Kahoot Exam 2 Flashcards
(84 cards)
1
Q
____ glaucoma is when the trabecular meshwork structure is open but becomes clogged
A
Open-angle glaucoma
2
Q
Cerumenolytics include both water and oil based products
A
True
3
Q
What class of drug can cause CNS depresssion when taken with alcohol, sedatives, or tranquilizers?
A
Antimotility
4
Q
Lomotil can not be given to children under 2
A
True
5
Q
Excessive use of bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto) can cause what?
A
Tinnitus
6
Q
Laxatives can be used for extended periods of constipation without issues
A
False
7
Q
Laxative use can cause electrolyte imbalances
A
True
8
Q
Laxative use can cause electrolyte imbalances
A
True
9
Q
_______ lowers blood ammonia levels within the body while helping with constipation
A
Lactulose
10
Q
What should the nurse should teach patients taking stimulant laxatives?
A
advising on the overuse of laxatives
discontinue use if rectal bleeding, nausea, and vomiting occur
diet should be high in fiber
11
Q
While taking bulk-forming laxatives, the nurse should advise the patient to:
A
mix with water before taking to avoid GI obstruction
12
Q
Mineral oil can decrease absorption of which vitamins into the body?
A
fat- soluble (KADE)
13
Q
Mineral oil is safe to use with pregnancy
A
False
14
Q
It is safe to administer laxatives to patients who come in with severe stomach pain without first being diagnosed
A
False
15
Q
Fat-soluble vitamins include:
A
K, A, D, & E
16
Q
Which vitamin is essential for night vision?
A
Vitamin A
17
Q
Water-soluble vitamins (B&C) are usually less toxic than fat-soluble, but can still become toxic
A
True
18
Q
Thiamine (B1) deficiency can lead to _____
A
Wernicke Encephalopathy
19
Q
Thiamine (B1) deficiency can lead to _____
A
Wernicke Encephalopathy
20
Q
A patient receiving TPN should have their blood glucose levels checked every 2 hours
A
False. It needs to be checked every 6 hours
21
Q
Patients receiving enteral nutrition should have the nurse check residuals before administering
A
True
22
Q
Safe tube feeding include
A
HOB to 30-45 degrees during feeding
flush with 30 mLs of water at the beginning and end
residual volumes are checked
23
Q
Nonpharm treatments for nausea and vomiting does not include
A
Carbonated soda
24
Q
Triple treatment for PUD include
A
Bismuth
PPI
Antibiotics
25
Patients experiencing GERD should avoid spicy, fatty foods and lose weight
True
26
Teaching for patients taking omeprazole (prilosec) include:
Take 1 hour before first meal of the day
Report persistent diarrhea, black/ bloody stool, mucous, or pus.
Notify HCP if on any vitamins or supplements
27
Omeprazole can interact with warfarin and prolong the elimination time of warfarin
True
28
Patients taking famotidine (pepcid) and iron should take them ______
1 hour apart
29
Patients taking antacids might have white speckled spots in their stool
True
30
If a patient is experiencing hypothyroidism for a long time, they are at an increased chance of developing..
Myxedema coma
31
Patient's can change the brand of thyroid medication if theirs isn't available
False
It may change the lab values
32
_______ is a disorder of carbohydrates, fats, and protein metabolism
Diabetes mellitus
33
Patient's with diabetes should be taught:
carry quick candy, drinks for episodes
storage of insulin
learn about sick day/ stressors
34
Newborns and older adults are at a higher risk of dehydration and electrolye imbalances
True
35
Hyponatremia symptoms include:
stupor
decreased tendon reflexes
seizures
36
Foods that are high in potassium include:
mushrooms
Bananas
fish
avocados
37
Should potassium be pushed?
No, never push potassium. It results in death.
38
Which fluid can be administered with blood products?
Isotonic fluid only Normal Saline 0.9%
39
A patient taking spironolactone should avoid foods high in
Potassium
40
______ work by shrinking nasal mucous membranes
Decongestants
41
Side effects of albuterol (Ventolin) include:
Palpitations
Tachycardia
Nervousness
42
Patients taking montelukast ( Singular) should report what side effect immediately to their HCP?
Suicidal ideation
43
The nurse is reviewing a patient’s medication history and notes that the patient is taking
vitamin K. What is the priority for the nurse to assess?
Coagulation studies
44
The nurse assesses a patient with hyperparathyroidism and notes that the patient is to
receive a vitamin D supplement. What is the priority nursing assessment?
Calcium levels
45
The patient arrives at a local health clinic complaining of dry skin and not being able to see
well in dim light. The nurse suspects that the patient is experiencing a vitamin deficiency. Based
on the symptoms, the patient is most likely to be experiencing a deficiency of which vitamin?
Vitamin A
46
The nurse is instructing a group of patients about nutrition. The nurse is discussing vitamin
deficiencies in this week’s class. A patient asks if a B12 deficiency is a significant problem. The
nurse explains that a B12 deficiency can result in which symptom?
Gastrointestinal disorders
47
The nurse is assessing a patient who follows a vegan diet. What assessment is the priority for
the nurse to make?
Assess for Vitamin B12 deficiency
48
The nurse is assessing a patient receiving enteral feedings. Which finding should alert the
nurse to a potential complication?
Persistent coughing by the patient
49
Which of the following actions if taken by a nursing student should alert the nurse that
additional instruction is needed about enteral feeding administration?
Check gastric residual immediately following feeding.
50
The nurse would be correct in identifying which outcome as the most serious complication of
tube feedings?
Aspiration pneumonia
51
The nurse is caring for a patient receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which
interventions will the nurse include in the patient’s plan of care?
Monitor blood glucose levels per protocol
Monitor intake and output.
Monitor the patient for changes in temperature.
52
The patient is receiving a bolus feeding through a gastrostomy tube and develops diarrhea.
What is a priority nursing intervention?
Slow the bolus feedings
Diarrhea can be caused by rapid administration of feeding, high caloric solutions,
malnutrition, gastrointestinal bacteria, and drugs. Diarrhea can usually be managed or corrected
by decreasing the feeding flow rate, and as diarrhea lessens, the feeding flow rate can be
gradually increased.
53
The healthcare provider has indicated that the patient requires an elemental enteral feeding
preparation. The nurse understands that elemental feedings are used in treating which type of
patient?
Post-gastrointestinal surgical intervention
54
The nurse is administering loperamide to a patient with diarrhea. What assessment is
essential for the nurse to perform?
Gastric assessment
55
What should the nurse teach the patient about the reason for administering multiple
medications for relief of nausea and vomiting?
Combination therapy blocks different vomiting pathways.
56
What instruction is most important for the nurse to teach a patient who is taking an
anticholinergic agent to treat nausea and vomiting?
“Brush your teeth and gargle to help with dryness in your mouth.”
57
Which assessment is most important for the patient who is taking stimulant laxatives?
Monitor signs and symptoms of fluid and electrolyte imbalance.
58
Which outcome assessment is essential to monitor for in the patient taking diphenoxylate
with atropine?
Decrease in gastric motility
59
Which nursing intervention is a priority before administering magnesium hydroxide to a
patient?
Assess renal function.
60
What is a priority nursing intervention when administering famotidine?
Administer just before meals
Famotidine should be given just before meals to decrease food-induced acid
secretion or at bedtime.
61
The health care provider prescribes omeprazole for a patient. Which assessment indicates
to the nurse that the medication has had a therapeutic effect?
The patient has no esophageal pain.
62
Which patient statement indicates to the nurse a need for additional teaching regarding
proper administration of eye drops?
“I should rinse the eye dropper with tap water after each use.”
63
The nurse is planning to administer eardrops. What intervention is essential to include in the
plan of care?
Warm the eardrops to room temperature before administration.
64
The nurse evaluates the patient using eyedrops. The patient puts two drops into his eye.
What is the nurse’s best action?
Instruct the patient that one drop is optimal.
65
The nurse is caring for a patient who has just started taking levothyroxine. What assessment
finding is a priority for the nurse to address?
Irritability
Irritability is a symptom of hyperthyroidism. This could be a sign that the medication
dose is too high. A lowered heart rate, weight gain, and intolerance to cold could be symptoms
of hypothyroidism and are expected in this patient, who just began medication therapy.
66
What should the nurse include in the plan of care for the patient beginning prednisone
therapy?
Take the medication with food to diminish the risk of gastric irritation.
Glucocorticoids can cause gastric distress and should be administered with food. The
normal circadian secretion of the adrenal cortex is early morning to wake the person up, not
early evening. These medications should be tapered off slowly to prevent adrenal crisis. The
patient takes the medication daily.
67
A patient asks the nurse to explain the action of glucocorticoids. Which statement is the
nurse’s best response?
“Glucocorticoids influence carbohydrate, lipid, and protein metabolism.”
68
Which patient statement demonstrates understanding of the nurse’s teaching for
levothyroxine?
“I will take this medication first thing in the morning.”
Levothyroxine increases basal metabolism and thus wakefulness. It should be taken
first thing in the morning. The patient should not increase the dose. The medication is absorbed
best on an empty stomach. Depending on the symptoms, some symptoms may take weeks to
improve.
69
The nurse is caring for a patient who is taking levothyroxine and warfarin. Which intervention
is a priority for the nurse?
Monitor the patient for increased risk of bleeding
Levothyroxine can compete with protein-binding sites of warfarin (Coumadin),
allowing more warfarin to be unbound or free, thus increasing the effects of warfarin and the risk
of bleeding. This combination does not place the patient at an increased risk of dysrhythmias,
weight loss, or deep vein thrombosis.
70
A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus has been ordered insulin aspart 10 units at 7:00 AM.
What nursing intervention should the nurse perform after administering this medication?
Make sure the patient eats breakfast immediately.
71
The patient newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus has been ordered insulin glargine.
What information is essential for the nurse to teach this patient?
“This medication has a duration of action of 24 h.”
72
The nurse is teaching the patient how to administer insulin. What information is essential to
include in the plan?
“For the most consistent absorption, inject the insulin into the abdomen.”
73
Which statement indicates to the nurse that the patient needs additional teaching on oral
hypoglycemic agents?
“I will take the medication only when I need it.”
Oral hypoglycemic agents must be taken on a daily scheduled basis to maintain
euglycemia and prevent long-term complications of diabetes. When alcohol is ingested with
certain oral hypoglycemic drugs, the hypoglycemic effect can be intensified. The patient may
experience fatigue and loss of appetite as side effects of the medication, and these should be
reported to the health care provider. The patient needs to closely monitor blood sugar.
74
What is the nurse’s best action when finding a patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus
unresponsive, cold, and clammy?
Administer glucagon.
Glucagon stimulates glycogenolysis, raising serum glucose levels. The patient is
showing signs of hypoglycemia.
75
Which laboratory value will the nurse report to the health care provider as a potential
adverse response to hydrochlorothiazide?
Fasting blood glucose level of 140 mg/dL
76
What is the best information for the nurse to provide to the patient who is receiving
spironolactone and furosemide therapy?
This combination promotes diuresis but decreases the risk of hypokalemia.
77
A patient with acute pulmonary edema is receiving furosemide. What assessment finding
indicates to the nurse that the intervention is working?
Lungs clear to auscultation
Furosemide is a potent, rapid-acting diuretic that would be the drug of choice to treat
acute pulmonary edema. Furosemide should not cause a drastic change in output or decrease
in potassium level, and there is no evidence that it will create any change in mental status.
78
The patient tells the nurse that she has a cold, is coughing, and feels like she has fluid in her
lungs. What action will the nurse anticipate performing first?
Administer guaifenesin
The patient needs an expectorant. This medication will help the patient cough the
fluid out of her lungs.
79
A patient is prescribed an antitussive medication. What is the most important instruction for
the nurse to include in the patient teaching?
“This medication may cause drowsiness and dizziness.”
Antitussive medications also affect the central nervous system, thus causing
drowsiness and dizziness.
80
The nurse is teaching a patient about the use of an expectorant. What is the most important
instruction for the nurse to include in the patient teaching?
“Increase your fluid intake in order to decrease viscosity of secretions.”
Expectorant drugs are used to decrease viscosity of secretions and allow them to be
more easily expectorated. Increasing fluid intake helps this action.
81
What should the nurse expect to find that would indicate a therapeutic effect of
acetylcysteine?
Liquifying and loosening of bronchial secretions
Acetylcysteine is a mucolytic drug used to liquefy and loosen bronchial secretions in
order to enhance their expectoration.
82
The nurse will emphasize to a patient receiving a beta-agonist bronchodilator the
importance of reporting which side effect?
Tachycardia
A beta-agonist bronchodilator stimulates the beta receptors of the sympathetic
nervous system, resulting in tachycardia, bronchodilation, hyperglycemia (if severe), and
alertness.
83
A patient with a history of asthma is SOB and says, “I feel like I’m having an asthma attack.”
What is the nurse’s priority action?
Administering a beta2 adrenergic agonist
In an acute asthmatic attack, short-acting sympathomimetics are the first line of
defense. A beta2-adrenergic agonist will provide immediate relief
84
The patient is taking a nonselective adrenergic agonist bronchodilator and has a history of
CAD. What is a priority nursing intervention?
Monitoring patient for potential chest pain
Nonselective adrenergic agonist bronchodilators stimulate beta1 receptors in the
heart and beta2 receptors in the lungs. Stimulation of beta1 receptors can increase heart rate and contractility, increasing oxygen demand. This increased oxygen demand may lead to angina or myocardial ischemia in patients with coronary artery disease. Cautious use of these agents is indicated if the patient has coronary artery disease.
