals or dried excretions (milk or amniotic fluid), ticks
135
In what disease does pregnancy stimulate the replication of bacteria in reproductive and mammary gland tissues
Q Fever
136
Disease also known as black measles and spotted fever?
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
137
600-800 cases in humans a year in the US
RMSF
138
What are the main hosts of RMSF?
Arthropods
139
Clinical signs of petichia may indicate what bacterial disease?
RMSF
140
Disease common in dogs 3 years old or younger, most commonly contracted between March and October
RMSF
141
Dog showing low platelet counts, moderate leukocytosis with a left shift (increase in band neutrophils) may have what disease?
RMSF
142
Treatment for RMSF
Tetracycline or Doxycycline
Chloremphenicol (pregnant and puppies less than 6 months)
143
Fungi type that are chemically and genetically similar to animals which makes it challenging to treat
Eukaryotic
144
How is fungi classified?
Reproduction and presence of hyphae
145
Type of fungi that are either yeast or mold
Dimorphic
146
What two types of fungi are animals not generally tolerant?
True pathogens and opportunistic pathogens
147
Fungi that can infect healthy animals
True pathogens
148
Fungi that present in low numbers in animals that cause disease when the host environment is altered
Opportunistic
149
Fungi that cause ringworm
Trichophyton and microsporum
150
Fungi that cause chrombastomycosis
Fansecaea
151
Fungal disease that invades body tissues and tends to be dimorphic fungi- blastomyces
Systemic mycoses
152
Normally harmless fungi that cause disease when host is compromised - candida
Opportunistic fungi
153
Non contagious fungi respsonsible for tinea crursis (ringworm of groin/jock itch)
Epidermophyton
154
Nutrient source for dermatophytosis
Keratin
155
Most common dermatophytosis worldwide (92% in children less than 10)
Tinea pedis
156
Fungal growth and spore formation within the hairshaft (ex. trichophyton tonsurans and T violaceum)
Endothrix
157
Fungal growth producing spores on the outside of the hairshaft (microsporins)
Ectothrix
158
Dermatophytes most commonly affecting cattle
T Verrucousm
159
Subcutaneous fungal disease also known as rose gardener's disease
Sporotrichosis
160
Fungal disease common in intact male cats
Sporotrichosis
161
Disease commonly seen in north central and south eastern US (including OH) that causes granulomatous nodules in lungs and on skin
North American Blactomycosis
162
Amphotericin B and ketoconazole are treatment options for which fungal disease?
North American Bastomycosis
163
Disease also known as Ohio Valley Fever or Darling's disease
Histoplasmosis
164
Histoplasmosis is seen everwhere except which continent?
Australia
165
This disease is benign after inhalation of small amounts but becomes severe overnight
Histoplasmosis
166
Ketoconazole is used to treat what fungal disease?
Histoplasmosis
167
Disease also known as Valley Fever, San Joaquin Fever and California Disease
Coccidiodomycosis
168
Disease that resembles tuberculosis, favors habitats with high carbon and salt content
Coccidiodomycosis
169
Fluconazole is used to treat what fungal disease?
Coccidiodomycosis
