Chapters 1-4 Flashcards

(155 cards)

1
Q

Define anatomy

A

The study of the structure of body parts and the relationship to one another

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2
Q

Define physiology

A

The study of how the body performs vital functions

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3
Q

Define pathophysiology

A

The study of disorders and functions

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4
Q

What is a totipotent stem cell?

A

Stem cells that can develop into any cell

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5
Q

What is a pluripotent stem cell?

A

A stem cell that develops into only adult cells

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6
Q

What is a multipotent stem cell

A

Stem cells that develop into a specific and limited adult cell

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7
Q

What is interstitial fluid?

A

Fluid found outside of the cells and fills the spaces between cells and tissues. It diffuses nutrients, gases and waste between blood and the cells

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8
Q

What is intracellular fluid?

A

Fluid within multicellorganisms that make up 65% of the body’s total water

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9
Q

What is plasma?

A

A liquid component of blood that serves as a medium for transporting nutrients, hormones, proteins, waste products, and other substances throughout the body

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10
Q

What is dynamic steady state?

A

Your body is constantly changing in order to keep a balanced state

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11
Q

What is intrinsic regulation?

A

The body’s ability to regulate and maintain internal processes through automatic responses

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12
Q

What is extrinsic regulation?

A

The body’s ability to regulate and maintain internal processes through external signals from other parts of the body

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13
Q

What is negative feedback?

A

A way to regulate through which a change in the system triggers a response that counteracts or reduces that change to maintain balance

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14
Q

What is positive feedback

A

A way to regulate through which a change in the system triggers a response that increases or amplifies that change so that eventually, the body can reach an end point and then return to normal

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15
Q

What is the set point for blood pH, body temperature, blood pressure?

A

Blood 7.35 to 7.45
Body temp. 36.5 to 37.5 c. Or 97.7 to 99.5° f
Blood pressure 120/80 mmhg

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16
Q

What are the five parts of homeostasis?

A

Stimulus, receptor, control center, effector, response

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17
Q

What is the stimulus?

A

A change in the internal or external environment that disrupts homeostasis like body temperature rising

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18
Q

What is the effector?

A

The organs or cells that carry out the response
Like the sweat glands

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19
Q

What is the receptor?

A

It senses the change and sends information to the control center
Like thermoreceptors that detect an increase in temp

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20
Q

What is the control center?

A

It processes the information from the receptor and determines the appropriate response like the hypothalamus

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21
Q

What is the response?

A

The action that restores homeostasis like sweating

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22
Q

What is an atomic number

A

The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom

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23
Q

How do you determine the valence electrons of an atom?

A

It’s however many electrons are left in the outermost shell. First, the first shell can only have two electrons. The second shell can have eight electrons. With oxygen with an atomic number of eight, the valence electron would be six because there are six electrons left over in the second shell

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24
Q

What is a covalent bond?

A

A covalent bond is a chemical bond where two atoms share electrons. This is a strong bond because it helps to fill the outer shells for stability

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25
What is a nonpolar compound?
A chemical compound where the electrons are shared equally between the atoms so there is no charge
26
What is a polar compound?
A chemical compound where the electrons are not shared equally between atoms. So there is a positive charge on one end and a negative charge on the other end. They are water soluble (dissolve in water)
27
What is a hydrogen bond?
A chemical bond where a hydrogen atom is bonded to an electronegative atom. It is a weaker bond
28
Define ionization
When an atom or molecule gains or loses an electron and it forms an ion causing a positive or negative charge. This makes it more stable like NaCl which, when ionized, makes na lose one electron so it only has 10 electrons
29
What is water cohesiveness and reactiveness?
Cohesiveness refers to the tendency of water molecules to stick to each other due to hydrogen bonding. Reactiveness refers to Waters ability to participate in chemical reactions
30
What is surface tension?
The force that causes the surface of a liquid to behave like a stretched elastic membrane
31
What is a free radical and why is it dangerous
A free radical is a molecule or atom that has an unpaired electron on its outer shell. This makes it highly reactive because it is unstable
32
What makes an acid and acid and a base? A base? Identify an acid versus a base
An acid is a substance that can donate protons. Acid: pH below 7, hydrogen is elevated A base is a substance that can accept protons. Base: pH above 7
33
Is hydrogen low or high on the pH scale if it is more acidic and a lower pH
Higher
34
What is a buffer?
A solution that helps stabilize pH by either absorbing excess hydrogen ions or hydroxide ions or releasing them
35
Why is carbon Central in organic compounds
Because it can have four single bonds
36
Distinguish between starches and glycogen
Starches are plant storage of sugar. Glycogen is sugar storage in an animal and more branched chain of glucose stored in the liver or skeletal muscles.
37
What are saturated fats?
They are solid at room temperature and have four single covalent bonds for maximum hydrogen bonding
38
What are unsaturated fats?
One or more of the single covalent bonds are replaced by double bonds binding with less hydrogen; liquid at room temp
39
Why are fatty acids considered nonpolar and how does that associate with hydrophobicity?
They're hydrocarbon chains consist of nonpolar covalent bonds between carbon and hydrogen atoms making it hydrophobic
40
What is a glyceride?
A fat that can attach to a simple sugar, glycerol
41
What is a steroid?
Lipid related molecules whose structure includes four linked carbon rings. They alter membrane fluidity and are signaling molecules
42
What is a micelle and why are they important?
A small group of phospholipids caused by hydrophobic interactions. They can carry hydrophobic drugs like chemotherapy
43
What is a liposome and why is it important?
Artificial vesicle composed of lipids that can surround an aqueous droplet. They carry hydrophilic drugs like the shingrix vaccine
44
What is the structure of an amino acid ?
A central carbon with an amino group, r group, and carboxyl group
45
How are peptide bonds formed?
A covalent bond between amino acids created by dehydration synthesis
46
What are the functions of DNA and RNA
DNA forms the genetic material, makeing up our chromosomes within nucleus of cell. It replicates itself before cells divide and provides instruction for building protein in the body. RNA is synthesized by DNA . It carries out protein synthesis
47
Describe phosphorylation and how we get ATP from this process
Phosphorylation is the attachment of a phosphate group to a molecule. It converts ADP to ATP, a high energy molecule
48
What are the four macromolecules that make up the plasma membrane?
Phospholipids, cholesterol, protein in the plasma membrane, carbohydrates
49
What is the role of phospholipids in the plasma membrane?
They control the movement of substances in and out of the cell
50
What is the role of proteins in the plasma membrane?
Transportation, signaling, and structural support
51
What is the role of carbohydrates in the plasma membrane?
Cell recognition, receptor functions, and immune response
52
What is the role of cholesterol in the plasma membrane?
Stabilizes the fluidity of the membrane making it more rigid in high temps and fluid at low temps
53
What is a lipid raft and how is it significant in the plasma membrane?
Organizing centers that signal cells and traffic proteins and lipids across the membrane
54
What is the difference between cilia and microvilli in function and location?
Cilia moves fluids, mucus, and cells across surfaces of tissues like the respiratory tract and fallopian tubes. Microvilli increase surface area to absorb nutrients like the small intestine.
55
What is the difference between dynein and kinesin?
Dynein moves cellular cargo toward the minus end of microtubules or the cell center. Kinesin moves cargo through cell, toward the plus end of microtubules
56
Which organelles contribute to degradation within a cell?
Peroxisomes, lysosomes, proteasomes
57
What do proteasomes break down?
Proteins with proteases using ubiquitin tags.
58
What do peroxisomes break down?
Free radicals like hydrogen peroxide, fatty acids, and toxic compounds
59
What do lysosomes break down?
Old or dead Organelles to recycle, foreign material using endocytosis or exocytosis, damaged or non-useful tissues through autolysis.
60
List in order the organelles that contribute to protein production and transport
Nucleus (dna instructions), ribosomes (translate mRNA into proteins), endoplasmic reticulum (synthesizes and folds proteins, rough, processing and modification, smooth), Golgi apparatus (modifies, sorts, and packages), transport vesicles (carries to needed location).
61
What is the nucleolus and describe its function?
A dense mass where subunits of ribosomes are made; contains RNA and proteins
62
Differentiate between chromatin and chromosome, euchromatin and heterochromatin
Chromatin is the complex of DNA and proteins found in the nucleus that condenses to form chromosomes. Euchromatin is less condensed form of chromatin, while heterochromatin is more condensed
63
What is the function of the rough ER with respect to protein synthesis?
Protein synthesis, protein folding and modification, quality control
64
What makes the smooth ER different than the rough ER regarding function?
The smooth ER functions in lipid synthesis, detoxification and calcium storage. Whereas the rough ER is involved in protein synthesis and initial protein processing
65
List three ways the Golgi transports a package of proteins
Vesicular transport, direct delivery, exocytosis
66
What is the function for Gap junctions, tight junctions, desmosomes
Gap junctions provide a channel between cells they are communicating. Tight junctions create a barrier that prevents the leakage of extracellular fluid between adjacent cells and maintains the polarity of the cell membrane. They are occluding Desmosomes provide strong adhesion between cells by linking intermediate filaments of the cytoskeletons of adjacent cells. They are anchoring.
67
What are CAMs?
Proteins located on the cell surface that mediate cell to cell and cell to matrix interactions. They help cells adhere to each other and to The matrix
68
What are the characteristics of epithelial tissues?
Cellularity, polarity, attachment, avascular, regeneration (capar)
69
What is the difference between necrosis and apoptosis?
In necrosis the cell dies pathologically due to deprivation of oxygen from the blood supply In apoptosis programmed cell death is performed by enzymes called caspases
70
Describe the function/location of simple squamous epithelium
In the capillary walls and blood vessel linings and the wall of the alveoli in the lungs. It allows gas exchange, diffusion and filtering. EXCHANGE
71
Describe the function/location of simple cuboidal and simple columnar epithelium
Located in the kidney tubules and intestinal lining. They absorb, secrete and TRANSPORT
72
Describe the function/location of simple columnar epithelium with microvilli
They increase surface area to absorb
73
Describe the function/ location of ciliated pseudostratified epithelium
It is located in most of the respiratory tract. Its function is to protect, secrete, and movement
74
Describe the function/location of stratified squamous epithelium
It is located in the epidermis of the skin and the lining of the mouth. Its function is to provide protection against abrasion and friction
75
Describe the function/location of stratified squamous epithelium
It is located in the epidermis of the skin and the lining of the mouth. Its function is to provide protection against abrasion and friction
76
Define keratin and it's importance within epithelial tissue
A fibrous structural protein that provides strength and protection to epithelial cells
77
What is the difference between endocrine and exocrine glands and give an example?
Endocrine gland secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream (thyroid gland/adrenal glands ( exocrine glands release their products through ducts to external surfaces. (Sweat glands, salivary glands)
78
What is the difference between dense regular connective tissue and dense irregular connective tissue and function and location?
Regular Connective tissue provides strong undirectional tensile strength due to parallel alignment of collagen fibers. They are found in the tendons and ligaments. Dense irregular provides strength in multiple directions due to its irregular arrangement of collagen fibers. Found in the dermis of the skin, joint capsules and fibrous coverings of some organs.
79
What is the importance of collagen?
It's a structural protein that provides strength and support
80
What are all the functions of areola connective tissue?
Holds tissue fluid, absorbs shock, protects muscle, good blood flow, allows muscles to contract, allows gas exchange, immune function
81
Where is the reticular connective tissue located and why?
In the spleen, bone marrow, and liver. It provides a supportive framework that holds together cells
82
Why is cartilage white and so difficult to heal when damaged
It lacks blood vessels and because it has an absence of blood vessels, it is difficult to heal because it is not receiving direct supply of nutrients to heal it
83
Name the four types of membranes and determine the common feature of each
Mucous membranes, serous membranes, cutaneous membranes, synovial membranes. They all consist of an epithelial layer and underlying connective tissue layer
84
Define metaplasia
A reversible change in which one type of differentiated cell is replaced by another type of cell In smokers, columnar epithelial cells may change to squamous epithelial cells to withstand smoke
85
Define dysplasia
An abnormal often pre-cancerous change in the size, shape, or organization of cells due to chronic irritation or inflammation Cervical dysplasia
86
Define neoplasia
Uncontrolled abnormal growth of cells, resulting in the formation of a tumor, which can be benign or malignant Cancer
87
Define atrophy
The reduction in the size of number of cells in a tissue organ usually due to disuse or loss of stimulation Muscle atrophy; shrinkage of muscles
88
Define hypertrophy
An increase in the size of cells Cardiac hypertrophy; heart muscles enlarge in response to high blood pressure
89
Define hyperplasia
An increase in the number of cells in a tissue or organ leading to its enlargement Benign prostatic hyperplasia or enlargement of the prostate gland
90
Define genome
The complete set of DNA, including all its genes, in an organism
91
Define gene
A segment of DNA that contains instructions for making a specific protein
92
Define proteome
The entire set of proteins that are expressed or produced by a cell based on its genome
93
Define mRNA, rrna, TRNA
mRNA carries the genetic code rRNA forms the core of ribosomes and helps catalyze protein assembly tRNA brings amino acids to the ribosomes for protein synthesis
94
What is a triplet, codon, and anticodon?
A triplet are sequences in DNA that code for amino acids Codons are sequences and mRNA that specify amino acids during translation Anticodons are sequences in TRNA that pair with mRNA codons to ensure the correct amino acids are added to the protein
95
What is Aug?
The start codon
96
Why is it important for a gene to have specific sequence of nucleotides?
It is crucial for producing the correct proteins, regulating gene expression, and maintaining genetic continuity
97
How does a cell only have 20,000 genes but 100,000 proteins?
Because they can do alternative splicing, post-translational modifications, Gene duplication, and there are protein isoforms
98
List the basic steps in transcription and translation and the end product of each
Transcription is a process of using polymerase to copy DNA into mRNA while translation is the process of using ribosomes and codons where mRNA converts genetic instructions from mRNA into a protein
99
What is splicing and alternative splicing?
Splicing removes introns from pre-mrna and joins exons to form mature mRNA while alternative splicing creates different mRNA variants by including or excluding specific exons leading to multiple protein isoforms that are different versions of the same protein
100
What is histone acetylation and does it promote transcription or inhibit?
Adds acetyl group to histones ; promotes transcription
101
What is histone deacetylation and does it inhibit or promote transcription?
Removes acetyl group from histones and inhibits transcription
102
What is DNA methylation and does it inhibit or promote transcription
Adds methyl group to DNA inhibits transcription
103
What is histone methylation and does it inhibit or promote transcription?
Adds methyl group to histones. It can either promote or inhibit transcription
104
What is a chaperone protein?
A specialized protein that assists in proper folding assembly and stabilization of other proteins
105
What do Post translational modifications do to proteins
Alter proteins after their synthesis by adding or removing chemical groups which can affect their activity, stability, localization and interactions
106
What is protein specificity?
The ability of a protein to bind selectively to a specific ligand
107
What is protein affinity
The strength of the interaction between a protein and its ligand
108
What is protein reversibility
The capacity of a protein-ligand interaction to be reversible
109
What is protein activation?
The process by which a protein undergoes a conformational change or modification that enhances its activity or functionality
110
Are protein inhibitors agonist or antagonist?
Antagonist in other words, they inhibit activity
111
What is a reactant called when an enzyme is required to produce products
Substrate
112
Listen understand the five factors that contribute to the probability of a chemical reaction occurring within the body
Concentration of reactants, temperature, enzymes, pH, presence of catalyst
113
Explain why most chemical reactions in the body cannot occur without an enzyme
Because the activation energy is too high without a catalyst
114
Define activation energy
The minimum energy required to initiate a chemical reaction. It discourages a reaction
115
Why is heat not considered a catalyst?
It does not participate in the reaction itself or change its outcome and is not consumed in the reaction
116
Why is an enzyme used in place of?
They can lower the activation energy without raising the body's normal temperature maintaining balance
117
List the four benefits of using an enzyme in a chemical reaction
Lower activation energy, increased reaction rate, specificity, regulation
118
What is enzyme specificity?
The ability of an enzyme to selectively bind to a particular substrate and catalyze a specific reaction
119
What is the difference between lock and key theory and induced fit theory?
Lock and key theory emphasizes a preformed rigid fit between enzyme and substrate, while induced fit theory highlights the enzyme's flexibility and ability to adapt its shape to the substrate
120
What are the four classes of enzymes in their basic functions?
Oxidoreductases Handles redox reactions Transferases moves functional groups between molecules Hydrolases uses water to break bonds Lyases add or remove groups without hydrolysis
121
Why are kinases and phosphatases so important?
They regulate the activity of proteins through phosphorylation and dephosphorylation
122
Define a cofactor and give examples
A cofactor is a non-protein molecule or ion that is required for the proper functioning of an enzyme Zinc and coenzymes
123
Define a coenzyme and give examples
A. Cofactor Dad binds to the enzyme and participates in the chemical reaction Coenzyme a. NAD + fad
124
What is a zymogen and why are they important
an inactive substance which is converted into an enzyme when activated by another enzyme. Like pepsinogen
125
What is allosteric regulation?
The process by which an enzyme's activity is modulated through the binding of a regulatory molecule at a site other than the enzyme's active site
126
What is competitive Inhibition?
When the inhibitor binds to The binding site of a protein where the ligand usually binds like penicillin
127
What is non-competitive inhibition?
When the inhibitor binds to a site on the protein other than The binding site but results in a decreased ability of the ligand to bind to The binding site like cyanide
128
What is uncompetitive inhibition?
When an inhibitor binds only to the protein ligand complex
129
What is an oxidation and reduction reaction?
Oxidation loses electrons reduction gains electrons
130
What is cellular respiration?
The process where cells convert nutrients/ glucose into ATP. It requires oxygen
131
Describe an aerobic process versus an anaerobic process
Anaerobic process breaks down glucose and requires oxygen where an anaerobic process breaks down glucose less efficiently and does not require oxygen
132
Of glycolysis, citric acid cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation which are endergonic and which are exergonic?
Glycolysis, citric acid cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation are exergonic
133
Of glycolysis, citric acid cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation which are aerobic/ anaerobic
Glycolysis is anaerobic while citric acid and oxidative phosphorylation are aerobic
134
What are the major substrates and products of glycolysis?
Substrate; glucose Products: 2 pyruvate, 2 ATP, 2 nadh
135
What are the major substrates and products of citric acid cycle?
Substrate: acetyl coa Products: CO2, nadh, fadh2, 2atp (GTP)
136
What are the major substrates and products of oxidative phosphorylation?
Substrate: nadh, fadh2, O2 Product: H2O, 28- 34 ATP
137
How does glucose remain in the cell against its gradient?
Through phosphorylation with the help of hexokinase
138
Describe the basic steps in glycolysis
1. Glucose 6-phosphate Use 1 ATP 2. Fructo 6-phosphate 3. Fructose-1 6-bisphosphat Use 1 ATP 4. Glyceraldehyde, 3-phosphate and dehydroxyacetone phosphate 5. Pyruvate Produced 2 NADH and 4 ATP
139
What is lactate and why is it produced?
A byproduct of anaerobic glycolysis produced when pyruvate is reduced by lactate dehydrogenase in the absence of sufficient oxygen
140
What two substrates enter the Krebs cycle to synthesize citrate; from where is each derived
Acetyl-coa from pyruvate, oxaloacetate
141
What is nadh and how is it derived /used during cellular respiration?
An important electron carrier involved in cellular respiration. It is derived from NAD Plus. It is used to carry high energy electrons to the electron transport chain
142
What is GTP and how does it contribute to cell energy?
A high-energy nucleotide similar to ATP. It's generated in the Krebs cycle in the mitochondria and provides energy
143
What is the purpose of the complexes in the electron transport chain?
To facilitate the transfer of electrons through a series of redox reactions to generate ATP
144
What is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain?
Oxygen
145
Where are hydrogen ions pumped during the electron transport chain and why?
From the mitochondrial matrix into the intermembrane space of the mitochondria. This creates an electrochemical gradient and drives ATP synthesis
146
What is the purpose of the proton gradient?
To drive the synthesis of ATP through oxidative phosphorylation
147
How is ATP made during oxidative phosphorylation; what enzyme is responsible?
Through a process driven by the proton gradient created by the electron transport chain, the enzyme responsible for this synthesis is ATP synthase
148
How many usable ATP are produced in glycolysis per glucose
2. ATP
149
How many ATP are produced in the citric acid cycle per glucose?
2. ATP
150
How many nadh are produced as pyruvate is converted to acetyl-coa?
2 nadh
151
How many nadh are produced in glycolysis per glucose?
Two nadh
152
How many nadh are produced in the citric acid cycle?
6. Nadh
153
How many fadh2 are produced in the citric acid cycle?
Two fadh2
154
What is the total ATP derived from one glucose molecule during cellular respiration; why is there a theoretical and actual number
One glucose molecule yields approximately 30 to 32 ATP during cellular respiration compared to theoretical maximum of about 38 ATP
155
What other macromolecules can be used to produce energy in the cells?
Lipids, proteins, and ketone bodies