Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Spinal Anatomy > Exam 2 - Regions in Spinal Column > Flashcards

Exam 2 - Regions in Spinal Column Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 regions of the occiput?

A

Squamous portion
Lateral/condylar (2)
Basilar portion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Posterior part and most of the base of the cranium is formed by what

A

Occipital bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What pass through foramen magnum?

A

Medulla oblongata
Vertebral arteries
Spinal arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where the glossopharyngeal, vagus, and accessory cranial nerve exit the skull

A

Jugular foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The portion that connects to the sphenoid bone and is an area for attachment of many ligaments and muscles

A

Basilar portion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

First _____ of flexion/extension of head and neck takes place here before any other vertebra move

A

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the 4 nuchal lines?

A

Median
Inferior
Superior
Highest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The largest part of the occiput that is posterior to the foramen magnum

A

Squamous portion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A typical cervical vertebra has _______ shaped bodies

A

Rectangular/oval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A typical cervical vertebra has _______ SP

A

Bifid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How many cervical lips does a typical cervical vertebra have?

A

3 - 2 superior lateral & 1 anterior inferior lip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

in the typical cervical vertebra, the TP are _______ to the AP

A

Anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

__________ ________ are ascension of the vertebral artery

A

Transverse foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a Costco-transverse lamella?

A

Groove on superior surface of the TVP for exit of the spinal nerve - typical cervical vertebra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A typical cervical vertebra has a ________ neural foramen

A

Triangular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which cervical are typical

A

3,4,5,6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Peculiar cervical vertebra are..

A

1,2,7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the purpose of the uncinate processes?

A

Prevent lateral slipping of vertebra above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When does the uncinate process develop?

A

Between 9 and 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A typical cervical has ___ true articulations and ___ pseudo ones

A

6

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Bony elevations on the superior lateral margins of the cervical vertebrae are called what?

A

Uncinate processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Uncinate processes articulate with the inferior lateral aspect of the vertebra above to form what?

A 
Uncovertebral joint
AKA
Joints of Luschka
AKA
Luschkal Joint
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the defining characteristics of the atlas

A

Lacks a body, pedicles, Laminae, spinous

Has anterior arch, posterior arch, and lateral masses, and TVPs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is developed from the hypochondral arch that typically unites both halves of vertebral bodies

A

Anterior Arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Primary center of ossification for the atlas

A

Anterior arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Anterior arch fuses to lateral masses when?

A

Between 6 and 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Most anterior part of the atlas

A

Anterior tubercle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Groove for articulation of dens on the anterior tubercle that forms a pivotal joint for rotation of C1 and C2

A

Fovea Dentalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

50% of rotation of the head and neck takes place in the ______ before any other vertebra moves

A

Anterior tubercle of anterior arch of C1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Entrance of vertebral artery and exit for 1st pair of spinal nerves

A

Superior Vertebral Notch (Sulcus Arteriae Vertebralis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Exit of 2nd pair of spinal nerves

A

Inferior vertebral notch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Anterior inferior surface of posterior arch

A

Inferior vertebral notch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Lateral masses of C-1 have _____ and _____ facets

A

Superior

Inferior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Superior facet of C1 faces…

A

Superior and medial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Inferior facet of C1 faces…

A

Flat and inferior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Where are the longest TVP in the cervical spine?

A

C1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Causes of ADI abnormality

A

Trauma
Down’s Syndrome
Inflammatory Arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

C2 AKA

A

Axis

Epistropheus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Distinguishing characteristics of C2

A 
Odontoid Process (dens)
No superior lateral lips
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the 5 articulations of C1?

A

2 with occiput

3 with C2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Atlas-Dens Interval should be….

A

Less than 5mm in children

Less than 3mm in adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which cervical has the shortest TVP

A

C2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which cervical has the largest SP?

A

C2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the articulations of C2?

A

3 with atlas

3 with C3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the two ligaments of C2

A

Alar ligament

Apical dental ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which cervical is the first palpable spinous below the EOP?

A

C2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

2 or more motions occurring at the same time

A

Coupling motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Spinous process will move to ______ side when cervical spine is laterally flexed

A

Opposite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The vertebral body will move to the _______ side when the cervical spine is laterally flexed

A

Same

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The spinous process will move to the _______ side when the lumbar spine is laterally flexed

A

Same

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The vertebral body will move to the ______ side when the lumbar spine is laterally flexed

A

Opposite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The coupling motion of the cervical spine occurs where?

A

From cervical spine to T6,7,8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

The first artery off the subclavian artery

A

Vertebral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which artery supplies the posterior 1/3 of the bran?

A

Vertebral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Which arteries supply the anterior 2/3 of the brain?

A

Carotid arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Which artery comes off the aorta?

A

Subclavian artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The vertebral artery ascends through the tansversarii of the first ____ vertebrae

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What does it mean that the vertebral artery is fixed to adjacent structures?

A

It cannot slide inside the transverse foramen and will elongate then the cervical spine is rotated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

The vertebral artery will elongate when the cervical spine is bent at what degree?

A

30-45%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Part 1 of the vertebral artery

A

Subclavian artery through TVP of C6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Part 2 of the vertebral artery

A

From C6 through C2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Part 3 of vertebral artery

A

C2 to C1
Moves laterally and passes through TVP of C1
Turns medially and goes through sulcus arterii vertebrialis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Part 4 of vertebral artery

A

Through posterior Atlanta-occipital ligament, into spinal canal then joins with fellow on opposite side to form the basilar artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Last and largest branch of vertebral artery

A

PICA

Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Basilar artery travels upward and branched into a right and left ___________

A

Posterior cerebral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

The posterior cerebral artery branches and forms the _______________

A

Posterior communicating artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

The anterior cerebral artery unites with the _______

A

Anterior communicating artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Where is the circles of Willis?

A

under the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What does the circle of Willis supply?

A

The base of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Most common area of stroked or vascular accidents?

A

Circle of Willis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

2 divisions of strokes

A

Ischemic

Hemorrhagic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Blood supple to a portion of the brain is blocked

A

Ischemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Loss of blood flow due to bleeding

A

Hemorrhagic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

90% of strokes are…

A

Ischemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

The type of stroke that is associated with manipulation

A

Ischemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Least mobile region of the spine

A

Thoracic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Basic movement in the thoracic spine is _______

A

Rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

There is some _______ but no _______ in the thoracic spine

A

Flexion

Extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Typical thoracic vertebrae:

A

T2-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Most of the thoracic vertebrae have an _______ shaped neural foramen

A

Oval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

TVP of thoracic vertebrae are oriented…

A

45 degrees posterolateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

12 articulations of typical thoracic vertebra

A

4: Articular processes
4: Demi-facets on bodies with head of ribs
2: ribs at TVP
2: vertebral body above and below via disc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Which is the longest thoracic spinous?

A

T4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Which is the shortest thoracic spinous

A

T11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Which thoracic vertebra are peculiar

A

T1, T9, T10, T11, T12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

T1 characteristics

A

2nd transitional spinal segment
Body more rectangular
Rudimentary uncinate processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

T1 Characteristics

A

1 pair full costal facets superior
1 Park demifacets inferior
12 articulations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

T9 characteristics

A

1 pair demi-facets on superior
No inferior demi-facets
10 articulations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

T10 characteristics

A

Only 1 pair of full costal facets-superior
NO costal facets on inferior
10 articulations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

T11 characteristics

A

NO fovea costalis transversalis on TVP
1 pair full facets
8 articulations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

T12 characteristics

A

No fovea costalis transversalis on TVP
1 pair full facets on body
3rd transitional segment in spine
Mammillary processes, accessory processes, 1 pair of interlocking articular process on inferior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Pectus carinatum

A

Sternum sticks outward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Ribs too short to bend backward so pushes sternum outward

A

Pectus carinatum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Pectus excavatum

A

Sternum is depressed inward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Ribs are too long and push sternum more inward

A

Pectus excavatum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Typical lumbar vertebra

A

L1-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Typical lumbar vertebra bodies are ______ shaped

A

Kidney

98
Q

SP of typical lumbar are..

A

Club-like

99
Q

TVP of typical lumbar vertebra are ____ and _________

A

Thin

Blade like

100
Q

TVPs of typical lumbar vertebra are _______ to articular process but _______ to IVF

A

Anterior

Posterior

101
Q

Mammillary process of typical lumbar are on the _______ _________ ________ aspect of superior articular process

A

Posterior
Superior
Lateral

102
Q

SAP of typical lumbar are convex or concave?

A

Concave

103
Q

SAP of typical lumbar are located on inside or outside?

A

Outside

104
Q

IAP of typical lumbar are convex or concave?

A

Convex

105
Q

IAP of typical lumbar are on inside or outside?

A

Inside

106
Q

Laminae of typical lumbar is _____ and _____

A

Broad

Short

107
Q

Shape of neural foramen is _______ on typical lumbar vertebra

A

Triangular

108
Q

Pedicles of typical lumbar have _______ inferior pedicle notch

A

Deep

109
Q

Pedicles of typical lumbar vertebra have a ______ superior pedicle notch

A

Shallow

110
Q

body of typical lumbars show a progressive _____ in mass

A

Increase

111
Q

Pedicles of typical lumbar are ______ and ______ than thoracic

A

Longer

Wider

112
Q

TVP of lumbar are _____ than in thoracic region

A

Smaller

113
Q

SP of lumbar vertebra are _______ shaped

A

Square

114
Q

Which lumbar is peculiar?

A

L5

115
Q

L5 has a _______ shaped body

A

Wedge

116
Q

SP of L5 tips _______

A

Upward

117
Q

TVP of L5 arises from the _______ and not the lamina/pedicle junction

A

Body

118
Q

4th transitional segment of the spine

A

L5

119
Q

Flexion of lumbar spine only

A

60 degrees

120
Q

Flexion of lumbar spine with aid of pelvis

A

105 degrees

121
Q

Extension of the lumbars:

A

25 degrees

122
Q

The first 15 degrees of lumbar extension are from the ______

A

Pelvis

123
Q

Last 10 degrees of extension of the lumbar spine are from

A

Lumbar spine alone

124
Q

Degree of lateral flexion in the lumbars:

A

25 degrees

125
Q

Degree of rotation in the lumbars:

A

45 degrees

126
Q

A break in the pars interarticularis without anterior slippage

A

Spondylolysis

127
Q

Break in the pars interarticularis with anterior slippage

A

Spondylolisthesis

128
Q

Anterolisthesis

A

Anterior slippage

129
Q

Retrolisthesis

A

Posterior slippage

130
Q

Spondylos 70-75% of the time occurs as ______ slips anterior on ______

A

L5

S1

131
Q

25% of spondylos occur as _____ slips anterior on _____

A

L4

L5

132
Q

Generally accepted cause of spondylolysis

A

Repeated strains

-damage lower spine over time, usually at L5

133
Q

Stress fractures are associated with spondylo…..

A

Spondylolysis

134
Q

What are the 5 types of spondylolisthesis?

A 
Isthmic 
Degenerative
Traumatic
Pathological 
Dysplastic
135
Q

Most common type of spondylolisthesis

A

Isthmic

136
Q

Type of spondylolisthesis that causes fatigue or stress fracture of the pars of L5

A

Isthmic

137
Q

Where can you find a Scotty Dog?

A

Oblique x-ray

138
Q

Primarily posterior joint degeneration is what type of spondylolisthesis

A

Degenerative

139
Q

Most common form of spondylolisthesis below the age of 50

A

Isthmic

140
Q

Most common form of spondylolisthesis above the age of 50

A

Degenerative

141
Q

No fracture or pars defect, this is caused by time (type of spondylolisthesis)

A

Degenerative

142
Q

L5 slips on S1

A

Isthmic spondylolisthesis

143
Q

L4 slips on L5

A

Degenerative

144
Q

Most common spondylolisthesis in female over 40

A

Degenerative

145
Q

Acute fracture anywhere in the posterior arch except at the pars interarticularis

A

Traumatic spondylolisthesis

146
Q

Found secondary to pathology (type of spondylolisthesis)

A

Pathological

147
Q

Rare congenital malformation in with L5 may not have inferior articular processes to articulate with S1 (causes anterior slide)

A

Dysplastic spondylolisthesis

148
Q

Spondylolisthesis and spondylolysis are both _________ conditions

A

Acquired

149
Q

Incidents of spondylolisthesis _________ with age

A

Increase

150
Q

Congenital spondylolisthesis AKA

A

Dysplastic

151
Q

Spondylolysis means what?

A

Breaking the vertebrae

152
Q

95% of spondylolysis occur at which vertebrae?

A

L5

153
Q

Spindylolysis are generally ________ in nature (bilateral or unilateral)

A

Bilateral

154
Q

Isthmic spondylolisthesis is most often found between the ages of _____ and _____ in athletes

A

9

13

155
Q

The majority of spondylos occur asymptomatically by the age of _____ and become symptomatic by age _____

A

12

13

156
Q

As many as ____% of young athletes with lumbar pain for over 3 months have either spondylolisthesis and spondylolysis

A

50

157
Q

Signs and symptoms of spondylolisthesis

A
  1. Low back pain (chronic)
  2. Tight hamstrings (hyperlordosis)
  3. Loss of flexibility
158
Q

Typical x-ray views for the lumbar spine

A 
A-P lumbar
Lateral lumbar (not often)
159
Q

if you suspect a spondylo, what type of x-ray view do you want?

A

A-P lumbar
Lateral lumbar
& obliques

160
Q

2 ways to measure (or grade) the amount or degree of slippage using lateral lumbar x-ray

A

Ullman’s Line

Meyerding classification

161
Q

Type of classification that uses posterior aspect of the vertebral bodies to measure slippage

A

Meyerding classification

162
Q

Grade 1 meyerding classification

A

0-25%

163
Q

Grade 2 Meyerding classification

A

25-50%

164
Q

Grade 3 Meyerding classification

A

50-75%

165
Q

Grade 4 Meyerding classification

A

75-100%

166
Q

Grade 5 Meyerding classification

A

Vertebra has slipped totally off the segment below and anterior

Called spondyloptosis

167
Q

75% of flexion of the lumbar spine is at ________

A

L5/S1

168
Q

Least segmental motion in the lumbar spine is _______

A

Rotation

169
Q

Greatest amount of overall motion in the lumbar spine is at _______

A

L4-5

170
Q

Greatest amount of lateral bending in the lumbar spine occurs at _____

A

L3-4

171
Q

Least amount of lateral bending in the lumbar spine is ______

A

L5/S1

172
Q

What is the most common anomaly of the spine?

A

Trophies

173
Q

“Last lumbar assumes the characteristics of the sacrum” what does this describe?

A

Sacralization

174
Q

“1st sacral segment assumes characteristics of the lumbar” what does this describe?

A

Lumbarization

175
Q

What are the 3 types of Baastrup’s disease?

A

Trophism
Sacralization
Lumbarization

176
Q

51% of disc herniation occur at ______

A

L4/5

177
Q

49% of disc herniation occur at _______

A

L5/S1

178
Q

More mobility = ________ stability

A

Less

179
Q

Elongated spinous process of L5 (with lordosis) and a spina bifida at S1 is referred to as what?

A

Knife clasp syndrome

180
Q

In ________, joints are faced different and only move with great stress.

A

Tropism

181
Q

A pathological stimulation of new bone formation at the attachments of the longitudinal ligaments

A

Spondylosis

182
Q

What are the 2 types of spondylosis?

A

Syndesmophyte

Spondylophyte

183
Q

Vertical spurs - calcification of the longitudinal ligaments
What type of spondylosis does this describe

A

Spondesmophyte

184
Q

Horizontal spurs off the vertebra - may end up with fusion

What type of spondylosis does this describe?

A

Spondylophyte

185
Q

What is a spur found on the bone called?

A

Osteophyte

186
Q

What are the 3 types of fusion?

A

Arthrodesis
Ankylosis
Synostosis

187
Q

Surgical fusion

A

Arthrodesis

188
Q

Pathological fusion

A

Ankylosis

189
Q

Congenital fusion

A

Synostosis

190
Q

Base of the sacrum is body of ______

A

S1

191
Q

Sacral Alae AKA

A

Lateral sacral masses

192
Q

Superior articular process of the sacrum articulates with what?

A

Last lumbar segment

193
Q

Facets in the sacrum face more ______ than ______

A

Coronally than sagittally

194
Q

Women sacrum is _______(short or tall), _______ (thin or wide), and _______ curved

A

Shorter
Wider
More curved

195
Q

Sacral vertebrae connects the spine to the pelvic girdle at the _______________

A

Sacroiliac joint

196
Q

Sacral promontory is on the _____ surface of the sacrum

A

Anterior

197
Q

How many pair of anterior pelvis sacral foramen are there?

A

4

198
Q

What is the articular surface on the lateral surface of the sacrum?

A

SI joint

199
Q

Lateral sacral crest is analogous to _____

A

TVP

200
Q

The only normally occurring spina bifida in vertebral column is what?

A

Sacral hiatus

201
Q

What is the last pair of articular processes?

A

Sacral cornua

202
Q

Male sacrum is more _____ than the females (narrow or wide)

A

Narrow

203
Q

Male sacrum is ________ than females (short or long)

A

Longer

204
Q

Male sacrum is oriented more ________

A

Vertically

205
Q

Female sacrum is oriented more _________

A

Horizontally

206
Q

Male lumbosacral angle is _________

A

Decreased

207
Q

Female lumbosacral angle _________

A

Increased

208
Q

Female anterior surface of the sacrum is more or less curved

A

More

209
Q

What is a females Q-angle?

A

18 degrees

210
Q

What is a males Q-angle?

A

13 degrees

211
Q

Coccyx is formed by ___ segments fused together

A

4

212
Q

Each segment of the coccyx develop as what?

A

Primary center of ossification

213
Q

Coccyx will develop every ____ to ____ years

A

1-5

214
Q

Segments of the coccyx are completely fused between ages _____ and ____

A

25 - 30

215
Q

Normal lumbar spine is about _____ degrees from sacrum

A

37

216
Q

Nerve supply for SI joint is from

A

SI and S2 segments

217
Q

Sacroiliac joint moves about _____ degrees

A

2

218
Q

Articular capsule on anterior surface of sacrum

A

Sacroiliac joint

219
Q

What 5 typed of joints are in the pelvic ring?

A 
Syphysis pubis (1)
SI joints (2)
Coxal joint (2)
Anterior LS joint (1)
Lumbosacral zagapophyseal joints (2)
220
Q

Total number of joints in the pelvic ring?

A

8

221
Q

Pelvic girdle is more flexible in _____

A

Females

222
Q

Forward movement of the sacral base with relationship to the ilium

A

Nutation

223
Q

Sacral base moves posterior in relation to the ilium

A

Counter nutation

224
Q

When the ilium comes tougher is posterior and widens in front, what type of motion is it?

A

Nutation

225
Q

When the ilium opens in the back and comes together in the front, what type of motion is it?

A

Counter nutation

226
Q

What three types of movement are associated with the SI joint

A

Rotatory
Nutation
Counter nutation

227
Q

By the _____ generation of life, degeneration begins and mobility decreases

A

4th

228
Q

By the _____ decade, total fibrous degeneration occurs and movement is changed

A

8th

229
Q

_______ are more susceptible to SI joint issues than ______

A

Females

Males

230
Q

3 joints of uncinate processes

A

Joints of Von Luschka
Unco-vertebral joint
Co-vertebral joint

231
Q

False or pseudo joint is called

A

Joint of Von Luschka
AKA
Luschka Joint

232
Q

Transverse ridges of the sacrum are analogous to ______

A

Discs

233
Q

Sacrospinous ligament seperates _______________ and _____________

A

Greater sciatic notch and foramen

Lesser sciatic notch and foramen

234
Q

Who has larger lordosis, males or females?

A

Females

235
Q

Atlas can move _______ left or right just from the C1/C2

A

40-45

236
Q

2/5th the body ring is part of the ______ arch of C1

A

Posterior

237
Q

Most posterior part of C1

Is analogous to SP

A

Posterior tubercle

238
Q

Entrance of vertebral artery and exit of 1st pair spinal nerves through

A

Sulcus arteriae vertebraialis

239
Q

Ponticus posticus AKA

A

Posterior Atlanto-occipital ligament

240
Q

Calcification of the sulcus arteriae vertebrialis

A

Ponticus posticus

241
Q

Exit of 2nd pair of spinal nerves

A

Inferior vertebral notch

Spinal Anatomy (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions