Exam 2 Review Flashcards
(139 cards)
1
Q
What vitamins are fat-soluble? (SATA)
A
D, A, K, E.
2
Q
In what foods is vitamin K found?
A
Parsley, dark leafy greens, grapes, hard boiled eggs.
3
Q
True or false: fat-soluble vitamins can be toxic in high doses
A
True
4
Q
What route is Thiamine commonly given?
A
IV
5
Q
What is thiamine also called?
A
Vitamin B1
6
Q
Where is folic acid absorbed and stored?
A
Absorbed in small intestine and stored in the liver and tissues
7
Q
_________ plays a role in maintaining normal calcium and potassium balance and promotes neuromuscular activity in the CNS.
A
Magnesium
8
Q
You are administering TPN (total parenteral nutrition) to a patient. You know that you must administer TPN through what?
A
Central line
9
Q
An RN is being shadowed by a student nurse. Which statement by the student demonstrates proper understanding of the frequency of blood glucose checks with TPN?
A
“The patient needs a blood glucose check every 6 hours”.
10
Q
True or False: The high glucose content of TPN puts the patient at risk for infection and the tubing should be changed daily.
A
True
11
Q
True or False: Enteral nutrition does not require a functional GI system.
A
False
12
Q
Elevating the head of the bed in tube feeding decreases the risk for __________.
A
aspiration
13
Q
True or false: You should always assess bowel sounds before and after tube feedings.
A
True
14
Q
__________ is used to supplement pancreatic enzymes in chronic pancreatic insufficiency such as chronic pancreatitis, gastrectomy, GI bypass surgery, and controls steatorrhea.
A
Pancreatin
15
Q
Pancreatin is excreted through what?
A
The stool
16
Q
What bacteria is known to cause peptic ulcers?
A
H.pylori
17
Q
What are other causes of peptic ulcer disease?
A
NSAIDS
Surgery
Alcohol
Stress
18
Q
Preventative measures for GERD include what?
A
Eating several hours before bedtime
Avoiding alcohol and smoking
Losing weight
Avoiding spicy and fatty foods
19
Q
Omeprazole falls under what classification of medications?
A
PPI- proton pump inhibitors
20
Q
How long should omeprazole be used for?
A
2 months
21
Q
Omeprazole is metabolized by CYP450 enzymes. This means you should use caution in which patients?
A
Patients with hepatic impairment
22
Q
True or False: It is okay to crush omeprazole.
A
False
23
Q
What drugs interact with omeprazole?
A
Benzodiazepines
Warfarin
Clarithromycin
Sucralfate
Phenytoin
24
Q
__________ inhibits the action of histamine at H2 receptor sites in gastric parietal cells resulting in inhibition of gastric acid secretion.
A
Famotidine
25
Patients taking famotidine should eat foods high in what vitamin?
Vitamin B12
26
True or False: There are systemic and non-systemic antacids.
True
27
True or False: Antacids neutralize HCL and promote ulcer healing.
True
28
________ is added to diphenoxylate HCL to discourage abuse.
Atropine
29
True or False: Lomotil promotes reabsorption of fluid through a prolonged transit time.
True
30
The patient taking Lomotil should avoid taking medications that ________ CNS depression.
Increase
31
Loperamide (Imodium) _________ intestinal motility
Decreases
32
Why should children not take bismuth subsalicylate?
May cause Reye's syndrome.
33
Patients that are displaying which of the following should not take laxatives?
Severe abdominal pain that has not been diagnosed.
Hase nausea and vomiting.
Has a bowel obstruction.
34
What are the different classifications of laxitives.
Stimulant
Bulk forming
Emollients
Osmotic or saline
35
Hyperosmotic laxatives
Chronic constipation, diagnostic and surgical preps.
36
Emollient laxatives
Acute and chronic constipation, fecal impaction, facilitation of bowel movements in anorectal conditions.
37
Stimulant laxatives
Acute constipation, diagnostic and surgical preps
38
Bulk forming laxatives
Acute and chronic constipation, IBS, diverticulosis.
39
Saline laxatives
Constipation, diagnostic and surgical preps.
40
What condition are saline laxatives contraindicated in?
Heart failure
41
A patient admitted to the hospital reports that they use a laxative at home. When asked what the name is, the patient states that they can't remember the name, but they DO know that it tastes chalky. What laxative is the patient most likely taking?
Milk of magnesia
42
A patient who has orders for Polyethylene glycol (golytely) reports that they don't want to drink it because of the taste. What can make drinking this more palatable to the patient?
Refrigerate the medication
43
Lactulose is also used in _______ encephalopathy.
Hepatic
44
Lactulose reduces blood _______ levels.
Ammonia
45
Stimulant laxatives ________ the sensory nerve endings in the intestinal mucosa.
Irritate
46
True or false: You should administer stimulant laxatives at the hour of sleep.
False
47
Bulk forming laxatives are non__________
Absorbable
48
_______ and ______ is mixed with 8 oz of water, followed by another 8 oz of water. (separate answers with the word "and")
methylcellulose and psyllium
49
Emollients ________ water retention in the stool
Increase
50
In open-angle glaucoma, theye trabecular meshwork is ____.
Open
51
In closed-angle glaucoma, the trabecular meshwork is blocked by the ____.
Iris
52
A patient presents with open-angle glaucoma and a change in iris color. What medication are they most likely taking?
Prostaglandin analogues
53
Beta adrenergic blockers reduce intraocular pressure by _________ the production of aqueous humor.
Decreasing
54
Most prostaglandin analogues end in what suffix?
-Prost
55
True or False: Rho kinase inhibitors lower the intraocular pressure by modulating the conventional aqueous outflow pathway.
True
56
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are ____ effective than other anti-glaucoma drugs.
Less
57
Anti-inflammatory agents are used for only _ week(s).
1
58
Ranibizumab, bevacizumab, pegaptanib, and aflibercept are drugs used for ___________________.
Macular degeneration
59
Anti-infectives used in ear disorders are used to treat what?
Acute otitis media
Acute otitis externa
60
Amoxicillin, azithromycin, and clarithromycin are used to treat acute otitis _____.
Media
61
Acetic acid, neomycin, hydrocortisone, and fluoroquinolones are used to treat acute otitis _______.
Externa
62
Cerumenolytics are separated into two different kinds. What are they?
Water and oil based
63
Pregnancy and breastfeeding should be avoided for how long after taking radioactive iodine?
6 months
64
PTU inhibits iodine and peroxidase from their normal interactions with _____________ to form T4 and T3.
Thyroglobulin
65
In hypothyroidism, T3 and T4 are _____
Low
66
In hyperthyroidism, T3 and T4 are _____.
High
67
True or false: Levothyroxine cannot be crushed
False
68
Armour thyroid is derived from _______ glands.
Porcine
69
Addison's disease is an excess in glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids.
False
It’s a deficit
70
True or False: Cushing's disease is a deficit in glucocorticoids
False
It’s an excess
71
What kind of corticosteroid is prednisone?
Glucocorticoid
72
What electrolytes should be monitored while taking prednisone?
Potassium
Sodium
73
What drug inhibits accumulation of inflammatory cells at inflammation sites, phagocytosis, lysosomal enzyme release and synthesis, and release of mediators of inflammation?
Hydrocortisone
74
Glucose is stored in the liver as ________.
Glycogen
75
Insulin promotes uptake of _______ and ______ into the cell.
Potassium
Glucose
76
A normal A1C should be:
<7%
77
A normal fasting blood glucose level should be between:
70-99
78
What suffix does rapid-acting insulin end in
-Log
Lispro (Humalog)
aspart (Novolog)
79
What suffix does short-acting insulin end in?
-Lin
Regular (Humalin, Novolin)
80
NPH insulin is normally...
Cloudy
81
When drawing up both NPH and regular insulin, which one do you draw up first?
Regular
82
True or False: It is okay to draw up insulin in non-insulin syringes.
False
83
Insulin can last how many months when refrigerated?
3 months after opening
84
True or False: It is okay to freeze insulin
False
Do not freeze insulin
85
What is an off-label use for metformin?
PCOS
86
What route is metformin administered?
PO
87
True or False: Metformin should be held before a patient has surgery or when a patient will be NPO for a prolonged or unknown period of time.
True
88
Metformin should be taken _______ food.
With
89
Decongestants
Shrink nasal mucus membranes.
90
Nasal glucocorticoid
Decrease inflammation
91
Antihistamines
Reduces nasopharyngeal secretions.
92
Mucolytics
Thins and enhances flow of secretions
93
Expectorants
Loosen bronchial secretions
94
Antitussives
Suppresses cough
95
Phenylephrine and pseudoephedrine ____________ nasal capillaries.
Vasoconstrict
96
1st generation antihistamines (benadryl) cause drowsiness and 2nd generation antihistamines (claritin and zyrtec) are non-sedating.
True
97
Dextromethorphan when abused, gives the patient a sense of _______.
Flying
98
A patient was recently prescribed an expectorant.It is important to educate the patient to ________ fluid intake when taking this drug to help thin and loosen secretions.
Increase
99
___________ blocks the allergic cascade by inhibiting multiple inflammatory mediators and binding to the glucocorticoid receptors.
Fluticasone
100
When using an inhaler, a ______ is commonly used to increase delivery to the lungs.
Spacer
101
_________ don't require hand-breath coordination
Dry powder inhalers
102
Nebulizers convert a drug solution into a ____.
Mist
103
Albuterol is a ______ adrenergic agonist.
Beta 2
104
True or False: A patient taking theophylline is at an increased risk for toxicity due to the narrow therapeutic index of the drug.
True
105
Is theophylline commonly used?
No
106
Ipratropium ______ muscarinic receptors in the lungs.
Blocks
107
Montelukast is used as a _______ therapy.
Adjunct (secondary)
108
__________ binds to glucocorticoid receptors in the cytoplasm of cells in the airways to decrease airway inflammation.
Budesonide
109
Cations carry a ________ charge.
Positive
110
Anions carry a ________ charge.
Negative
111
The extracellular fluid compartment is called what?
Interstitials
Intravascular
Transcellular or third space
112
True or False: The elderly are composed of more fluid than a newborn.
False
113
Signs of fluid volume _______ include low BP, tachycardia, dry mucous membranes, and decreased urine output.
Deficit
114
Signs of fluid volume _______ include edema, crackles of the lungs, increased urine output, weight gain, and respiratory distress.
Overload
115
Those with a fluid volume overload are most likely going to be put on what diet?
Sodium restriction
116
What is the normal range for sodium levels?
135-145
117
Hyponatremia is treated usually with what fluid?
3% saline
118
What mnemonic is used to remember the signs and symptoms of hyponatremia?
SALTLOSS
Stupor anorexia lethargy tendon reflexes (decreased) limp muscles (weakness) orthostatic hypotension seizures stomach cramping
119
What fluid replacement is used in hypernatremia?
Hypotonic
120
What is the normal level for potassium?
3.5-5
121
True or False: It is standard procedure to administer potassium via IV bolus.
False
122
Medications that are usually given for hyperkalemia include
10% calcium gluconate IV push -stabilizers cardiac membrane.
IV insulin and glucose- shift k+ back in cells
IV Sodium bicarb- increases pH & k+ back in cells
Kayexalate- poop k+ out
Albuterol nebulizer -lowers k+
Dialysis- in extreme cases
123
A normal calcium level is:
8.6-10.2
124
Calcium has an inverse relationship with:
Phosphorus
125
True or False: When giving PO calcium, you must also administer vitamin D.
True
126
Crystalloids
Contain fluid and electrolytes and freely cross capillary walls. NO proteins. Short term maintenance fluid, early plasma expansion.
127
Colloids
Large molecules, increased osmolarity without dissolving solution, expand vascular compartment.
128
Tonicity
Used primarily as a measurement of the concentration of IV solutions compared with the osmolality of body fluids.
129
Osmolarity
Refers to the concentration of particles in a solution.
130
Osmolality
Its number of particles per liter of solution.
131
D5W in neuro patients can cause _____________.
Cerebral edema
132
The only fluid that is hung with blood products is _________.
Normal saline
133
Potassium sparing diuretics
Spironolactone (Aldactone)
134
Thiazide diuretics
Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)
135
Loop diuretics
Furosemide (Lasix)
136
Furosemide can cause what electrolyte imbalances?
Hypokalemia
Hyponatremia
Hypocalcemia
Hypomagnasemia
137
Thiazide diuretics can cause what electrolyte imbalances?
Hypokalemia
Hypomagnesemia
Hypercalcemia
Hyperglycemia
Hyperuricemia
138
Thiazide diuretics are contraindicated in:
Renal failure
139
Potassium sparing diuretics can cause what electrolyte imbalances?
Hypomagnesemia
Hyponatremia
Hypocalcemia
Hyperkalemia
Hyperglycemia
Hyperuricemia
