Exam 3 ch 9-14 Flashcards by Marsha G

Which structure carries sensory information into the spinal cord?
A) Ventral root
B) Dorsal root
C) Ventral gray horn
D) Ascending tract

B) Dorsal root

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What are the clusters of sensory neuron cell bodies located just outside the spinal cord called?
A) Dorsal gray horn
B) Dorsal root ganglia
C) Ventral root
D) Interneuron

B) Dorsal root ganglia

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Where are the cell bodies of motor neurons located?
A) Dorsal gray horn
B) Dorsal root ganglia
C) Ventral gray horn
D) Ascending tract

C) Ventral gray horn

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Which part of the spinal cord gray matter primarily contains interneurons?
A) Dorsal gray horn
B) Ventral gray horn
C) Dorsal root
D) Ventral root ganglia

A) Dorsal gray horn

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What type of neuron transmits signals away from the spinal cord to muscles?
A) Sensory neuron
B) Afferent neuron
C) Efferent neuron
D) Interneuron

C) Efferent neuron

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Which tract carries sensory information toward the brain?
A) Descending tract
B) Ascending tract
C) Efferent path
D) Afferent path

B) Ascending tract

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Which pathway is responsible for carrying motor commands from the brain to the spinal cord?
A) Ascending tract
B) Dorsal root
C) Efferent path
D) Afferent path

C) Efferent path

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What is the correct order of the paths for sensory information traveling into the spinal cord?
A) Sensory neuron → Interneuron → Motor neuron
B) Dorsal root → Dorsal gray horn → Afferent path
C) Ventral root → Ascending tract → Sensory neuron
D) Interneuron → Dorsal root ganglia → Efferent path

B) Dorsal root → Dorsal gray horn → Afferent path

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Where do the axons of sensory neurons enter the spinal cord?
A) Ventral root
B) Dorsal root
C) Ventral gray horn
D) Dorsal gray horn

B) Dorsal root

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What is the correct path of a sensory signal when feeling a tickle and responding by scratching?
A) Sensory neuron → Interneuron → Efferent neuron → Effector
B) Sensory neuron → Efferent neuron → Interneuron → Effector
C) Efferent neuron → Sensory neuron → Interneuron → Effector
D) Interneuron → Sensory neuron → Efferent neuron → Effector

A) Sensory neuron → Interneuron → Efferent neuron → Effector
Stimulus—>action potential through neuron—->first order neuron—->dorsal root of spinal cord—>cross over 2nd order neuron—->synapse of 3rd order neuron—>brain

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Which of the following structures is involved in relaying signals between sensory and motor neurons?
A) Dorsal root ganglia
B) Interneuron
C) Dorsal gray horn
D) Ventral gray horn

B) Interneuron

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The spinothalamic tract is primarily responsible for transmitting which type of information?
A) Motor commands (Descending)
B) Sensory information (Ascending)
C) Balance and coordination (Descending)
D) Visual information (Ascending)

B) Sensory information (Ascending)

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In a monosynaptic reflex, an interneuron is:
A) Always present
B) Never present
C) Only present in reflexes involving muscles
D) Present only in cranial reflexes

B) Never present

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Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is produced by:
A) Ependymal cells in the choroid plexus
B) Arachnoid granulations
C) Dura mater
D) Spinal cord neurons

A) Ependymal cells in the choroid plexus

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Which of the following correctly lists the five steps of the reflex arc?
A) Stimulus → Sensory neuron → Integration center → Motor neuron → Effector
B) Sensory neuron → Effector → Integration center → Motor neuron → Stimulus
C) Effector → Motor neuron → Sensory neuron → Integration center → Stimulus
D) Integration center → Stimulus → Sensory neuron → Effector → Motor neuron

A) Stimulus → Sensory neuron → Integration center → Motor neuron → Effector

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Where is the epidural space located?
A) Between the dura mater and arachnoid mater
B) Between the arachnoid mater and pia mater
C) Within the subarachnoid space
D) Within the ventricles of the brain

A) Between the dura mater and arachnoid mater

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Which of the following is NOT a function of CSF?
A) Protecting the brain and spinal cord
B) Providing nutrients
C) Removing waste
D) Storing oxygen

D) Storing oxygen

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What is the significance of the corticospinal pyramids in the medulla?
A) They control cardiovascular functions
B) They are involved in respiratory control
C) They are the crossing point for motor fibers
D) They regulate sensory information

C) They are the crossing point for motor fibers

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What does the cardiovascular center in the medulla control?
A) Blood pressure and heart rate
B) Breathing rate
C) Reflex actions
D) Body temperature

A) Blood pressure and heart rate

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The pneumotaxic center and apneustic center, located in the pons, are responsible for:
A) Coordinating voluntary movements
B) Regulating the rhythm and depth of breathing
C) Controlling blood pressure
D) Processing sensory information

B) Regulating the rhythm and depth of breathing

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What is the primary function of the superior colliculi in the midbrain?
A) Hearing
B) Vision and visual reflexes
C) Balance
D) Regulation of heart rate

B) Vision and visual reflexes

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What does the reticular activating system (RAS) do?
A) Controls autonomic functions
B) Regulates sleep-wake cycles and alertness
C) Coordinates voluntary movement
D) Processes emotional responses

B) Regulates sleep-wake cycles and alertness

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Where does the cerebellum primarily receive sensory input from?

a. The visual cortex
b. The spinal cord and inner ear
c. The occipital lobe
d. The frontal lobe

b. The spinal cord and inner ear

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Where does the cerebellum send motor output?

a. Directly to muscles
b. To the brainstem and motor cortex
c. To the spinal cord only
d. To the limbic system

b. To the brainstem and motor cortex.

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What is the primary function of the cerebellum, and what would happen if it were damaged? a. It controls heart rate; damage would lead to heart irregularities b. It coordinates voluntary movement and balance; damage could result in loss of coordination c. It processes visual information; damage would cause vision problems d. It regulates breathing; damage would lead to respiratory issues

b. It coordinates voluntary movement and balance; damage could result in loss of coordination.

What is the main role of the thalamus in sensory reception? a. It stores memories of sensory experiences b. It regulates emotional responses c. It acts as a relay station for most sensory information d. It blocks painful stimuli

c. It acts as a relay station for most sensory information.

Which sensation does NOT pass through the thalamus? a. Touch b. Smell c. Sight d. Hearing

b. Smell

How does the hypothalamus help control the fight-or-flight response? a. By releasing digestive enzymes b. By activating the parasympathetic nervous system c. By stimulating the adrenal glands to release adrenaline d. By reducing heart rate and blood flow to muscles

c. By stimulating the adrenal glands to release adrenaline

How does the hypothalamus help manage and control body temperature? a. By regulating sweating and shivering b. By controlling muscle contraction c. By stimulating the thalamus d. By adjusting blood oxygen levels

a. By regulating sweating and shivering

What role does the hypothalamus play in controlling hunger and thirst? a. It monitors hormone levels b. It regulates the limbic system c. It interprets taste signals d. It responds to nutrient and hydration levels in the blood

d. It responds to nutrient and hydration levels in the blood.

How does the hypothalamus integrate with the limbic system? a. By producing hormones that affect emotions b. By regulating muscle movement c. By monitoring blood pressure d. By controlling lung function

a. By producing hormones that affect emotions.

How does the hypothalamus work with the medulla oblongata? a. The hypothalamus regulates voluntary muscle movements, while the medulla oblongata controls skeletal muscle coordination. b. The hypothalamus monitors sensory input and sends it directly to the cerebral cortex, while the medulla oblongata is responsible for processing emotions. c. The hypothalamus maintains homeostasis by regulating autonomic functions, while the medulla oblongata controls involuntary functions such as heart rate and respiratory rate. d. The hypothalamus is involved in producing hormones related to digestion, whereas the medulla oblongata manages taste and olfactory signals.

c. The hypothalamus maintains homeostasis by regulating autonomic functions, while the medulla oblongata controls involuntary functions such as heart rate and respiratory rate.

What are the differences in location and function between Broca’s area and Wernicke’s area? a. Broca’s area is located in the temporal lobe and is responsible for comprehension, while Wernicke’s area is in the frontal lobe and controls speech production. b. Broca’s area is in the frontal lobe and is responsible for speech production, while Wernicke’s area is in the temporal lobe and is responsible for language comprehension. c. Broca’s area is located in the parietal lobe and controls motor functions, while Wernicke’s area is in the occipital lobe and processes visual information. d. Both Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas are involved in speech production.

b. Broca’s area is in the frontal lobe and is responsible for speech production, while Wernicke’s area is in the temporal lobe and is responsible for language comprehension.

Question: What is the primary function of the frontal lobe of the cerebrum? a. Processing visual information b. Coordination of movement and balance c. Decision-making, planning, and voluntary motor control d. Language comprehension

c. Decision-making, planning, and voluntary motor control.

Question: How do the cortex and association areas of the sensory lobes of the cerebrum differ? a. The cortex is responsible for sensory processing, while association areas integrate and interpret sensory information. b. The cortex is involved in motor function, while association areas handle visual and auditory processing. c. Both the cortex and association areas perform the same function but are located in different regions of the brain. d. The cortex handles emotional responses, while association areas manage memory storage.

a. The cortex is responsible for sensory processing, while association areas integrate and interpret sensory information.

What is one primary function of the limbic system? a. Regulating motor skills b. Controlling heart rate c. Emotions and memory formation d. Visual processing

c. Emotions and memory formation.

What is agnosia, and which part of the cerebrum does it affect?

Can't interpret sensation (Can't recognize sounds, faces, or texture). It affects the association area

What specific function does the hippocampus serve? a. Regulating sleep cycles b. Processing emotions c. Memory formation and spatial navigation d. Controlling motor movement

c. Memory formation and spatial navigation.

What is the role of the amygdala? a. Coordination of balance b. Processing and regulating emotions, especially fear c. Producing hormones d. Sensory information processing

b. Processing and regulating emotions, especially fear.

What is the primary function of the basal nuclei? a. Coordinating voluntary motor control and procedural learning b. Regulating emotional responses c. Integrating sensory information d. Controlling autonomic functions

a. Coordinating voluntary motor control and procedural learning. (selects and inhibits unwanted movements so you can be more focused on the one movement)

Which disorder is associated with dysfunction in the basal nuclei? a. Alzheimer's disease b. Parkinson's disease c. Multiple sclerosis d. Schizophrenia

b. Parkinson's disease.

How are long-term memories formed? a. Through short bursts of attention and focus b. By repeating information without processing c. Through processes such as encoding, consolidation, and retrieval d. By visualizing information without any effort

c. Through processes such as encoding, consolidation, and retrieval.

What is memory consolidation? a. The process of forgetting irrelevant information b. The stabilization of a memory trace after initial acquisition c. The retrieval of information from long-term memory d. The transformation of sensory information into short-term memory

b. The stabilization of a memory trace after initial acquisition.

Which of the following supports effective memory consolidation? a. High levels of stress b. Sleep, regular review, and healthy nutrition c. Constant distraction d. Lack of physical activity

b. Sleep, regular review, and healthy nutrition.

What is the difference between explicit and implicit memories? a. Explicit memories are unconscious, while implicit memories are conscious. b. Explicit memories are for facts and events, while implicit memories involve skills and procedures. c. Both types of memories are consciously retrievable. d. Explicit memories are based on emotions, while implicit memories are based on sensory input.

b. Explicit memories are for facts and events, while implicit memories involve skills and procedures.

What is working memory? a. A type of long-term memory for facts b. A temporary storage system for information currently being processed c. Memory that is lost after a few seconds d. Memory that does not require conscious thought

b. A temporary storage system for information currently being processed.

What happens during REM sleep? a. The body is completely relaxed, and muscle inhibition occurs, making it difficult to be aroused. b. Deep sleep occurs, and dreams are less likely to happen. c. Brain waves are similar to wakefulness, and most dreaming occurs. d. The body is actively repairing tissues and strengthening the immune system.

c. Brain waves are similar to wakefulness, and most dreaming occurs.

In which stage of sleep is it easiest to be aroused? a. REM sleep b. NREM stage 1 c. NREM stage 3 d. NREM stage 2

b. NREM stage 1.

What is sleepwalking, and during which stage does it typically occur? a. A state of deep dreaming occurring in REM sleep b. A behavior that occurs during light sleep in NREM stage 3 c. A condition that occurs only during NREM stage 1 d. A response to nightmares in REM sleep

b. A behavior that occurs during light sleep in NREM stage 3.

Which cranial nerve is responsible for the sense of smell and is classified as sensory? a. Optic nerve (CN II) b. Olfactory nerve (CN I) c. Vagus nerve (CN X) d. Facial nerve (CN VII)

b. Olfactory nerve (CN I)

The optic nerve is primarily responsible for vision. What is its classification? a. Motor b. Sensory c. Mixed d. Autonomic

b. Sensory.

Which cranial nerve controls most eye movements and is classified as motor? a. Trochlear nerve (CN IV) b. Oculomotor nerve (CN III) c. Abducens nerve (CN VI) d. Trigeminal nerve (CN V)

b. Oculomotor nerve (CN III).

The trochlear nerve innervates which muscle and is classified as what type? a. Lateral rectus muscle; motor b. Superior oblique muscle; motor c. Medial rectus muscle; sensory d. Inferior oblique muscle; mixed

b. Superior oblique muscle; motor.

Which cranial nerve controls lateral eye movement and is classified as motor? a. Oculomotor nerve (CN III) b. Trochlear nerve (CN IV) c. Abducens nerve (CN VI) d. Facial nerve (CN VII)

c. Abducens nerve (CN VI).

What is the primary function of the trigeminal nerve, and how is it classified? a. Taste sensation; sensory b. Facial expression; motor c. Sensation from the face; mixed d. Eye movement; motor

c. Sensation from the face; mixed.

The facial nerve is responsible for facial expressions and taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. What is its classification? a. Sensory b. Motor c. Mixed d. Autonomic

c. Mixed.

Which cranial nerve is responsible for hearing and balance and is classified as sensory? a. Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) b. Vagus nerve (CN X) c. Vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII) d. Accessory nerve (CN XI)

c. Vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII).

The glossopharyngeal nerve has functions in taste, swallowing, and salivation. What type is it? a. Motor b. Sensory c. Mixed d. Autonomic

c. Mixed.

Which cranial nerve is involved in parasympathetic control of the heart and digestive tract and is classified as mixed? a. Trigeminal nerve (CN V) b. Vagus nerve (CN X) c. Facial nerve (CN VII) d. Accessory nerve (CN XI)

b. Vagus nerve (CN X).

The accessory nerve is primarily responsible for head movement and shoulder elevation. What is its classification? a. Sensory b. Motor c. Mixed d. Autonomic

b. Motor.

Which cranial nerve is responsible for tongue movement and is classified as motor? a. Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) b. Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) c. Trigeminal nerve (CN V) d. Vagus nerve (CN X)

b. Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII).

A patient presents with an inability to smile and decreased taste sensation from the anterior portion of the tongue. Which cranial nerve is most likely affected? a. Trigeminal nerve (CN V) b. Facial nerve (CN VII) c. Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) d. Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)

b. Facial nerve (CN VII).

what is the mneumonic for the nerves and motor/sensory?

Old opal oak, trolloped trickily about fancy vineyards gathering various accent hydrangeas Sensory: 1,2,8 Motor: 3,4,6,11,12 Mixed: 5,7,9,10 Some say marry money but my brother says big brains matter

Which of the following describes the primary difference between tonic and phasic receptors? a. Tonic receptors respond quickly and then cease firing; phasic receptors respond slowly and continue to fire. b. Tonic receptors adapt slowly to stimuli; phasic receptors adapt quickly and respond only to changes in stimulus intensity. c. Tonic receptors are exclusively for pain; phasic receptors are for touch and temperature. d. Tonic receptors provide information about the intensity of the stimulus; phasic receptors provide information about the duration of the stimulus.

Correct Answer: b. Tonic receptors adapt slowly to stimuli; phasic receptors adapt quickly and respond only to changes in stimulus intensity.

What do proprioceptors do?

they respond to stretch and movement of joints so you know where your body parts are

Which receptor type responds to changes in temperature? a. Nociceptor b. Mechanoreceptor c. Thermoreceptor d. Photoreceptor

c. Thermoreceptor.

What is the primary purpose of nociceptors? a. To detect temperature changes b. To transmit signals related to pain c. To monitor body position d. To perceive light

b. To transmit signals related to pain.

What does sensory acuity refer to? a. The ability to detect a single stimulus b. The sensitivity of the sensory system to differentiate between two stimuli c. The speed of response to a stimulus d. The ability to perceive multiple sensations at once

b. The sensitivity of the sensory system to differentiate between two stimuli.

Which modality is associated with nociceptors? a. Taste b. Pain c. Pressure d. Light

b. Pain

Which neurotransmitter is commonly associated with pain signaling? a. Serotonin b. Acetylcholine c. Substance P d. Dopamine

c. Substance P. (or glutamate)

Which of the following correctly describes fast pain? a. It is transmitted by C fibers and is dull and throbbing. b. It is transmitted by A-delta fibers and is sharp and immediate. c. It is chronic pain that persists over time. d. It is always associated with tissue damage.

b. It is transmitted by A-delta fibers and is sharp and immediate.

What contributes to a high pain tolerance? Which factor is associated with a high pain tolerance? a. Increased activity of inhibitory neurons b. Lower levels of endorphins c. Increased sensitivity of nociceptors d. Higher levels of substance P

a. Increased activity of inhibitory neurons.

What is referred pain? a. Pain that originates from an injury to the skin b. Pain that is felt in a location different from its source c. Pain that is experienced only during physical activity d. Pain that occurs exclusively in the abdominal region

b. Pain that is felt in a location different from its source.

Which of the following is an example of referred pain? a. Pain from a cut on the finger b. Pain in the left arm during a heart attack c. Pain in the knee after a fall d. Pain in the back after lifting a heavy object

b. Pain in the left arm during a heart attack.

Which of the following is an example of a tonic receptor? a. Pacinian corpuscles, which detect pressure changes b. Golgi tendon organs, which monitor muscle tension c. Meissner’s corpuscles, which respond to light touch d. Photoreceptors in the retina, which adapt to light changes

b. Golgi tendon organs, which monitor muscle tension.

Which of the following is an example of a phasic receptor? a. Nociceptors, which detect pain b. Ruffini endings, which respond to sustained pressure c. Thermoreceptors, which sense changes in temperature d. Baroreceptors, which monitor blood pressure

c. Thermoreceptors, which sense changes in temperature.

Which of the following is an example of an effector innervated by the autonomic nervous system (ANS)? a. Skeletal muscle b. Cardiac muscle c. Bone tissue d. Skin

b. Cardiac muscle.

What is the correct sequence of the neural pathway of the ANS, starting from the hypothalamus to the effector? a. Hypothalamus → Ganglion → Effector b. Hypothalamus → Spinal Cord → Target Organ c. Hypothalamus → Preganglionic Neuron → Ganglion → Postganglionic Neuron → Effector d. Hypothalamus → Effector

c. Hypothalamus → Preganglionic Neuron → Ganglion → Postganglionic Neuron → Effector.

Which of the following groups of sympathetic ganglia innervates the abdominal organs? a. Paravertebral ganglia b. Prevertebral ganglia c. Cranial ganglia d. Terminal ganglia

Prevertebral ganglia.

How does the adrenal medulla contribute to sympathetic function? a. It releases acetylcholine. b. It releases norepinephrine and epinephrine into the bloodstream. c. It regulates digestive processes. d. It enhances parasympathetic responses.

b. It releases norepinephrine and epinephrine into the bloodstream.

Which cranial nerve synapses with the ciliary ganglion? a. Vagus nerve (CN X) b. Facial nerve (CN VII) c. Oculomotor nerve (CN III) d. Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)

c. Oculomotor nerve (CN III).

What is the primary effector for the submandibular ganglion? a. Heart b. Salivary glands c. Lungs d. Digestive tract

b. Salivary glands.

Which of the following is a way the sympathetic nervous system causes widespread effects? a. The use of acetylcholine as a neurotransmitter b. The direct innervation of target organs c. The release of hormones from the adrenal medulla d. The action of parasympathetic fibers

c. The release of hormones from the adrenal medulla. (also, one ganglion stimulates lots of ganglions) (varicosities with NE are stimulated and opens all sacks)

What is the primary function of the enteric nervous system (ENS)? a. To control skeletal muscle movements b. To regulate visceral functions like digestion c. To mediate sensory information d. To coordinate voluntary movements

b. To regulate visceral functions like digestion.

What neurotransmitter is always used between the preganglionic neuron and the ganglionic neuron in the sympathetic division? a. Norepinephrine b. Dopamine c. Acetylcholine d. Serotonin

c. Acetylcholine.

What neurotransmitter is always used between the preganglionic neuron and the ganglionic neuron in the parasympathetic division? a. Norepinephrine b. Acetylcholine c. Glutamate d. GABA

b. Acetylcholine.

What neurotransmitter binds to adrenergic receptors? a. Acetylcholine b. Norepinephrine and epinephrine c. Dopamine d. Serotonin

b. Norepinephrine and epinephrine.

What neurotransmitter binds to nicotinic receptors? a. Norepinephrine b. Acetylcholine c. Serotonin d. GABA

b. Acetylcholine. (ALWAYS EXCITABLE and IONOTROPIC)

What is the response of muscarinic receptors when bound by their neurotransmitter? a. They inhibit target organ activity. b. They cause excitatory or inhibitory effects depending on the target organ. c. They exclusively stimulate skeletal muscle contraction. d. They only increase heart rate.

b. They cause excitatory or inhibitory effects depending on the target organ.

What are varicosities? a. Enlargements of the adrenal gland b. Swellings along the length of autonomic fibers that release neurotransmitters c. Junctions between two neurons d. Axon terminals of motor neurons

b. Swellings along the length of autonomic fibers that release neurotransmitters.

What is dual innervation? a. When both divisions of the ANS innervate the same effector organ b. When one division of the ANS innervates multiple organs c. The balance of sympathetic and parasympathetic activity in the body d. The activation of the sympathetic nervous system only

a. When both divisions of the ANS innervate the same effector organ.

Which of the following is primarily associated with the "fight or flight" response? A. Parasympathetic nervous system B. Sympathetic nervous system C. Somatic nervous system D. Enteric nervous system

B. Sympathetic nervous system

The parasympathetic nervous system primarily functions to: A. Increase heart rate and release adrenaline B. Conserve energy and promote digestion C. Increase alertness and mobilize glucose D. Cause sweating and dilate pupils

B. Conserve energy and promote digestion

Which neurotransmitter is used by the parasympathetic nervous system in both pre- and postganglionic synapses? A. Norepinephrine B. Epinephrine C. Dopamine D. Acetylcholine

D. Acetylcholine

Which nervous system division is most active during digestion and helps conserve energy? A. Sympathetic B. Parasympathetic C. Somatic D. Central

B. Parasympathetic

During a stressful event, which system would cause an increase in heart rate, dilation of the bronchioles, and release of glucose from the liver? A. Somatic nervous system B. Parasympathetic nervous system C. Sympathetic nervous system D. Enteric nervous system

C. Sympathetic nervous system

Which nervous system division is also known as the thoracolumbar division? A. Sympathetic B. Parasympathetic C. Enteric D. Central

A. Sympathetic

The sympathetic nervous system causes vasodilation primarily in which type of muscle? A. Smooth muscle in the digestive tract B. Cardiac muscle C. Skeletal muscle D. Smooth muscle in the lungs

C. Skeletal muscle

Which nervous system division would cause the pupils to constrict and stimulate salivation? A. Sympathetic B. Parasympathetic C. Somatic D. Central

B. Parasympathetic

The craniosacral division of the nervous system refers to: A. Parasympathetic nervous system B. Sympathetic nervous system C. Somatic nervous system D. Enteric nervous system

A. Parasympathetic nervous system

Which of the following is a neurotransmitter typically released by postganglionic neurons in the sympathetic division to target organ cells? A. Acetylcholine B. Norepinephrine C. Dopamine D. GABA

B. Norepinephrine

Which nervous system division innervates the adrenal medulla to secrete adrenaline? A. Parasympathetic B. Sympathetic C. Somatic D. Central

B. Sympathetic

Which division promotes peristalsis, aiding digestion? A. Sympathetic B. Enteric C. Parasympathetic D. Somatic

C. Parasympathetic

The release of fatty acids from adipocytes is primarily triggered by which nervous system? A. Parasympathetic B. Sympathetic C. Central D. Enteric

B. Sympathetic

Which nervous system stores glucose as glycogen within muscle and liver cells? A. Sympathetic B. Parasympathetic C. Enteric D. Somatic

B. Parasympathetic

Which division is also known as the craniosacral division? A. Sympathetic B. Parasympathetic C. Enteric D. Central

B. Parasympathetic

The thoracolumbar division is another name for which part of the nervous system? A. Parasympathetic B. Somatic C. Sympathetic D. Enteric

C. Sympathetic

Which neurotransmitter is used for all synapses in both pre- and postganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic division? A. Norepinephrine B. Epinephrine C. Acetylcholine D. Dopamine

C. Acetylcholine

Which system is responsible for increasing heart rate? A. Parasympathetic B. Enteric C. Sympathetic D. Somatic

C. Sympathetic

Increased muscle tone is a response typically caused by which system? A. Sympathetic B. Parasympathetic C. Enteric D. Central

A. Sympathetic

Which division primarily controls blood filtration in the kidneys? A. Parasympathetic B. Sympathetic C. Somatic D. Central

A. Parasympathetic

Vasoconstriction in skin arterioles is mainly a response by the: A. Sympathetic system B. Parasympathetic system C. Somatic system D. Enteric system

A. Sympathetic system

Which nervous system division uses four cranial nerves as motor pathways? A. Parasympathetic B. Sympathetic C. Central D. Somatic

A. Parasympathetic

In the sympathetic response, digestive and urinary system blood vessels constrict and sphincters close. This is to: A. Increase blood flow to these areas B. Reduce blood flow to conserve energy C. Relax the body D. Promote digestion and elimination

B. Reduce blood flow to conserve energy

Which division is linked to insensitivity to pain and disregard for danger during a response? A. Parasympathetic B. Sympathetic C. Somatic D. Enteric

B. Sympathetic

Which system is considered an anabolic system, generally supporting energy storage and conservation? A. Sympathetic B. Parasympathetic C. Somatic D. Central

B. Parasympathetic

Which division activates sweating as a response? A. Parasympathetic B. Enteric C. Sympathetic D. Somatic

C. Sympathetic

Vasodilation in skeletal muscles is a response of which division? A. Sympathetic B. Parasympathetic C. Central D. Enteric

A. Sympathetic

Which division causes a widespread response using norepinephrine and epinephrine in the bloodstream? A. Sympathetic B. Parasympathetic C. Enteric D. Central

A. Sympathetic

Reduced metabolic rate is an effect typically associated with which division? A. Sympathetic B. Parasympathetic C. Enteric D. Somatic

B. Parasympathetic

Relaxation of smooth muscle in the bronchioles is caused by which system? A. Sympathetic B. Parasympathetic C. Somatic D. Enteric

A. Sympathetic

Which system promotes salivation as part of its function? A. Parasympathetic B. Sympathetic C. Enteric D. Central

A. Parasympathetic

Which division causes pupil constriction? A. Sympathetic B. Parasympathetic C. Somatic D. Central

B. Parasympathetic

Spermatogenesis (production of sperm) is a process promoted by which system? A. Sympathetic B. Parasympathetic C. Enteric D. Central

B. Parasympathetic

Which receptor type is activated by norepinephrine to stimulate the heart muscle? A. Muscarinic receptors B. β1 adrenergic receptors C. Nicotinic receptors D. α1 adrenergic receptors

B. β1 adrenergic receptors

Muscarinic receptors, when activated, have what effect on the heart muscle? A. Excitatory B. Inhibitory C. Stimulatory D. Neutral

B. Inhibitory

What does it mean that muscle tissue is excitable? A. It can respond to a stimulus. B. It can contract without stimulus. C. It is always active. D. It does not conduct electrical signals.

A. It can respond to a stimulus.

What does it mean that muscle tissue has conductivity? A. It generates new cells. B. It can stretch and extend. C. It transmits electrical signals across the muscle fiber. D. It only responds to mechanical stimuli.

C. It transmits electrical signals across the muscle fiber.

What does the sarcoplasmic reticulum and terminal cisternae do? A. They store and release calcium. B. They transmit signals between neurons. C. They produce myoglobin. D. They provide oxygen to the cell.

A. They store and release calcium.

What is the function of the sarcolemma and t-tubules in muscle cells? A. They produce ATP for contraction. B. They store calcium for muscle contraction. C. They conduct electrical impulses and distribute them throughout the muscle cell. D. They are sites of protein synthesis.

C. They conduct electrical impulses and distribute them throughout the muscle cell.

What is a triad in muscle cells? A. A muscle contraction cycle. B. A group of three muscle proteins. C. A structure of one T-tubule and two terminal cisternae. D. A type of neurotransmitter.

C. A structure of one T-tubule and two terminal cisternae.

Which of the following proteins is located in the thick filaments and is essential for muscle contraction? A. Actin B. Myosin C. Titin D. Dystrophin

B. Myosin

In a contracted muscle, what happens to the H band? A. It stays the same length. B. It disappears or shortens. C. It increases in length. D. It doubles in length.

B. It disappears or shortens.

Which protein binds oxygen within the muscle cell? A. Actin B. Myosin C. Myoglobin D. Titin

C. Myoglobin

What neurotransmitter is involved in signaling at the neuromuscular junction? A. Dopamine B. Norepinephrine C. Acetylcholine D. Serotonin

C. Acetylcholine

What is the function of troponin and tropomyosin in muscle cells? A. They generate ATP. B. They store oxygen. C. They regulate binding of myosin to actin by responding to calcium. D. They conduct electrical impulses.

C. They regulate binding of myosin to actin by responding to calcium.

What is a motor unit? A. A single muscle fiber. B. A motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates. C. A protein complex in the muscle. D. A type of muscle tissue.

B. A motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates.

During which stage of muscle contraction is ATP primarily used? A. Relaxation B. Myosin head detachment and reactivation C. Calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum D. Troponin binding

B. Myosin head detachment and reactivation

Which type of muscle fiber has more mitochondria and myoglobin, allowing for endurance activities? A. Fast fibers B. Slow fibers C. Intermediate fibers D. Cardiac fibers

B. Slow fibers

Which of the following contributes to muscle relaxation? A. Increased calcium release B. ATP binding to myosin C. Breakdown of acetylcholine by acetylcholinesterase D. Cross-bridge formation between actin and myosin

C. Breakdown of acetylcholine by acetylcholinesterase

What is muscle tone? A. The ability of muscle to respond to a stimulus B. The amount of contraction present in resting muscles C. The ability of muscle to contract quickly D. The diameter of the muscle fiber

B. The amount of contraction present in resting muscles

During peak muscle activity, which energy source is primarily used? A. Fatty acids B. Glucose through anaerobic metabolism C. Glycogen through aerobic metabolism D. Proteins

B. Glucose through anaerobic metabolism

What is the function of creatine phosphate in muscles? A. It stores calcium. B. It stores oxygen. C. It provides a rapid source of ATP. D. It releases acetylcholine.

C. It provides a rapid source of ATP.

What is lactic acid, and how is it managed by muscle cells? A. A protein used for muscle contraction, eliminated through exocytosis. B. A byproduct of anaerobic metabolism, broken down and recycled. C. An enzyme released by motor neurons, stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum. D. A protein that binds oxygen, secreted by the muscle cell

B. A byproduct of anaerobic metabolism, broken down and recycled.

What is "oxygen debt"? A. The amount of ATP needed to maintain contraction. B. The amount of oxygen needed to replenish muscle energy stores post-exercise. C. The amount of lactic acid required for muscle activity. D. The decrease in muscle tone due to fatigue.

B. The amount of oxygen needed to replenish muscle energy stores post-exercise.

What is peristalsis? A. The movement of muscles in the limbs. B. Involuntary contractions moving contents through the digestive tract. C. The storage of oxygen in muscles. D. The release of neurotransmitters at synapses

B. Involuntary contractions moving contents through the digestive tract.

In smooth muscle, calcium primarily comes from: A. The sarcoplasmic reticulum B. The cytosol C. The extracellular fluid D. The mitochondria

C. The extracellular fluid

Which of these describes a single-unit smooth muscle? A. Individual muscle fibers contracting independently B. Muscle fibers connected by gap junctions, contracting as a unit C. Voluntary muscle fibers D. Smooth muscle found only in the heart

B. Muscle fibers connected by gap junctions, contracting as a unit

What is the primary function of the pulmonary circuit pump? A. It pumps oxygenated blood to the lungs. B. It pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs to exchange CO₂ for O₂. C. It pumps blood throughout the entire body. D. It pumps blood from the aorta to the right atrium.

B. It pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs to exchange CO₂ for O₂.

Which valve separates the left atrium from the left ventricle? A. Pulmonary valve B. Mitral (bicuspid) valve C. Tricuspid valve D. Aortic valve

B. Mitral (bicuspid) valve

What role do the papillary muscles and chordae tendineae play in the heart? A. They help regulate heart rate. B. They anchor the heart valves to prevent backflow. C. They stimulate the electrical conduction pathway. D. They facilitate the opening of coronary arteries.

B. They anchor the heart valves to prevent backflow.

Which of the following acts as the natural pacemaker of the heart? A. Atrioventricular (AV) node B. Bundle of His C. Sinoatrial (SA) node D. Purkinje fibers

C. Sinoatrial (SA) node

What does autorhythmicity mean in relation to heart muscle cells? A. Heart cells contract only in response to external signals. B. Heart cells contract independently of the nervous system in a regular rhythm. C. Heart cells remain in a relaxed state unless stimulated. D. Heart cells rely on skeletal muscle impulses to contract.

B. Heart cells contract independently of the nervous system in a regular rhythm.

What is the only electrical connection between the atria and ventricles? A. Purkinje fibers B. Sinoatrial node C. Bundle of His D. Atrioventricular (AV) node

D. Atrioventricular (AV) node

On an ECG, what does the P wave represent? A. Ventricular depolarization B. Atrial depolarization C. Atrial repolarization D. Ventricular repolarization

B. Atrial depolarization

Which of the following is NOT directly assessed by an ECG? A. Heart rate B. Blood pressure C. Heart rhythm D. Electrical activity of the heart

B. Blood pressure

Why is the depolarization plateau essential in cardiac muscle contraction? A. It allows for rapid contraction and relaxation. B. It prevents tetany, ensuring the heart beats rhythmically. C. It provides oxygen to the heart muscle. D. It increases the heart's stroke volume

B. It prevents tetany, ensuring the heart beats rhythmically.

During ventricular systole, which of the following occurs? A. The ventricles relax and fill with blood. B. Blood is pumped into the atria. C. Blood is pumped out to the lungs and the rest of the body. D. The atria contract to force blood into the ventricles.

C. Blood is pumped out to the lungs and the rest of the body.

What does systole refer to? A. The heart's relaxation phase B. The heart's contraction phase C. The atria's filling phase D. The ventricles’ relaxation phase

B. The heart's contraction phase

Which of the following defines stroke volume? A. The amount of blood left in the ventricle after contraction B. The amount of blood pumped by the left ventricle per beat C. The amount of blood the right atrium pumps D. The volume of blood the aorta holds

B. The amount of blood pumped by the left ventricle per beat

If the End-Diastolic Volume (EDV) is 120 mL and the End-Systolic Volume (ESV) is 50 mL, what is the stroke volume? A. 50 mL B. 60 mL C. 70 mL D. 120 mL

C. 70 mL

What does cardiac output measure? A. The volume of blood ejected by the left ventricle per minute B. The volume of blood remaining in the heart after contraction C. The pressure of blood in the arteries D. The oxygen level of blood

A. The volume of blood ejected by the left ventricle per minute

How is ejection fraction calculated? A. (EDV - ESV) / EDV × 100 B. EDV × Heart rate C. Stroke volume / Heart rate D. EDV - ESV

A. (EDV - ESV) / EDV × 100

What does Starling’s Law of the Heart describe? A. The relationship between stroke volume and heart rate B. How increased preload leads to increased stroke volume C. The effect of muscle length on contraction strength D. The role of oxygen levels in blood ejection

B. How increased preload leads to increased stroke volume

Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for regulating heart rate, breathing, and blood pressure? a. Cerebellum b. Medulla oblongata c. Thalamus d. Amygdala

b. Medulla oblongata

What is the primary role of the cerebellum? a. Processing sensory information b. Regulating emotions c. Coordinating voluntary movement and balance d. Controlling the endocrine system

c. Coordinating voluntary movement and balance

Which brain structure acts as a relay station for most sensory information? a. Hippocampus b. Hypothalamus c. Thalamus d. Medulla oblongata

c. Thalamus

Which part of the brain is crucial for forming new memories? a. Cerebellum b. Hippocampus c. Medulla oblongata d. Hypothalamus

b. Hippocampus

The hypothalamus plays an essential role in all of the following functions except: a. Regulating hunger and thirst b. Processing visual information c. Controlling body temperature d. Managing the sleep-wake cycle

b. Processing visual information

Which part of the brain is involved in emotional responses, especially fear and aggression? a. Thalamus b. Amygdala c. Pons d. Cerebellum

b. Amygdala

The frontal lobe of the brain is primarily responsible for: a. Vision and color perception b. Memory formation c. Speech production, reasoning, and planning d. Balance and coordination

c. Speech production, reasoning, and planning

Which lobe of the brain is involved in processing auditory information and memory? a. Parietal lobe b. Occipital lobe c. Temporal lobe d. Frontal lobe

c. Temporal lobe

Where is the primary visual cortex located, and what is its function? a. In the temporal lobe; responsible for processing auditory information b. In the occipital lobe; responsible for processing visual information c. In the frontal lobe; responsible for reasoning and planning d. In the parietal lobe; responsible for sensory perception

b. In the occipital lobe; responsible for processing visual information

What is in the subarachnoid space and where is it located?

Cerebral spinal fluid between pia mater and arachnoid mater

How do you know if it's the ascending tract or descending tract?

Ascending tract starts in the spine and ends in the brain. Descending goes from the brain to the spine (Spinal at the end of the word)

What does the hypothalamus do?

Activates sympathetic nervous system, maintains body temp, controls osmolarity and blood regulation, cardiovascular control in medulla oblongata, helps thirst, emotional regulation

If there are problems with hormones, which part of the brain is usually affected?

Hypothalamus

What is Wernicke's aphasia?

A disorder that impairs comprehension (talks a lot but doesn't make sense)

What is Broca's aphasia?

Fluency is impaired but can comprehend (can't say it right)

What does the primary motor cortex do?

Basic muscle movements

What does the cerebellum do?

Helps maintain posture and stability

What does the sympathetic chain ganglia innervate?

(Turns on SNS) Innervates pupils, heart, respiratory system, blood vessels, sweat glands, arrector pili muscles

What does the sympathetic collateral ganglia innervate?

Innervates organs in the abdominal cavity, specifically digestive, enteric (Celiac, mesenteric)

What does the sympathetic adrenal medulla innervate?

Innervates adrenal medulla

Synapses between preganglionic and ganglionic neurons are always_____.

cholinergic (ACh)

Synapses between postganglionic fibers and effectors are typically_____.

Adrenergic (NE)

What is dystrophin?

Protein that connects the sarcolemma with the myofibrils so it doesn't leave when contracted

What zones are actin found in?

I band and A band

What zones are myosin found in?

A band and H zone

What does myoglobin carry?

It carries oxygen

Does the H band include the myosin heads?

No only the protein

how do we contract for a long time?

The neuron keeps secreting more ACh

What happens when acetylcholinesterase isn't present in contraction?

muscles will go rigid and become fatigued

What step in the muscle contraction cycle uses ATP. Describe myosin heads as an ATPase?

Step 3 contraction or sliding filament theory

What energy sources do muscles use 1. At rest, 2. During moderate exertion, 3. During peak activity

1. Fatty acids, glycogenesis, creatine 2. aerobic metabolism 3. Anaerobic metabolism and glycolysis, creatine phosphate

What do caveole hold and where are they located?

Calcium in extracellular fluid

How does smooth muscle contract?

Caveole release calcium into SR and Ca2+ binds to calmodulin

What structural part of the heart is the electrical connection between the atria and the ventricles?

AV node

What happens during P wave?

Atrial depolarization

When does atrial systole happen?

in the P-Q interval

What happens during QRS wave?

Ventricular depolarization

What happens during T wave?

ventricular repolarization

What happens in the S-T segment?

Plateau phase (ventricular systole)

What is the calcium plateau?

When the heart's ventricles are contracting, Na+ and Ca+ flood the cell which prevents the cell from contracting again for a while.

What is the formula for stroke volume?

EDV-ESV=stroke volume

What is the formula for ejection fraction?

Stroke volume/EDV=ejection fraction

What is the formula for cardiac output

stroke volume x heart rate=cardiac output (don't forget to convert from mL to L

T/F myoglobin are not vascularized and have fast twitch fibers

F Myoglobin are very vascularized and have slow twitch fibers

T/F fast twitch fibers are white and used for regular muscle use

False, they are white, but used for quick powerful movements

What does the superior colliculi and inferior colliculi control?

The superior colliculi is involved in visual processing and helping coordinate eye movements and tracking objects The inferior colliculi processes auditory information and helps locate sounds in the environment

What is the difference between the pneumotaxic center and the apneustic center?

The pneumotoxic center regulates breathing whereas the apneustic center promotes deep and prolonged inhalation

What is the cardiovascular center responsible for?

Regulating heart rate, blood pressure, and blood vessel diameter

What is the respiratory center responsible for?

Regulating the rhythm of breathing

What is normal cardiac output for a human at rest?

4 to 6 L/per minute

Exam 3 ch 9-14 Flashcards

(214 cards)