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Exam 2-Med Surg Flashcards

(72 cards)

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1
Q

absorption

A

phase of the digestive process that occurs when small molecules, vitamins, and minerals pass through the walls of the small and large intestine and into the bloodstream

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2
Q

amylase

A

an enzyme that aids in the digestion of starch

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3
Q

chyme

A

mixture of food with saliva, salivary enzymes, and gastric secretions that is produced as food passes through the mouth, esophagus, and stomach

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4
Q

dyspepsia

A

upper abdominal discomfort associated with eating; upset stomach

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5
Q

elimination

A

phase of digestion process that occurs after digestion and absorption, when waste products are evacuated from the body

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6
Q

intrinsic factor

A

a gastric secretion that combines with vitamin B12 so that the vitamin can be absorbed

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7
Q

lipase

A

enzyme that aids in the digestion of fats

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8
Q

pepsin

A

a gastric enzyme that is important in protein digestion

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9
Q

trypsin

A

enzyme that aids in digestion of protein

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10
Q

What is pernicious anemia?

A

Can’t absorb B12

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11
Q

What medical emergency can have GI issues?

A

Myocardial infarction

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12
Q

What is referred in terms of pain?

A

Is the pain radiating?

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13
Q

What color would a patient’s stool be after the barium enema?

A

Milky white

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14
Q

What can cause black stool?

A

Bismuth, iron, and black licorice

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15
Q

What can cause red stool?

A

Beets, red gelatin, tomato soup, food coloring

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16
Q

What can cause green stool?

A

Leafy green vegetables, spinach, kale

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17
Q

What does oral cancer typically look like?

A

Raised white or red patches in oral cavity

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18
Q

How long do you have to listen to bowel sounds before charting absent?

A

5 minutes

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19
Q

Order of abdominal assessment:

A

Inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpation

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20
Q

How does H. Pylori get diagnosed?

A

Breath test or blood test

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21
Q

What could black stool indicate in terms of occult blood testing?

A

Upper GI bleed (peptic)

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22
Q

What could red stool indicate in terms of occult blood testing?

A

Lower GI-such as hemorrhoids or polyp

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23
Q

When preparing for an occult blood test, what should the nurse tell the patient?

A

Avoid red meat, aspirin, NSAIDs 72 hours prior. Avoid Vitamin C. No laxatives, enemas, or suppositories for 3 days prior

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24
Q

What is the FIT-fecal test? Any precautions for testing?

A

The FIT reacts to the human hemoglobin protein. Can detect abnormal sections of DNA from cancer or polyps. Does not require any dietary or medication restrictions

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25
How does a hydrogen breath test work?
The patient will ingest a capsule of carbon-labeled urea and a breath sample is completed 10-20 min later. H. pylori quickly metabolizes urea so the carbon dioxide can be measured to determine if it is present.
26
What should you tell a patient to avoid prior to the hydrogen breath test?
No antibiotics or bismuth for 1 month prior, no proton pump inhibitors for 2 weeks before, No antacids for 24 hours prior
27
What can H. pylori cause?
peptic ulcer
28
How long should a patient be observed after abdominal ultrasonography with anesthesia?
1 hour
29
What is a sign of abdominal bleeding?
Washboard or extremely hard abdomen
30
Why should patients increase fluids after a barium enema?
Barium will harden up if not eliminated
31
2 things patient should come back for after barium enema?
If they do not pass Barium or they have bleeding
32
What kind of allergy should a patient be screened for prior to contrast?
Iodine or shellfish
33
What is perforation?
When a hole is made somewhere in the GI- MEDICAL EMERGENCY
34
What lab should be reviewed before a CT to check kidney function?
Creatinine
35
Contraindications for MRI:
internal metal devices (aneurysm clip, pacemaker, cochlear implants), foil backed patches due to risk of burns
36
Can pt eat after an endoscopy?
Nothing until gag reflex returns
37
What position for colonoscopy?
left side lying with legs drawn to chest
38
What is the most common cause of tooth loss in adults?
Periodontal disease
39
If a patient comes in with a concussion and mandibular fracture, what else should they be screened for?
C SPINE FRACTURE
40
Lithotripsy
a procedure that uses shock waves to disintegrate stone- may cause hemorrhage or swelling
41
Odynophagia
acute pain on swallowing
42
Management of GERD
low fat diet, avoid caffeine, beer, tobacco, milk; avoid eating or drinking 2 hours before bed and elevate the head of the bed by at least 50 degrees
43
What are some symptoms for cancer of the esophagus?
Dysphagia, sensation of mass in throat, regurgitation
44
Interventions for tube feeding:
Water before and after each med and feeding, every 4 to 6 hours. DO NOT MIX MEDS. do not hang feeding for more than 4 to 8 hours.
45
How much water should be administered with tube feeding?
30 mL
46
What position should the patients head be in when receiving a tube feeding?
30 degrees
47
When suctioning a patient post neck dissection, the nurse should remember:
to NEVER sunction around stitches
48
Achalasia:
absent or ineffective peristalsis of the distal esophogas- difficulty with solid food, noncardiac chest pain, and pyrosis (heart burn)
49
What is esophageal perforation and what are some manifestations?
MEDICAL EMERGENCY- excruciating retrosternal; pain, dysphagia, infection, fever, leukocytosis
50
What is the medical management for a foreign body in the throat?
Intubation if needed to protect airway, Glucagon IV helps to relax esophagus
51
52
what is siladenitis?
inflammation of the salivary glands
53
medical management of sialadenitis?
massage, hydration, warm compress, sialagogues (substances that trigger saliva flow)
54
medical management of sialadenitis?
massage, hydration, warm compress, sialagogues (substances that trigger saliva flow)
55
What is sialolithiasis?
salivary calculi
56
what is lithotripsy?
a procedure that uses shock waves to disintegrate the stone
57
Assessment for patient receiving enteral feeding:
tube placement, signs of dehydration, blood glucose, I&O, weekly weights
58
management of esophageal spasm:
calcium channel blockers, PPIs especially with symptoms of gerd
59
Management of hiatal hernia:
frequent, small feedings; no reclining for 1 hour after feeding; elevate head of the bed 4-8 inches to prevent hernia from sliding up
60
what are some common causes of gastritis?
Long term use of NSAIDs and aspirin, steroids. Alcohol use, bile reflux, and radiation therapy
61
What is chronic gastritis caused by?
prolonged inflammation, atrophy of gastric tissue, benign or malignant ulcers, or H. Pylori
62
Manifestations of Gastritis:
epigastric pain, dyspepsia, anorexia, hiccups, nausea, vomiting. Chronic: fatigue, pyrosis (heart burn), sour taste in mouth, pernicious anemia
63
Hematemesis nursing assessment:
monitor hypotension, elevated heart rate, promote fluid balance, pt could be pale, diaphoretic-could be in shock
64
What is peptic ulcer disease?
erosion of a mucous membrane that forms an excavation in stomach, pylorus, duodenum, or esophagus (ASSOCIATED WITH H. PYLORI)
65
What can a deep peptic ulcer cause?
GI bleed-melena, hematemesis, hypotension, elevated heart rate
66
Most common site for peptic ulcer formation:
duodenum
67
Most common site for peptic ulcer formation:
duodenum
68
What position should the pt be in for abd assessment?
supine
69
signs of perforation or penetration
EMERGENCY sudden, severe abd pain; vomiting, collapse, extremely tender and rigid abdomen, hypotension and tachycardia
70
what is excoriation?
redness, skin breakdown. can lead to ulcers and sepsis
71
what is steatorrhea?
fat in stool
72
what are the manifestations of appendicitis?
rebound tenderness in lower right abd, belly button pain, fever , constipation or diarrhea

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