Exam 4 Flashcards by Rachel Rowland

A collection of cells and biochemicals that travel in lymphatic vessels

Lymphatic system

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The lymphatic system is closely associated with the _________ system

Cardiovascular

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What are the three functions of the lymphatic system?

Transports excess interstitial fluid
Absorbs lipids from the digestive system
Defends the body against diseases

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The lymphatic system transports excess ___________ away from the interstitial spaces, and returns it to the bloodstream.

Interstitial fluid

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The lymphatic system absorbs lipids from the digestive system, and transports them to the __________

Bloodstream

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The lymphatic system absorbs lipids from the digestive system, and transports them to the bloodstream; accomplished by lymphatic capillaries called ________

Lacteals

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The term “_________” refers to the fact that many cells of the lymphatic system provide both defense against disease and permanent immunity against future infections.

Immune system

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Name the (9) lymphatic pathways

Lymphatic capillaries in tissues at capillary beds >
Lymphatic vessels >
Lymph nodes >
Larger lymphatic vessels >
Lymphatic trunks >
Lymphatic collecting ducts >
Subclavian veins in thorax >
Superior vena cava >
Right atrium of heart

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The lymphatic capillaries are microscopic, ________ tubes

Closed-ended

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Lymphatic capillaries are found wherever there are _________

Capillaries

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Lymphatic capillaries are _____- walled

Thin

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The walls of lymphatic capillaries are formed from what type of tissue?

Simple squamous epithelium

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Once interstitial fluid enters the lymphatic capillaries, the fluid is called what?

Lymph

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The lymphatic capillaries merge into ______ vessels

Lymphatic

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The walls of lymphatic vessels are similar to veins, but ______

Thinner

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Which are thinner? The walls of lymphatic vessels or lymphatic veins?

Lymphatic vessels

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What are the three layers of lymphatic vessels?

Inner layer (endothelial lining)
Middle layer (smooth muscle and elastic fibers)
Outer layer (connective tissue)

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How many layers are lymphatic vessels composed of?

Three

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What type of tissue is the inner layer of a lymphatic vessel made of?

Endothelial lining

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What type of tissue is the middle layer of a lymphatic vessel made of?

Smooth muscle and elastic fibers

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What type of tissue is the outer layer of a lymphatic vessel made of?

Connective tissue

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Lymphatic vessels contain semilunar ______, which allow one-way flow

valves

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Lymphatic vessels contain semilunar valves, which allow ______ flow

One-way

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Larger lymphatic vessels lead to ________ and then to larger lymphatic trunks

Lymph nodes

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Larger lymphatic vessels lead to lymph nodes and then to larger __________

Lymphatic trunks

What are the arrows pointing to in this photo?

Valve in the lymphatic vessel

What drains lymph from the lymphatic vessels?

Lymphatic trunks

Lymphatic trunks are named for the regions they serve: _____, _______, ________, _____________, ________, ________.

Lumbar, intestinal, intercostal, bronchomediastinal, subclavian, and jugular

Lymphatic trunks train into what?

Lymphatic collecting ducts

How many lymphatic collecting ducts are there for the entire lymphatic system?

Two

Which is smaller, the right lymphatic duct or the thoracic duct?

The right lymphatic duct

Where does the right lymphatic duct begin?

The RIGHT thorax

Where does the right lymphatic duct empty?

Right subclavian vein

The right lymphatic duct drains which portion of the body?

The upper left portion

Which is longer and wider, the right lymphatic duct or the thoracic duct?

The thoracic duct

Which lymphatic duct drains everything NOT drained by the other?

Thoracic duct (drains everything NOT drained by the right lymphatic duct; majority of the body)

Which lymphatic duct begins as a sac called cisterna chyli?

Thoracic duct

The thoracic duct begins as a sac called what?

Cisterna chyli

Which lymphatic duct drains into the left subclavian vein?

The thoracic duct

Where does the thoracic duct drain?

The left subclavian vein

Bronchomediastinal trunk

Intercostal trunk

Internal jugular vein

Intestinal trunk

Jugular trunk

Lumbar trunk

Lymphatic vessels

Right brachiocephalic vein

Right lymphatic duct

Subclavian trunk

Thoracic duct

Axillary lymph nodes

Cisterna chyli

Left internal jugular vein

Left subclavian vein

Lymph nodes

Lymphatic trunk

Lymphatic vessels

Lymphatics of mammary gland

Right internal jugular vein

Right lymphatic duct

Right subclavian vein

Thoracic duct

List the order of the lymphatic pathway, starting with the lymphatic capillary?

Lymphatic capillary Afferent lymphatic vessel Lymph node Efferent lymphatic vessel Lymphatic trunk Collecting duct Subclavian vein

______ is tissue fluid that has entered a lymphatic capillary

Lymph

Lymph is _______ that has entered a lymphatic capillary

Tissue fluid

During tissue fluid formation, capillary blood pressure filters water and small molecules from what?

Plasma

How is tissue fluid formed?

Capillary blood pressure filters water and small molecules from plasma

Tissue fluid has about the same ______ as blood plasma

Composition

Tissue fluid contains what?

Water, dissolved nutrients, gases, hormones

Tissue fluid does NOT contain what?

Large plasma proteins

Tissue fluid does not contain large plasma proteins, which remain in the blood plasma why?

In order to maintain osmotic pressure necessary to draw fluid back into blood capillaries.

Tissue fluid = _______ - __________

Blood plasma - plasma proteins

Filtration from the plasma normally exceeds _______, leading to the net formation of tissue fluid

Reabsorption

Filtration from plasma normally exceeds reabsorption, leading to the net formation of tissue fluid. This increases the tissue fluid hydrostatic pressure within interstitial spaces, forcing fluid into lymphatic capillaries and forming what?

Lymph

What typically leads to the net formation of tissue fluid?

Filtration from plasma exceeding reabsorption

During lymph formation, Filtration from plasma exceeding reabsorption increases the ________ within interstitial spaces

tissue fluid hydrostatic pressure

During the formation of lymph, when the tissue fluid hydrostatic pressure increases within interstitial spaces, it forces fluid into what, forming lymph?

Lymphatic capillaries

The process of lymph formation prevents accumulation of excess tissue fluid, or ______

Edema

When a woman has axillary lymph nodes removed during breast cancer surgery, lymphatic drainage is obstructed from the upper limb, resulting in _______

Edema

Lymph inside lymphatic vessels has _____ hydrostatic pressure, like venous blood

Low

_________ influences the movement of lymph through the lymphatic vessels

Muscle activity

What are the three types of muscle activity that influences the movement of lymph through the lymphatic vessels?

Contraction of skeletal muscles, respiratory process, smooth muscle in the larger lymphatic vessels

Contraction of _______ muscles compresses lymphatic vessels, moving lymph

Skeletal

_________ process creates low pressure in thorax, and high pressure in abdomen during respiration; sends lymph from abdomen to thorax.

Respiratory

________ in the larger lymphatic vessels contracts to aid in the flow of lymph

Smooth muscle

______ in lymphatic vessels prevent backflow

Valves

Lymphatic flow is highest during what?

Physical exercise

Roles of lymphatic capillaries: Absorption of ______ in the small intestine, and delivery to the bloodstream

Dietary fats

Roles of lymphatic capillaries: Return of ________ filtered by blood capillaries to the bloodstream

Small proteins

Roles of lymphatic capillaries: Collection of excess ________

Interstitial fluid

Roles of lymphatic capillaries: Delivery of _________ to the bloodstream

Excess fluid

Roles of lymphatic capillaries: Delivery of ________ to the lymph nodes

Foreign particles

Roles of lymphatic capillaries: Flap-like valves between cells of lymphatic capillaries allow easy entry of?

Tissue fluid

Arteriole

Blood capillary

Lymphatic capillary

Lymphatic vessel

Tissue cells

Venule

Connective tissue

Epithelial cell

Filaments anchored to connective tissue

Flow of lymph

Movement of tissue fluid

Lymphatic tissue contains several cell types, including _______ and ________

Lymphocytes; macrophages

What does MALT stand for?

Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue

Unencapsulated lymphatic tissue of the digestive, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive tracts

MALT (mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue)

Compact masses of lymphatic tissue

Lymphatic nodules

Tonsils and appendix are composed of ________

Lymphatic nodules

Aggregates of lymphatic nodules found in ileum (distal part of small intestine)

Peyer's patches

_____ organs consist of encapsulated lymphatic tissue

Lymphatic

What are the lymphatic organs?

Lymph nodes, thymus, and spleen

Lymph nodes are usually _____-shaped.

Bean

Lymph nodes are usually less than ____ cm long

2.5

Lymph nodes are located along ________

Lymphatic vessels

Lymph nodes filter pathogens from ______

Lymph

Lymph nodes contain _____ to attack viruses, bacteria, and parasitic cells

Lymphocytes

Lymph nodes contain ______ to engulf and destroy foreign substances, damaged cells, and cellular debris

Macrophages

Lymph nodes are found in groups or chains along the paths of the larger _______ throughout the body

Lymphatic vessels

What are the major locations of lymph nodes ?

Cervical region Axillary region Supratrochlear region Inguinal region Pelvic cavity Abdominal cavity thoracic cavity

Lymph nodes are NOT found in which system?

Central nervous system

Blood vessels

Lymph node

Lymphatic vessels

Muscle

Afferent lymphatic vessel

Artery

Capsule

Efferent lymphatic vessel

Germinal center (B cells)

Hilum

Lymph flow

Lymphatic nodule

Lymphatic sinus

Subcapsule (macrophages, B cells)

Trabecula

Vein

What are the two primary functions of lymph nodes?

Filter potentially harmful particles from the lymph; and immune surveillance: monitor body fluids via macrophages and lymphocytes

Lymph nodes are responsible for filtering potentially harmful particles from the _____

Lymph

Lymph node are responsible for immune surveillance: monitoring body fluids via ________ and _________

Macrophages; lymphocytes

Along with ______, the lymph nodes are centers for lymphocyte production

Red bone marrow

Along with red bone marrow, the lymph nodes are centers for ________ production

Lymphocyte

________ attack various pathogens in lymph nodes

Lymphocytes

Lymphocytes attack various pathogens in _________

Lymph nodes

________ engulf and digest foreign substances, damaged cells, and debris.

Macrophages

Soft, bilobed gland of the immune system

Thymus

How many lobes does the thymus gland have?

Two (bilobed)

Where is the thymus located?

Mediastinum

The thymus is divided into _______

Lobules

The lobules of the thymus contain ________ derived from progenitor cells in red bone marrow.

Lymphocytes .

The _________ of the thymus contain lymphocytes derived from progenitor cells in red bone marrow.

Lobules

The lobules of the _______ contain lymphocytes derived from progenitor cells in red bone marrow.

Thymus

The lobules of the thymus contain lymphocytes derived from _______ cells in red bone marrow.

Progenitor

The lobules of the thymus contain lymphocytes derived from progenitor cells in _____________

Red bone marrow

Most cells in the thymus are inactive; called __________

Thymocytes

Inactive cells in the thymus

Thymocytes

In the thymus, some cells mature into functional __________ (T cells), which leave the thymus to provide immunity.

T lymphocytes

Hormones produced in thymus; stimulate T cell maturation

Thymosins

What hormones stimulate T cell maturation in the thymus?

Thymosins

What immune system gland is large in infancy and early childhood, shrinks at puberty, and is small in adults?

Thymus gland

In the elderly, lymphatic tissue of the thymus is replaced by what other tissues?

Adipose and other connective tissues

Largest lymphatic organ

Spleen

Where is the spleen located?

Upper left part of the abdominal cavity

Which lymphatic organ resembles a large lymph node?

Spleen

Which lymphatic organ contains venous sinuses filled with blood?

Spleen

The spleen contains venous sinuses filled with what?

Blood

What are the two tissue types of the spleen?

White pulp (lymphocytes) and red pulp (RBCs, lymphocytes, and macrophages)

White pulp contains:

Lymphocytes

Red pulp contains:

RBCs, lymphocytes, and macrophages

The ______ filters blood like lymph nodes filter lymph

Spleen

What organ breaks down worn-out red blood cells?

Spleen

In the spleen, _______ engulf and destroy foreign particles

Macrophages

_______ defend the body against infection in the spleen

Lymphocytes

Where are lymph nodes located?

In groups or chains along the paths of larger lymphatic vessels

What is the function of lymph nodes?

Filter foreign particles and debris from lymph; house lymphocytes that destroy foreign particles in lymph; house macrophages that engulf and destroy foreign particles and cellular debris carried in lymph

Where is the thymus located, specifically?

In the mediastinum posterior to the upper portion of the body of the sternum

What is the function of the thymus?

Houses lymphocytes; differentiates thymocytes into T lymphocytes

Where is the spleen located?

In the upper left portion of the abdominal cavity, inferior to the diaphragm and posterior and lateral to the stomach

What is the function of the spleen?

Houses macrophages that remove foreign particles, damaged red blood cells, and cellular debris from the blood; contains lymphocytes

Lymphatic system defends body against infection by ?

Pathogens

Examples of pathogens?

Disease-causing agents, such as bacteria, viruses, complex microorganisms like protozoa, and spores of multicellular organisms like fungi

The presence and multiplication of a ______ in the body, if unchecked may cause an infection

Pathogen

The presence and multiplication of a pathogen in the body, if unchecked may cause an _______

Infection

Ability of body to prevent pathogen entry or destroy any pathogens that enter the body

Immunity

What are the two immune mechanisms?

Innate (nonspecific) defenses, and adaptive (specific) defenses

What are the general immune defenses of the body referred to as?

Innate (nonspecific) defenses

Which immune mechanism protects against many types of pathogens?

Innate (nonspecific) defenses

Which immune mechanism is more specific and precise, targeting specific antigens?

Adaptive (specific) defenses

Which immune mechanism is carried out by lymphocytes that recognize certain foreign molecules?

Adaptive (specific) defenses

True or false: Certain species are resistant to diseases that affect other species

True

Certain species of cells lack what for a particular pathogen?

Receptors, temperature, or chemical environment

Skin and mucous membranes form what type of barrier?

Mechanical

Mechanical barriers prevent the entrance of _______

Pathogens

What kind of barrier is considered the first line of defense?

Mechanical barriers

All nonspecific defenses are part of the ________ of defense

Second line

What are some examples of mechanical barriers?

1. A epidermis sloughs off, removes superficial bacteria 2. Ciliated epithelium in respiratory tract traps and sweeps away pathogens 3. Hair traps pathogens 4. Tears, saliva, and urine wash away microorganisms

What produces local redness, swelling, heat, and pain

Inflammation

What is redness due to?

Vasodilation

What results from increased capillary permeability and fluid entry into tissue spaces?

swelling

What causes swelling?

increased capillary permeability and fluid entry into tissue spaces

_____ is derived from blood arriving from deep areas of body

Heat

____ is due to stimulation of pain receptors

Pain

A process that walls off infection site, and inhibits spread of infection

Inflammation

During inflammation, ______ gather in area, and destroy pathogens by _____

WBCs; phagocytosis

During inflammation, _______ (fluids) that contain fibrinogen and other clotting factors may form fibrin network

Exudates

During inflammation, Exudates (fluids) that contain fibrinogen and other clotting factors may form _____ network

Fibrin

During inflammation, Following control of infection, _______ engulf and destroy dead cells

Phagocytes

During inflammation, Following control of infection, phagocytes engulf and destroy ________

Dead cells

During inflammation, Cells that were lost are replaced by ?

Cell division

Blood vessels dilate. Capillary permeability increases and fluid leaks into tissue spaces. What is the result?

Tissues become red, swollen, warm, and painful

White blood cells invade the region. What is the response?

Pus may form as white blood cells, bacterial cells, and cellular debris accumulate.

Tissue fluids containing clotting factors seep into the area. What is the result?

A clot containing threads of fibrin may form

Fibroblasts arrive. What is the result?

A connective tissue sac may form around the injured tissues

Phagocytes are active. What is the result?

Bacteria, dead cells, and other debris are removed

At the end of inflammation, Cells divide. What is the result?

Newly formed cells replace injured ones

_____ in body fluids provide a chemical barrier to pathogens

Enzymes

What are some examples of enzymes as chemical barriers?

Pepsin in gastric juice and lysozyme in tears destroy microorganisms.

______ block viral replication, act against growth of tumors, stimulate phagocytosis

Interferons

________ are peptides produced by neutrophils and other granulocytes

Defensins

What is the purpose of defensins as chemical barriers?

they cripple microbes, by making openings in cell membranes or walls.

_____ are proteins that protect against many bacteria, yeast, and some viruses

Collectins

A group of proteins in plasma and other body fluids that stimulates inflammation, attracts phagocytes, and enhances phagocytosis

Complement

Small population of lymphocytes

Natural killer (NK) cells

_____ cells are very different from B-cells and T-cells that provide adaptive defenses

Natural killer

______ cells defend against viruses and cancer cells by secreting cytolytic substances called perforins that lyse cell membrane

Naturla killer

How do natural killer cells defend against viruses and cancer?

by secreting cytolytic substances called perforins that lyse cell membrane

What types of cells enhance inflammation?

Natural killer (NK) cells

Removes foreign particles from lymph

Phagocytosis

_____ in the blood vessels and the tissues of the spleen, liver, or bone marrow remove particles from blood

Phagocytes

Most active phagocytic cells are _____ and _____

Neutrophils; monocytes

Chemicals from damaged tissue attract these phagocytic cells to the injury; this is called _____

Chemotaxis

Monocytes that leave the blood become ______, which can be free or fixed in tissues

Macrophages

________________ (reticuloendothelium) consists of monocytes and macrophages of the body

Mononuclear phagocytic system

Begins when a viral or bacterial infection stimulates lymphocytes to proliferate, producing cells that secrete a substance called interleukin-1 (IL-1) which raises thermoregulatory set point

Fever

A fever Begins when a viral or bacterial infection stimulates lymphocytes to proliferate, producing cells that secrete a substance called interleukin-1 (IL-1) which _______________

Raises thermoregulatory set point

IL-1 is also called _____________ (fire maker from within)

Endogenous pyrogen

Elevated body temperature indirectly inhibits _________; causes liver and spleen to take up iron, making it unavailable for bacteria and fungi to use in their normal metabolism

Microbial growth

Elevated body temperature indirectly inhibits microbial growth; causes liver and spleen to take up _____, making it unavailable for bacteria and fungi to use in their normal metabolism

Iron

Elevated body temperature indirectly inhibits microbial growth; causes liver and spleen to take up iron, making it unavailable for bacteria and fungi to use in their normal ______

Metabolism

High body temperature also increases ________ activity

Phagocytic

A species is resistant to certain diseases to which other species are susceptible

Species resistance

Unbroken skin and mucous membranes prevent the entrance of some infectious agents. What type of barrier is this?

Mechanical barriers

A tissue response to injury that helps prevent the spread of infectious agents into nearby tissues

Inflammation

Enzymes in various body fluids kill pathogens. What type of barrier is this?

Chemical barrier

pH extremes and high salt concentration also harm pathogens. What type of barrier is this?

Chemical barrier

Interferons induce production of other proteins that block reproduction of viruses, stimulate phagocytosis, and enhance the activity of cells such that they resist infection and the growth of tumors. What type of barrier is this?

Chemical barrier

Defensins damage bacterial cell walls and membranes. What type of barrier is this?

Chemical barrier

Collectins bind to microbes. What type of barrier is this?

Chemical barrier

Complement stimulates inflammation, attracts phagocytes, and enhances phagocytosis. What type of barrier is this?

Chemical barrier

Fluids wash away microorganisms before they can firmly attach to tissues. What type of barrier is this?

Mechanical barrier

Distinct type of lymphocyte that secretes perforins that lyse virus-infected cells and cancer cells

Natural killer cells

Neutrophils, monocytes, and macrophages engulf and destroy foreign particles and cells

Phagocytosis

Elevated body temperature indirectly inhibits microbial growth and increases phagocytic activity

Fever

_______ of defense is resistance to particular pathogens or to their toxins or metabolic by-products

Third line

the ability to distinguish molecules that are part of the body (“self”) from “non-self” is a characteristic of what type of defenses?

Adaptive defenses

Non-self molecules that can evoke an immune response

Antigens

_______ responses are carried out by lymphocytes and macrophages that can recognize specific antigens

Adaptive

Adaptive responses are carried out by _____ and _____ that can recognize specific antigens

Lymphocytes; macrophages

Adaptive responses are carried out by lymphocytes and macrophages that can recognize specific _____

Antigens

What are the two types of adaptive defenses?

Cellular immune response (performed by immune cells) Humoral immune response (performed by antibodies)

Cellular immune response is performed by _______ cells

Immune

Humoral immune response is performed by _______

Antibodies

What is the first line of defense against pathogens?

Mechanical barriers (skin and mucous membranes)

What is the second line of defense, after a pathogen has entered the body?

Chemical barriers Natural killer cells Inflammation Phagocytosis Fever

What is the third line of defense against pathogens?

Cellular immune response Humoral immune response

What enables the cells to recognize non-self antigens?

Receptors on the surface of lymphocytes

Lymphatic system responds to ____________, but not self antigens (under normal circumstances)

Non-self antigens

Antigens may be:

Progeins Polysaccharides Glycoproteins Glycolipids

Most effective antigens are ______ and _______ molecules

Large; complex

Small molecules that are not antigenic by themselves, but when they combine with a large molecule in the body, they can evoke an immune response

Haptens

Lymphocytes are produced throughout life, starting during ____ development.

Fetal

________ are produced throughout life, starting during fetal development.

Lymphocytes

_______ releases unspecialized lymphocyte precursors into blood.

Red bone marrow

Red bone marrow releases ___________ into blood.

Unspecialized lymphocyte precursors

Red bone marrow releases unspecialized lymphocyte precursors into _____

Blood

Half of all unspecialized lymphocyte precursors settle in the _____, specialize, and are then released (become B cells)

Thymus

Half of all unspecialized lymphocyte precursors settle in the thymus, specialize, and are then released (become ______)

B cells

Other half of cells differentiate in red bone marrow, and are then released (become _____)

B cells

Unspecialized lymphocyte precursors differentiate in...

Half in the thymus, half in red bone marrow

What are the two main types of lymphocytes

T lymphocytes B lymphocytes

What does the T in T-cells stand for?

Thymus-derived; lymphocytes

What does the B in B-cells stand for?

B = bursa of fabricius (in chickens); derived from red bone marrow

Which lymphocytes specialize in the thymus?

T lymphocytes

Where do T-lymphocytes specialize?

The thymus

Which cells make up 70 to 80% of circulating lymphocytes after specialization?

T lymphocytes

Which cells make up 20 to 30% of lymphocytes in blood?

B lymphocytes

Which lymphocytes are abundant in lymph nodes, spleen, bone marrow, and intestinal lining?

B lymphocytes

What is the origin of undifferentiated T cells?

Red bone marrow

What is the origin of undifferentiated B cells?

Red bone marrow

Where is the site of differentiation for T cells?

Thymus

Where is the site of differentiation for B cells?

Red bone marrow

What are the primary locations for T cells?

Lymphatic tissues 70 to 80% of the circulating lymphocytes in blood

What are the primary locations for B cells?

Lymphatic tissues 20 to 30% of the circulating lymphocytes in blood

What are the primary functions of T cells?

Provide cellular immune response in which T cells interact directly with the antigens or antigen-bearing agents, to destroy them

What are the primary functions of B cells?

Provide humoral immune response in which B cells interact indirectly, producing antibodies that destroy the antigens or antigen-bearing agents

A lymphocyte has to be _____ before it can respond to presence of an antigen

Activated

__________ requires that antigenic fragments be attached to antigen- presenting cell (APC, accessory cell)

T cell activation

T cell activation requires that antigenic fragments be attached to an ___________

Antigen-presenting cell (APC, accessory cell)

APC phagocytizes antigen, digests it, and displays antigenic fragments on its own cell membrane, bound to protein that is part of the _____________ or human leukocyte antigens (HLA)

Major histocompatibility complex (MHC)

When specific T cell encounters an APC displaying antigenic fragments bound to MHC proteins, it can now recognize antigen as foreign

Foreign

When specific T cell encounters an APC displaying antigenic fragments bound to MHC proteins, it can now recognize antigen as foreign. T cell is now ______

Activated

T cells can secrete polypeptides called _______, which enhance some cellular responses to antigens

Cytokines

What are the types of specialized T cells?

Helper T cells Cytotoxic T cells Memory T cells

Specialized T cells called _________ Activate other cells; stimulates B cells to produce antibodies

Helper T cells

Specialized T cells called ___________ Attack virally infected or cancerous cells

Cytotoxic T cells

Specialized T cells called __________ provide future immune protection

Memory T cells

What are the four types of cytokines?

Colony-stimulating factors Interferons Interleukins Tumor necrosis factor

Cytokines that Stimulate bone marrow to produce lymphocytes

Colony-stimulating factors

Cytokines that Block viral replication, stimulate macrophages to engulf viruses, stimulate B cells to produce antibodies, attack cancer cells

Interferons

Cytokines that Control lymphocyte differentiation and proliferation

Interleukins

cytokine that Stops tumor growth, releases growth factors, causes fever that accompanies bacterial infection, stimulates lymphocyte differentiation

Tumor necrosis factor

B cells can be _______ when an antigen fits the shape of their receptors, and binds to them

Activated

Further B cell activation requires ________ from T cells

Cytokines

Once proper cytokines are released from Helper T cells, B cells respond by _________, enlarging clone of identical cells

Proliferating

Some new B cells become ________, which provide future immunity

Memory B cells

Other new B cells differentiate into _______, which produce and secrete large globular proteins called antibodies or immunoglobulins

Plasma cells

Other new B cells differentiate into plasma cells, which produce and secrete large globular proteins called ______ or ________

Antibodies; immunoglobulins

Since antibodies are carried by the blood (a body fluid) to the infection site, this type of response is called the humoral immune response, or the ______________

Antibody-mediated immune response

Antibodies are _____ proteins

Globular

Antibodies Make up the __________ fraction of plasma proteins

Gama globulin

Antibodies are also called

Immunoglobulins

Antibodies are ___-shaped proteins, composed of 4 amino acid chains: 2 heavy and 2 light chains

Antibodies are y-shaped proteins, composed of 4 amino acid chains: 2 ____ and 2 ____ chains

Heavy; light

Each type of antibody has unique ________ sequence and conformation, making it specific for its antigen

Amino acid

What are the 5 major types of antibodies or immunoglobulins?

IgG IgA IgM IgD IgE

Which type of antibody makes up 80% of antibodies; act on bacteria, viruses, toxins

IgG

Which type of antibody makes up 13% of antibodies; found in exocrine gland secretions

IgA

Which type of antibody makes up 6% of antibodies; act on antigens in foods and bacteria

IgM

Which type of antibody makes up <1% of antibodies; found on B cell surfaces, common in infants

IgD

Which type of antibody makes up <1% of antibodies; found in exocrine gland secretions

IgE

Where does IgG occur?

Plasma and tissue fluid

What are the major functions of IgG?

Defends against bacteria, viruses, and toxins; activates complement

Which immunoglobulin occurs in plasma and tissue fluid?

IgG

Which immunoglobulin Defends against bacteria, viruses, and toxins; activates complement

IgG

Where does IgA occur?

Exocrine gland secretions

What are the major functions of IgA?

Defends against bacteria and viruses

Which immunoglobulin comes from exocrine gland secretions?

IgA

Which immunoglobulin defends against bacteria and viruses?

IgA

Where does IgM occur?

Plasma

What are the major functions of IgM?

Reacts with antigens on some red blood cell membranes following mismatched blood transfusions; activates complement

Which immunoglobulin occurs in plasma?

IgM

Which immunoglobulin Reacts with antigens on some red blood cell membranes following mismatched blood transfusions; activates complement

IgM

Where does IgD occur?

Surface of most B lymphocytes

What are the major functions of IgD

Activates B cell

Where does IgE occur?

Exocrine gland secretions

What are the major functions of IgE?

Promotes inflammation and allergic responses

What are the three different ways antibodies respond to antigens?

Agglutination Precipitation Neutralization

Clumping of antigens, making phagocytosis easier

Agglutination

Make antigens insoluble, making phagocytosis easier

Precipitation

Cover toxic portions of antigens, making them harmless

Neutralization

More effective against antigens than direct attack

Activation of complement

Activation of ______Occurs with certain IgG and IgM antibodies

Complement

What are the four actions of activated complement proteins?

Opsonization Chemotaxis Lysis Neutralization

When activated complement proteins Coat antigen-antibody complexes, it is called

Opsonization

When activated complement proteins attract macrophages and neutrophils, it is called

Chemotaxis

When activated complement proteins rupture cell membranes of pathogens, it is called

Lysis

When activated complement proteins change the structure of viruses so they are harmless, it is called what?

Neutralization

Inflammatory chemicals cause what?

Edema; vasodilation

stimulation of local change and inflammation occur to help prevent the spread of ?

Infection

A direct attack by antibodies produces what type of effect?

Agglutination Precipitation Neutralization

What is it called when antigens clump?

Agglutintaion

What is it called when antigens become insoluble?

Precipitation

What is it called when antigens lose toxic properties?

Neutralization

Activation of complement (antibodies combined with antigens) produces what type of effect?

Opsonization Chemotaxis Agglutination Lysis Neutralization

What is it called when antibodies alter antigen cell membranes so cells are more susceptible to phagocytosis?

Opsonization

What is it called when antibodies attract macrophages and neutrophils into the region?

Chemotaxis

What is it called when antibodies clump antigen-bearing cells?

Agglutination

What is it called when antibodies allow rapid movement of water and ions into the foreign cell, causing osmotic rupture of the foreign cell?

Lysis

What is it called when antibodies alter the molecular structure of viruses, making them harmless?

Neutralization

What are localized changes by antibodies?

Inflammation

A localized change called ________ helps prevent the spread of antigens

Inflammation

__________ makes use of immune system components to fight disease (the humoral immune response by antibodies and the cellular immune response by cytokines).

Immunotherapy

Immunotherapy makes use of ____________________ to fight disease (the humoral immune response by antibodies and the cellular immune response by cytokines).

immune system components

A specific B cell, which produces a single type of antibody (__________), can be fused with a cancerous cell to produce a cell that produces 1 type of antibody, and keeps dividing

Monoclonal

Antibodies Used in research, agriculture, pregnancy tests, detecting new or reoccurring cancers, delivering medications specifically to tumors

Monoclonal antibodies

Why are monoclonal antibodies used in research?

They can be fused with a cancerous cell to produce a cell that produces 1 type of antibody and keeps dividing

______ can now be produced in large quantities, due to recombinant DNA and monoclonal antibody techniques

Cytokines

Cytokines can now be produced in large quantities, due to recombinant DNA and ____________________

Monoclonal antibody techniques

A type of antibody used to treat leukemia, multiple sclerosis, hepatitis, genital warts, melanoma, kidney cancer

Cytokines

______ immune response: Produced by first encounter with antigen

Primary

During primary immune response, __ and __ cells specific for the antigen become activated

B; T

During ___________ immune response, B and T cells specific for the antigen become activated

Primary

During ______ immune response, Plasma cells releases IgM, and then IgG antibodies

Primary

During primary immune response, Plasma cells releases ____, and then ____ antibodies

IgM; IgG

During _____ immune response, First antibodies appear in 5 to 10 days, and remain for several weeks

Primary

During primary immune response, First antibodies appear in _____ days, and remain for several weeks

5 to 10

During primary immune response, _____ cells are also produced

Memory B

Response to subsequent exposure to same antigen corresponds to which immune response?

Secondary

Which immune response Produces high concentration of antibodies in 1 to 2 days

Secondary

Which immune response is Accomplished by Memory B cells and Memory T cells

Secondary

After which immune response to Antibodies remain for months or years

Secondary

After which immune response do memory B cells live for many years

Secondary

What are the two classifications of immunity based on how it is acquired

Naturally or artificially

what type of immunity is Obtained by a natural process, such as getting and recovering from the disease, or given from mother to fetus or infant

Natural

What type of immunity is Obtained by an injection, instead of a natural process

Artificial

What are the two classifications of immunity based on whether it is temporary or permanent

Passive or active immunity

Temporary immunity obtained via antibodies; no antigen exposure; no immune response is evoked in person’s immune system

Passive immunity

Permanent immunity obtained via antigen contact; immune response is evoked, and memory B cells are produced

Active immunity

What is the difference between passive or active immunity?

Passive immunity is acquired from antibodies and not exposure to the antigen. i.e., a vaccine. Active immunity is acquired from exposure to the antigen itself.

What is the mechanism by which naturally acquired active immunity occurs?

Exposure to live pathogens

What is the method by which artificially acquired active immunity occurs?

Exposure to a vaccine containing weakened or dead pathogens or their components

Method by which naturally acquired passive immunity occurs?

Antibodies passed to fetus from pregnant woman with active immunity or to newborn through colostrum or breast milk from a woman with active immunity

Method by which artificially acquired passive immunity occurs?

Injection of antiserum containing specific antibodies or antitoxin

What is the result of naturally acquired active immunity?

Stimulation of an immune response with symptoms of a disease

What is the result of artificially acquired active immunity?

Stimulation of an immune response without symptoms of a disease

What is the result of naturally acquired passive immunity?

Short-term immunity for newborn without stimulating an immune response

What is the result of artificially acquired passive immunity?

Short-term immunity without stimulating an immune response

Exaggerated immune response to non-harmful antigen

Hypersensitivity

With ______, the person is pre-sensitized to a certain antigen

hypersensitivity

Some ______ can affect almost anyone (exaggerated immune response

Hypersensitivities

Some ________ can affect only people with inherited ability to have an exaggerated immune response

hypersensitivities

What are the four types of sensitivities?

- Immediate reaction - Antibody-dependent cytotoxic reaction - Immune-complex reaction - delayed-reaction hypersensitivity

Which type of sensitivity is an allergy?

Type I (immediate-reaction)

During type I (immediate-reaction) sensitivity, a person produces many IgE antibodies against a specific ________

Allergen

What type of hypersensitivity Occurs minutes after contact with allergen; histamine is released

Type 1 (immediate reaction)

What type of hypersensitivity has symptoms that include hives, hay fever, asthma, eczema, gastric disturbances, and anaphylactic shock (a life-threatening severe form)

Type 1 (immediate reaction)

During which hypersensitivity reaction does the Antigen bind to specific cell; causes phagocytosis, and complement lyses antigen

Type II (antibody-dependent cytotoxic reaction)

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is a transfusion reaction?

Type II (antibody-dependent cytotoxic reaction)

During which hypersensitivity reaction do Antigen-antibody complexes form and deposit in certain tissues

Type III (immune-complex) reaction

Which hypersensitivity reaction Damages tissue via phagocytosis and complement-binding

Type III (immune-complex reaction)

In which hypersensitivity reaction can Antibody complexes not be cleared from the body

Type III (immune-complex) reaction

What is an example of a type III hypersensitivity?

Rheumatoid arthritis

Which hypersensitivity reaction may affect anyone?

Type IV (delayed reaction)

Which hypersensitivity results from repeated exposure of skin to allergen

Type IV (delayed-reaction)

with which hypersensitivity reaction does the Allergen activate T cells in skin, which release chemicals that cause eruptions and inflammation

Type IV (delayed-reaction)

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction takes about 48 hours to occur?

Type IV (delayed reaction)

What is the general response of a type I (immediate-reaction) hypersensitivity reaction?

Overproduction of IgE antibodies

What is the general response of a type II (antibody-dependent cytotoxic reaction) hypersensitivity reaction?

Phagocytosis and complement-mediated lysis of antigen

What is the general response of a type III (immune complex reaction) hypersensitivity reaction?

Phagocytosis and lysis cannot clear antigen-antibody complexes

What is the general response of a type IV (delayed-reaction) hypersensitivity reaction?

T cells and macrophages release chemical factors into the skin

What is an example of a type I (immediate) hypersensitivity reaction?

Hay fever

What is an example of type II (antibody-dependent cytotoxic reaction) hypersensitivity reaction?

Mismatched blood transfusion

What is an example of type III (immune complex reaction) hypersensitivity reaction?

Autoimmunity

What is an example of type IV (delayed-reaction) hypersensitivity reaction?

Dermatitis

What are the tissues and organs that can be transplanted?

Bone, cornea, kidney, liver, pancreas, heart, bone marrow, skin, lungs

When the donor’s tissues are recognized as foreign, there is a _________ reaction; recipient’s immune system will try to destroy foreign tissue

tissue rejection

Damage to recipient’s tissues by molecules in immunologically active transplanted tissue, such as bone marrow

Graft-versus-host disease

______ reaction resembles the cellular immune response against antigens

Rejection

Important to match ___ antigens between donor and recipient

MHC

the greater the ________ difference, the stronger and faster the rejection reaction will occur

antigenic

___________ drugs are used to prevent rejection

Immunosuppressive

Well-matched transplants may not require life-long immunosuppressive drugs, if ________________ from donor are given along with transplant

Bone marrow stem cells

What are the different types of grafts?

Autografts Isografts Allografts Xenografts

What is an autograft?

A transplant from self

What is an isograft?

a transplant from an identical twin

Which types of grafts would not cause a rejection reaction?

Autografts and isografts

What is an allograft?

A transplant from a person other than an identical twin

What is a xenograft?

A transplant from a different species

Which types of grafts would tend to cause a rejection reaction?

Allografts and xenografts

Who would the donor be for an isograft?

Identical twin

Who would the donor be for an autograft?

Self

Who would the donor be for an allograft?

Same species

Who would be the donor for a xenograft?

Different species

What is an example of an isograft?

Bone marrow transplant from a healthy twin to a twin who has leukemia

What is an example of an autograft?

Skin graft from one part of the body to replace burned skin

What is an example of an allograft?

Kidney transplant from a relative or closely matched donor

What is an example of a xenograft?

Heart valves from a pig

An attack by the immune system against own tissues

Autoimmunity

The immune system fails to distinguish “self” from “non- self,” and the body produces antibodies called _________

Autoantibodies

In autoimmunity, _________ cells also attack the body’s tissues and organs

Cytotoxic T

Various autoimmune disorders affect different types of _____

Cells

True or false? There are several theories concerning the cause(s) of autoimmune disorders, but no single cause has been established

True

What are the different autoimmune disorders?

Glomerulonephritis Graves' disease Type 1 diabetes mellitus hemolytic anemia Multiple Sclerosis Myasthenia gravis Pernicious anemia Rheumatic fever Rheumatoid arthritis Systemic lupus erythematosus Ulcerative colitis

Symptoms of glomerulonephritis

Lower back pain

Symptoms of graves' disease

Restlessness, weight loss, irritability, increased heart rate and blood pressure

Symptoms of type 1 diabetes mellitus

Thirst, hunger, weakness, emaciation

Symptoms of hemolytic anemia

Fatigue and weakness

Symptoms of multiple sclerosis

Weakness, incoordination, speech disturbances, visual complaints

Symptoms of myasthenia gravis

muscle weakness

Symptoms of pernicious anemia

Fatigue and weakness

Symptoms of rheumatic fever

Weakness, shortness of breath

Symptoms of theumatoid arthritis

Joint pain and deformity

Symptoms of systemic lupus erythematosus

Red rash on face, prolonged fever, weakness, kidney damage, joint pain

Symptoms of ulcerative colitis

Lower abdominal pain

People with glomerulonephritis have what type of autoimmune antibodies?

Kidney cell antigens that resemble streptococcal bacteria antigens

People with graves' disease have what type of autoimmune antibodies?

Thyroid gland antigens near thyroid-stimulating hormone receptor, causing overactivity

People with type 1 diabetes mellitus have antibodies against?

Pancreatic beta cells

People with hemolyic anemia have antibodies against?

Red blood cells

People with multiple sclerosis have antibodies against?

Myelin in peripheral nerves and in the white mattre of the central nervous system

People with Myasthenia gravis have antibodies against?

Receptors for neurotransmitters on skeletal muscle

People with pernicious anemia have antibodies against?

binding site for vitamin B on cells lining stomach

People with Rheumatic fever have antibodies against?

Heart valve cell antigens that resemble streptococcal bacteria antigens

People with Rheumatoid arthritis have antibodies against?

Cells lining joints

People with systemic lupus erythematosus have antibodies against?

Connective tissue

People with ulcerative colitis have antibodies against!

Colon cells

A virus that breaks down the immune system

HIV

What does HIV stand for?

Human Immunodeficiency virus

HIV May stay silent for years, and then progress to _____; then opportunistic infections begin

AIDS

HIV attacks ________ and then _______

Macrophages; helper T cells

When _________ numbers decline, B cells cannot produce antibodies, due to lack of cytokine activation

Helper T cell

When Helper T cell numbers decline, ______ cannot produce antibodies, due to lack of cytokine activation

B cells

In HIV, when Helper T cell numbers decline, B cells cannot produce antibodies, due to lack of ____ activation

cytokine

Later, HIV variants affect _________ cells too

Cytotoxic

An AIDS infected person Person dies from loss of immune response against ______, ______

Pathogens, cancers

How is AIDS transmitted?

Sexual contact, contaminated needles, birth or milk from infected mother, receiving infected blood or tissues from donor

Immune system function declines early in life, as the thymus gland ____ (only 25% as powerful as it once was)

Shrinks

Strength of immune response ________ in elderly people

Decreases

As you age, you develop a Higher risk of infection, cancer, diseases like pneumonia as a person _____

Ages

As you age, T cell numbers decrease very slightly, and B cell numbers do not change, but ______ level declines in both types of lymphocytes

Activity

As you age, ____ numbers decrease very slightly, and B cell numbers do not change, but activity level declines in both types of lymphocytes

T cell

As you age, T cell numbers decrease very slightly, and ____ numbers do not change, but activity level declines in both types of lymphocytes

B cell

As you age, _______ response to antigens becomes slower

Antibody

Which types of antibodies INCREASE as you age?

IgA and IgG

Which types of antibodies DECREASE as you age?

IgM and IgE

As you age, vaccines may require an extra ____

Dose

As you age, More _______ may be produced, increasing chance of developing an autoimmune disease

Autoantibodies

Elderly may not be candidates for certain medical treatments that suppresses _______, such as chemotherapy

Immunity

The respiratory system is Specialized to bring ____ into body, and expel _________

Oxygen; carbon dioxide

The _____ consists of passages that filter, moisten, and warm incoming air and transport it into the body, into the lungs, and to the many microscopic air sacs where gases are exchanged

Respiratory system

The respiratory system produces ____ sounds

vocal

The _____ system helps with a sense of smell

Respiratory

The respiratory system helps regulate _____

Blood pH

Process of exchanging gases between the atmosphere and body cells

Respiration

Refers to the way an organism acquires energy; oxygen required to produce energy

Respiration

What is required to produce energy during respiration?

Oxygen

Respiration consists of what events?

External, internal and cellular respiration.

Ventilation or breathing; allows gas exchange in lungs

External respiration

Gas transport in blood and exchange with body cells

Internal respiration

Process of ATP production in mitochondria, which uses oxygen to harness energy and gives off carbon dioxide

Cellular respiration

What are the organs of the respiratory system? Upper and lower tract.

Nose nasal cavity sinuses pharynx larynx trachea bronchial tree lungs

What are the organs of the UPPER respiratory tract

Nose Nasal cavity Sinuses Pharynx Larynx

What are the organs of the LOWER respiratory tract?

Trachea Bronchial Tree Lungs

_______ provide openings for air to enter and leave nasal cavity

Nostrils (external nares)

Nasal openings are protected from particles by internal ______

Hairs

Hollow space behind the nose

Nasal cavity

The nasal cavity Separated into left and right portions by the _______

Nasal septum

_____________ curl in from lateral walls of the nasal cavity

Nasal conchae (turbinate bones)

Conchae separate nasal cavity into passageways called _________

Meatuses

Upper portion of nasal cavity contains ____________ for sense of smell

Olfactory receptors

The nasal cavity is Lined with what kind of tissue?

Mucous membrane (pseudostratified ciliated epithelium)

In the nasal cavity, Goblet cells produce _____, which traps dust and pathogens

Mucus

What type of cells produce mucus?

Goblet cells

In the nasal cavity, ______ sweep mucus toward pharynx (“mucociliary escalator”), where it is swallowed

Cilia

In the nasal cavity, Cilia sweep mucus toward _____ (“mucociliary escalator”), where it is swallowed

Pharynx

What is the action of cilia sweeping mucus towards the pharynx sometimes called?

Mucociliary escalator

Pathogens and particles from the nasal cavity are destroyed in the ______; prevents infection

Stomach

The nasal cavity Functions in conduction of ___; warms, moistens, and filters incoming

Air

______ support the mucus membrane that lines the nasal cavity, and help increase the mucous membrane's surface area

Nasal conchae

Air-filled spaces in the maxillary, frontal, ethmoid, and sphenoid bones of the skull

Sinuses

Where are the sinuses of the respiratory system located?

Maxillary, frontal, ethmoid, and sphenoid

Sinuses open into the?

Nasal cavity

The mucous membrane lining is continuous with the lining of the?

Nasal cavity

What helps to reduce the weight of the skull?

Sinuses

What helps to resonate the voice?

Sinuses

Sinusitis, due to infection or allergic reaction, may result in blockage of sinus drainage, causing sinus pressure and headache

Sinusitis

Respiratory system damage from ________ is slow, progressive, and sometimes deadly

Smoking

Smoking slows and eventually paralyzes ____, and dirt and pathogens can no longer be removed from the respiratory system

Cilia

______ occurs when cilia no longer function, excess mucus is produced, and mucus must be coughed up

Smoker's cough

Once cilia no longer function due to smoking, pathogens can now access respiratory surfaces, causing more ______

Infections

Coughing leads to?

Chronis bronchitis

Bronchial thickening results in difficulty with?

Expiration

Smoking leads to alveolar walls being destroyed, leading to _______

Emphysema

Once ciliated cells are destroyed from smoking, _______ cells may start dividing, and replacing ciliated cells

Abnormal

_______ develops in 20% of smokers

Lung cancer

____ endangers nonsmokers

ETS (environmental tobacco smoke)

Space posterior to the nasal cavity, oral cavity, and larynx

Pharynx

Passageway for food and air (shared by digestive and respiratory systems)

Pharynx

Which upper respiratory tract organ ____ aids in sound production

Pharynx

What are the three portions of the pharynx?

Nasopharynx Oropharynx Laryngopharynx

Superior to soft palate; air passage; contains openings to auditory tubes

Nasopharynx

Posterior to mouth, inferior to nasopharynx; passageway for food and air

Oropharynx

Inferior to oropharynx; continuous with larynx and esophagus

Laryngopharynx

An enlargement in the airway superior to trachea, and anterior and slightly inferior to laryngopharynx

Larynx

Moves air in and out of trachea

Larynx

What are the houses of vocal cords composed of?

a framework of muscles and cartilages bound by elastic tissue

What are the 3 large single cartilages of the vocal cord houses?

Thyroid (adam's apple) Cricoid Epiglottic

What are the 3 pairs of small artilages of the vocal cord houses?

Arytenoid Corniculate Cuneiform

Largest vocal cord cartilage, thyroid gland covers lower part

Thyroid (Adam's apple)

Cartilage below thyroid cartilage

Cricoid

Central portion of flap-like epiglottis

Epiglottic

Regulates vocal cord tension or spech and close larynx for swallowing

Small cartilages

The larynx contains 2 pairs of horizontal ______ composed of muscle and connective tissue

Vocal folds

False vocal cords:

Upper (vestibular) folds No sound production

Which vocal cords are the upper (vestibular) folds

False vocal cords

Which vocal cords do not produce sounds?

False vocal cords

Which vocal cords help close the airway during swallowing?

False vocal cords

Which vocal cords are the lower folds?

True vocal cords

Which vocal cords produce vocal sounds?

True vocal cords

Which vocal cords create sound as air is forced between them, vibrating them?

True vocal cords

Which vocal cords have an opening between them called the glottis?

True vocal cords

The true vocal cords have an opening between them called the ______

Glottis

Flexible cylindrical tube, 2.5 cm in diameter, 12.5 cm in length

Trachea

Extends downward anterior to the esophagus

Trachea

The trachea is also called the _____

Windpipe

As the trachea enters the thoracic cavity, it splits into left and right _________ at the carina.

Primary bronchi

As the trachea enters the thoracic cavity, it splits into left and right primary bronchi at the ______

Carina

What is the trachea lined with?

Ciliated mucous membrane with goblet cells

Ciliated mucous membrane is also called?

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

The wall of the trachea has 20 C-shaped rings of ___________ to prevent collapse of trachea

Hyaline cartilage

A procedure that cuts an opening in the trachea, to insert a tube for air exchange; done, for example, if an object is lodged in the larynx or trachea

Tracheostomy

The _______ consists of branched airways leading from the trachea to the microscopic air sacs in the lungs

Bronchial tree

The bronchial tree consists of branched airways leading from the _______ to the ____________ in the lungs

Trachea; microscopic air sacs

Starting with the trachea, branching airways resemble an upside-down ____

Tree

Branch from trachea, each leads to a lung

Right and left main (primary) bronchi

Right and left main (primary) bronchi:

Branch from trachea, each leads to a lung

Branch from main bronchi; 2 on left, 3 on right

Lobar (secondary) bronchi

Lobar (secondary) bronchi:

Branch from main bronchi; 2 on left, 3 on right

Each enters a segment; 8 on left, 10 on right

Segmental (tertiary) bronchi

Segmental (tertiary) bronchi:

Each enters a segment; 8 on left, 10 on right

Each enters a lobule

Intralobular bronchioles

Intralobular bronchioles:

Each enters a lobule

40 to 80 in each lobule

Terminal bronchioles

Terminal bronchioles:

40 to 80 in each lobule

First structures to conduct gas exchange; alveoli bud from sides of their walls

Respiratory bronchioles:

First structures to conduct gas exchange; alveoli bud from sides of their walls

Branches of respiratory bronchioles

Alveolar ducts

Outpouchings of alveolar ducts

alveolar sacs

Microscopic air sacs that perform gas exchange; open into sacs

Alveoli

Structure of ________ is similar to trachea, but they contain cartilaginous plates instead of C-shaped rings

Main bronchi

Structure of main bronchi is similar to trachea, but they contain ________ instead of C-shaped rings

Cartilaginous plates

As bronchi continue to branch, they become _____, and amount of cartilage decreases

Narrower

As bronchi continue to branch, they become narrower, and amount of ______ decreases

Cartilage

Cartilage disappears in the bronchioles; allows changes in diameter (________ and __________)

Bronchodilation; bronchoconstriction

_________ becomes more prominent, then begins to diminish from bronchioles to alveolar ducts, where it disappears

Smooth muscle

Smooth muscle becomes more prominent, then begins to diminish from bronchioles to _______, where it disappears

Alveolar ducts

As respiratory tubes become thinner, type of ______ changes

Epithelium

What type of epithelium is found in the larger tubes of the respiratory system?

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

What type of epithelium is found in the respiratory bronchioles?

Simple cuboidal epithelium

What type of epithelum is found in the alveoli?

Simple squamous epithelium

Why are the alveoli made of simple squamous epithelium?

The alveoli are the sites of gas exchange in the lungs. They use this type of tissue because it is thin and allows gas exchange to take place

Branches of bronchial tree are air passages, _________, but not performing gas exchange

Transporting air

What provides surface area for gas exchange?

Alveoli

Only structure that contain ______ can perform gas exchange

Alveoli

During gas exchange, ____ diffuses through alveolar and capillary walls to enter the blood

____ diffuses from the blood to alveoli

CO2

Soft, spongy, cone-shaped organs in the thoracic cavity

Lungs

The ____ are separated from each other by heart and mediastinum

Lungs

The right lung has how many lobes?

Three

The left lung has how many lobes?

Two

Region on medial surface of each lung through which bronchus and large blood vessels enter

Hilum

Double-layered serous membrane surrounding lungs

Pleura

Inner layer of serous membrane; attached to surface of lung

Pleura

Outer layer of serous membrane; lines thoracic cavity

Parietal pleura

Potential space between visceral and parietal pleura

Pleural cavity

A naturally occurring mineral, formerly used in buildings because it resists burning; airborne fibers can lead to scarring of lungs, shortness of breath, lung cancer, mesothelioma (cancer of the pleura)

Asbestos

An element used in some industrial applications; in some people, exposure to dust or vapor evokes immune response that scars lungs and impairs breathing

Berylliosis

Results from long-term exposure to dust of organic origin; acute form causes fever and breathing impairment; chronic form changes lungs over time

Extrinsic Allergic Alveolitis

Microfine airborne pollutants can pass through protective mechanisms, and reach alveoli; may worsen asthma, irritate eyes and lungs, increase risk of heart disease and lung cancer

Air pollution

What are some known lung irritants?

Asbestos, berylliosis, extrinsic allergic alveolitis, air pollution

Movement of air from outside of the body into the bronchial tree and the alveoli

Breathing (or ventilation)

Actions responsible for these air movements are ______ (inhalation), and ______ (exhalation)

Inspiration; expiration

One inspiration + the following expiration = a __________

Respiratory cycle

Force that moves air into the lungs

Atmostpheric pressure

What is the atmospheric pressure at sea level?

760 mm Hg

When respiratory muscles are at rest, atmospheric pressure and alveolar pressure are ____

Equal

Boyle's law:

Pressure and volume of gases are inversely proportional.

If pressure inside the alveoli (intra-alveolar pressure) decreases, _______ pushes air into the airways

Atmospheric pressure

If pressure inside the alveoli (intra-alveolar pressure) decreases, atmospheric pressure pushes air into the airways. This occurs during normal, resting inspiration (called “_____”), as the phrenic nerves stimulate the diaphragm to contract downward

Upnea

If pressure inside the alveoli (intra-alveolar pressure) decreases, atmospheric pressure pushes air into the airways. This occurs during normal, resting inspiration (called “eupnea”), as the ________ stimulate the diaphragm to contract downward

Phrenic nerves

Volume of thoracic cavity increases, which decreases the pressure from 760 mm Hg to 758 mm Hg (______)

Boyle's law

During normal, resting inspiration, the ________ and __________ muscles enlarge the size of the thoracic cavity

Diaphragm; external intercostal

Lung expansion is aided by surface tension in the ______ cavity

Pleural

_________ reduces surface tension in the alveoli, to help lung expansion

Surfactant

Maximal (forced, deep) inspiration

Hyperpnea

______ Requires contraction of several other muscles, to enlarge thoracic cavity even more

Hyperpnea

Which muscles are used during hyperpnea?

Pectoralis minors, sternocleidomastoids, scalenes

During eupnea, _______ of lung tissues and abdominal organs occurs, as tissues return to their original shape at the end of inspiration

Elastic recoil

During eupnea, _______ develops on the moist surfaces of the alveolar linings shrinks alveoli

Surface tension

Elastic recoil and surface tension both increase intra-alveolar pressure about 1 mm Hg above ________________, forcing air out of the lungs

Atmospheric pressure

_____ is a passive breathing process that does NOT involve muscle contraction

Eupnea

Hyperpnea is due to contraction of _________ and abdominal muscles

Internal intercostal

What muscles are involved in hyperpnea?

Rectus abdominis, external oblique, internal oblique, and transversus abdominis

During hyperpnea, increased abdominal pressure orces _______ into a higher position, which pushes more air out of lungs

Diaphragm

Various volumes of air that can be moved into or out of lungs

Respiratory volumes

Different ________________ in breathing move different volumes of air in and out of the lungs

Degrees of effort

Measurement of air volumes

Spirometry

Which respiratory volumes can be measured with a spirometer?

Tidal volume (TV) Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)

Which respiratory volumes cannot be measured with a spirometer?

Residual volume (RV)

__________ can be calculated by combining 2 or more respiratory volumes

Respiratory capacities

_____ capacity (VC) varies with age, gender, body size

Vital

_______ is used to judge progression of respiratory illnesses, such as emphysema, pneumonia, bronchial asthma, lung cancer

Spirometry

What is the volume in mL for tidal volume (TV)?

500 mL

What is the volume in mL for inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)?

3,000 mL

What is the volume in mL for expiratory reserve volume (ERV)?

1,100 mL

What is the volume in mL for residual volume (RV)?

1,200 mL

What is the volume in mL for vital capacity?

4,600 mL

What is the volume in mL for inspiratory capacity (IC)?

3,500 mL

What is the volume in mL for functional residual capacity (FRC)?

2,300 mL

What is the volume in mL for total lung capacity?

5,800 mL

Volume of air moved in or out of the lungs during a respiratory cycle

Tidal volume (TV)

Maximum volume of air that can be inhaled at the end of a resting inspiration

Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)

Maximum volume of air that can be exhaled at the end of a resting expiration

Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)

Volume of air that remains in the lungs even after a maximal expiratory effort

Residual volume (RV)

Maximum volume of air that can be exhaled after taking the deepest breath possible: VC = T V + I RV + E RV

Vital capacity (VC)

Maximum volume of air that can be inhaled following exhalation of resting tidal volume: I C = TV + lRV

Inspiratory capacity (IC)

Volume of air that remains in the lungs following exhalation of resting tidal volume: F RC = ERV + RV

Functional residual capacity (FRC)

Total volume of air that the lungs can hold: T LC = V C + RV

Total lung capacity (TLC)

How do you calculate vital capacity (VC)

VC = Tidal volume + Inspiratory reserve volume + Expiratory reserve volume

How do you calculate inspiratory capacity (IC)?

IC = Tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume

How do you calculate functional residual capacity (FRC)?

FRC = Expiratory reserve volume + residual volume

How do you calculate total lung capacity?

TLC = Vital capacity + Residual volume

Some air entering respiratory tract during breathing does not reach functional alveoli; these are called?

Dead spaces

Air in respiratory tract that remains in conduction structures, and does not reach alveoli

Anatomic dead space

Air in respiratory tract that reaches nonfunctional alveoli, such as alveoli associated with capillaries with poor blood flow; this occurs occasionally

Alveolar dead space

Total of anatomical and alveolar dead space

Physiologic dead space

Volume of new atmospheric air moved into respiratory passages each minute

Minute ventilation

How do you calculate minute ventilation?

MC = tidal volume (TV) x breathing/respiratory rate (RR)

Since some new air in each breath remains in the ___________, another figure can be calculated, to represent actual amount of inhaled air that reaches the alveoli each minute

Physiologic dead space

Since some new air in each breath remains in the physiologic dead space, another figure can be calculated, to represent actual amount of inhaled air that reaches the alveoli each minute. This is called?

Alveolar ventilation rate (AVR)

How do you calculate the alveolar ventilaton rate (AVR)?

AVR = Tidal volume (TV) - physiologic dead space (PDS), then multilied by breathing rate

What is the formula for the alveolar ventilation rate (AVR)?

AVR = RR x (TV - PDS)

the volume of air that reaches the alveoli each minute

Alveolar ventilation rate (AVR)

an important value, since it impacts the concentrations of O2 and CO2 in the alveoli

Alveolar ventilation rate (AVR)

Air movements other than breathing are called _______ movements

Nonrespiratory

What types of nonrespiratory movements clear the air passages?

Coughing, sneezing

What types of nonrespiratoyr movements express emotions?

Laughing and crying

Allergic reaction to foreign antigens in airway, such as inhaled pollen

Bronchial asthma

During bronchial asthma, In smaller airways, mucus and secretions from allergic response accumulate, since not many cells are ______

Ciliated

During bonhial asthma, Allergens and secretions irritate smooth muscle, leading to ______ and ______

bronchoconstriction;wheezing

Progressive, degenerative disease in which alveolar walls are destroyed

Emphysema

With emphysema, Clusters of alveoli merge into larger ones, decreasing surface area for _______

Gas exchange

In patients with emphysema, Alveolar walls lose _____, and _______ diminish

Elasticity; capillaries

People with ________Require a lot of muscular effort to breathe

Emphysema

Emphysema is a type of _____ (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease), along with chronic bronchitis

COPD

Normal breathing is a rhythmic, involuntary act that continues even when a person is _______

Unconscious

Groups of ______ in the brainstem control breathing

Neurons

Neurons in thebrainstem that control breathing Initiate impulses that travel on _____ and _____ nerves, causing inspiration and expiration

Cranial; spinal

What are the two groups of neurons contained within the medullary respiratory center?

Ventral and dorsal respiratory groups

Which respiratory group sets the basic rhytm of breathing?

Ventral respiratory group

Which respiratory group modifies the activity of the ventral group?

Dorsal respiratory group

Which respiratory group helps set the rhythm of breathing by limiting duration of each inspiration?

Pontine respiratory groups

In any mixture of gases, each gas contributes a portion of the total pressure

Dalton's law of partial pressure

The concept that theAmount of pressure each gas contributes to the total pressure

Partial pressure

________ are a method of referring to the relative amounts of gases in a mixture, instead of using concentrations

Partial pressures

Factors that affect the rate and depth of breathing?

- Partial pressure of O2 - Partial pressure of CO2 - H+ concentration in body fluids - Degree of stretch of lung tissue - Emotional state - Level of physical activity - Receptors include mechanoreceptors and central and peripheral chemoreceptors

What are the main controlling factors that affect the rate and depth of breathing?

PCO2 and H+ ion concentration

Where are the central chemoreceptors located?

In the ventral part of the medulla oblongata

Central chemoreceptors mainly monitor ___ in thebrain

Peripheral chemoreceptors mainly sense changes in blood ____

Po2

Where are the peripheral chemoreceptors located?

Carotid and aortic bodies

Decreased Po2 causes an increase in breathing rate and tidal volume, leading to an increase in __________

Alveolar ventilation

Usually does not cause a major response, until Po2 decreases to about 50% of normal value

Periperal chemoreceptors

Reflex which helps regulate depth of breathing

Inflation (Hering-Breuer) reflex

As lung tissues stretch during inspiration, ____ receptors are stimulated

Stretch

During the inflation reflex, Sensory impulses travel over the ____ nerve to respiratory areas

Vagus

Prevents overinflation of the lungs during forced breathing

Inflation (hering-breuer) reflex

Which breathing receptors are stimulated by the stretching of tissues?

Stretch receptors in visceral pleura, bronchioles, and alveoli

Which breathing receptors are stimulated by low plasma PO2?

Chemoreceptors in carotid and aortic bodies

Which breathing receptors are stimulated by high plasma PCO2?

Chemosensitive areas of the respiratory center

Which breathing receptors are stimulated by high cerebrospinal fluid hydrogen ion concentration?

Chemosensitive areas of the respiratory center

What factor stimulates stretch receptors in visceral pleura, bronchioles, and alveoli?

Stretching of tissues

What factor stimulates chemoreceptors in carotid and aortic bodies?

Low plasma PO2

What factors stimulate chemosensitive areas of the respiratory center?

High plasma PCO2

What factors stimulate chemosensitive areas of the respiratory center?

High cerebrospinal fluid hyrogen ion concentration

The stretching of tissues stimulates stretch receptors in the visceral pleura, bronchioles, and alveoli. What is the response?

Inhibits inspiration

Low plasma PO2 stimulates chemoreceptors in carotid and aortic bodies, what is the response?

Increased alveolar ventilation

High plasma PCO2 stimulates chemosensitive areas of the respiratory center, what is the response?

Increased alveolar ventilation

High cerebrospinal fluid hydrogen ion concentration stimulates chemosensitive areas of the respiratory center. What is the response?

Increases alveolar ventilation

the body reacts to the stretching of tissues by inhibiting inspiration. hat is the effect?

Prevents overinflation of lungs during forceful breathing.

The body reacts to low plasma PO2 by increasing aveolar ventilation. What is the effect?

Increased plasma PO2

The body reacts to high plasma PCO2 by increasing alveolar ventilation. What is the effect?

Decreased plasma PCO2

The body reacts to high cerebrospinal fluid hydroen on concentration by increasing alveolar ventilation. What is the effect?

Decreased plasma PCO2

How does the body prevent overinflation of the lungs duringforceful breathing?

The stretching of tissues stimulates stretch receptors in visceral pleura, bronchioles, and alveoli which inhibits inspiration and prevents overinflation of lungs during forceful breathing.

How does the body increase plasma PO2?

Low plasma PO2 stimulates chemoreceptors in carotid and aortic bodies, which increases alveolar ventilation and increases the plasma PO2.

How does the body decrease plasma PCO2?

High plasma PCO2 stimulates chemosensitive areas of the respiratory center, which increases alveolar ventilation and decreases plasma PCO2.

Exercise can greatly increase amount of __ used each minute, and the amount of ___ produced

O2; CO2

During exercise, increased breathing rate would be expected to result from a decrease in blood ___ and an increase in blood ___

O2; CO2

Although breathing rate does increase during exercise, _____ levels of O2 and CO2 do not change significantly

Blood

During exercise, the breathing rate increases due to: ________ signals respiratory centers to increase breathing rate, when it signals muscles to contract

Cerebral cortex

During exercise, the breathing rate increases due to: Proprioceptors stimulated by muscular movements stimulate the respiratory centers to increase breathing rate; called the _______

Joint reflex

Exercise increases demands on both ________ and ________ systems; both systems must keep up with demands

Respiratory; cardiovascular

If shortness of breath occurs during exercise, it is typically due to the cardiovascular system not moving enough _____ between lungs and body cells

Blood

_____ organs of the respiratory system transport air into and out of lungs

Tubular

Sites of the vital process of gas exchange between the air and the blood

Alveoli

Alveoli are sites of the vital process of _________ between the air and the blood

Gas exchange

Microscopic air sacs at ends of alveolar ducts

Alveoli

________ may permit air to pass from one alveolus to another, providing alternate air pathways

Alveolar pores

_____________ help to clean alveoli

Alveolar macrophages

Most of the wall of an alveolus consists of a layer of ____ cells (type I pneumocytes), _____________ epithelium

Type 1; simple squamous

What type of cells are the walls of alveoli mostly made of?

Type I cells (Type I pneumocytes)

What type of epithelium are most of the wall of an alveolus made of?

Simple squamous epithelium

Part of the wall of an alveolus is made up of what type of cells?

Type II cells; pneumocytes

Part of the wall of an alveolus is made up of type II cells (type II pneumocytes) that secrete _________

Pulmonary surfactant

Gas exchange between alveolar air and the blood occurs through the respiratory membrane

Respiratory membrane

What are the three structures of the respiratory membrane?

Alveolar wall blood capillary wall fused basement membranes

What type of tissue is the alveolar wall and blood capillary wall of the respiratory membrane made out of?

Simple squamous epithelium

Cell membranes are permeable to _____

Gases

Molecules diffuse from regions of ____ concentration toward regions of ____ concentration

Higher; lower

To determine direction of diffusion of a substance, it is important to know the ________________

Concentration gradient

In the process of respiration, gases diffuse from areas of _____ partial pressure to areas of _____ partial pressure

Higher; lower

The respiratory membrane is ___ and gas exchange across it is ___

Thin; rapid

_____ diffusion occurs with greater surface area, shorter distance, greater gas solubility, and a steeper partial pressure gradient

Increased

______ diffusion occurs due to decreased surface area, harm to respiratory membrane

Decreased

Driving force for diffusion of O2 and CO2 across the respiratory membrane is the difference in __________ of the gases between the alveolus and the capillary

Partial pressures

At high altitude, air is still 21% O2, but Po2 decreases because the ________________ is lower

Atmospheric pressure

In high altitude, Oxygen diffuses more ____ into blood, and ______ saturation declines

Slowly; hemoglobin

In high altitudes, People experience various degrees of ______ sickness

Altitude

Body attempts to obtain more oxygen, by increasing heart and breathing rate, and increased production of red blood cells and hemoglobin. This is a result of what?

High altitude

What does HAPE stand for?

High-altitude pulmonary edema

What IS HAPE?

Severe form of altitude sickness

Sudden severe headache, nausea, vomiting, rapid heart and breathing rate, cyanosis are all symptoms of?

HAPE

What are four disorders that impair gas exchange?

- Pneumonia - Tuberculosis - Atelactasis (lung collapse) - Acute respiratory distress syndrome

Infection of the lungs, in which alveoli swell due to edema

Pneumonia

in ______, Alveoli become abnormally permeable; fluids and WBCs enter alveoli.This decreases available surface area for gas exchange.

Pneumonia

Bacterial lung infection, in which dense connective tissue “tubercles” form around infection sites, to wall off infection, and stop the spreading

Tuberculosis

In patients with ______, lung tissue is destroyed, and respiratory membrane thickens as tubercles form, reducing surface area for gas exchange

Tuberculosis

In ______, Blood vessels collapse along with the lung. In case of obstruction, alveoli beyond obstruction collapse. Usually, the functional regions carry on enough gas exchange for cells.

Atelectasis (lung collapse)

Form of atelectasis, in which alveoli collapse. Blood vessels and airways narrow, and O2 delivery is severely impaired.

Acute respiratory distress syndrome

What transports O2 and CO2 between the lungs and the body cells?

Blood

As ______ enter the blood, they dissolve in the plasma or chemically combine with other substances

Gases

As ______ enter the blood, they dissolve in the plasma or chemically combine with other substances

Gases

As ______ enter the blood, they dissolve in the plasma or chemically combine with other substances

Gases

As ______ enter the blood, they dissolve in the plasma or chemically combine with other substances

Gases

98% to 99% of O2 diffuses into alveolar capillaries, enters red blood cells, and binds to _____

Hemoglobin

O2 loosely binds to Fe in heme unit of each of 4 polypeptide chains in hemoglobin, forming _________ (1 hemoglobin can bind to 4 O2)

Oxyhemoglobin

Chemical bonds between O2 and hemoglobin are relatively ______

Unstable

The other 1% to 2% of O2 dissolves in the _______

Blood plasma

What are the factors which increase the release of O2 from hemoglobin?

- Decrease in PO2 - Increase in PCO2 - Increase in acidity - Increase in temperature

Released O2 moves from _____ into _____

Blood; tissues

About 75% of the O2 remains bound to hemoglobin in _____ blood, ensuring that respiratory system can adjust CO2 levels and pH as necessary

Venous

______ differences cause oxygen to diffuse from an alveolus into the blood

Partial pressure

Blood is ______-rich, 100% saturated, in pulmonary capillaries

Oxygen

Oxygen is transported through the blood, bound to _______

Hemoglobin

Differences in ___ cause O2 to diffuse from the blood into the fluid around the cells

PO2

After dropping off O2 to tissues, hemoglobin is still about 75% saturated in venous blood; this is called _________ blood

Oxygen-poor

As the ____ increases, so does the amount of O2 released from oxyhemoglobin

PCO2

As ____ decreases (as acidity increases), the amount of O2 released from oxyhemoglobin increases

Blood pH

As blood ______ increases, amount of oxygen released from oxyhemoglobin increases

Temperature

Cellular metabolism generates ____

CO2

Why does CO2 diffuse into capillaries instead of tissues?

Because tissues have a higher Pco2 than the capillaries

What are the three ways CO2 is transported to the lungs?

Dissolves in plasma (7%) Carbaminohemoglobin (23%) As part of a bicarbonate ion (70%)

How is the majority of CO2 transported to the lungs?

As part of bicarbonate ion (70%)

Upon reaching the lungs, bicarbonate ions diffuse back into the ____s, and the reaction runs in reverse.

RBC

CO2 diffuses from blood into alveoli, from which it is exhaled from the _____

Lungs

As we age, ______ epithelial cells become fewer in number

Ciliated

As we age, cilia become less ____

Active

As we age, mucus ______

Thickens

As we age, swallowing, gagging, and coughing reflexes ____

Slow

As we age, Macrophages in the lungs lose _______

Efficiency

As we age, we develop An increased susceptibility to respiratory _______

Infections

As we age, _________ may require more effort, as costal cartilage stiffens, and postural changes change shape of thoracic cavity

Breathing

As we age, Connective tissue replaces muscle in bronchioles, hindering ________

Dilation

As we age, Bronchial walls ____ and do not open as much

Thin

As we age, alveolar walls thin, and alveoli merge, decreasing __________ area

Gas exchange

List the correct order for air flow, with the more proximal airway at the top of the list and the most distal airway at the bottom

1. Main brnochus 2. Lobar bronchus 3. Segmental bronchus 4. Intralobular bronchiole 5. Terminal bronchiole 6. Respiratory bronchiole

What is the role of the dorsal respiratory group in the control of respiration?

Stimulateste expiratory muscles

Which respiratory control center influences the rhythm of breathing by limiting inspiration?

Pontine respiratory group

Where does internal respiration occur?

at the capillary networks of the body tissues

The respiratory system provides ______ for aerobic reactions and eliminates ______ at the appropriate rate to maintain the pH of the internal environment.

oxygen; carbon dioxide

List four characteristics of the dorsal respiratory group (DRG).

stimulates the diaphragm modifies function of ventral respiratory group located in the medulla oblongata integrates sensory information about the respiratory system

List two characteristics of the pontine respiratory group.

located in the pons influences the basic rhythm of breathing by limiting inspiration

The exchange of gases (O2 and CO2) that occurs in the tissues between capillary blood and the tissue fluid is called ______.

internal respiration

We breathe in order to take in ______ and release ______.

oxygen; carbon dioxide

As air passes over the mucous membrane lining the nasal cavity, ________ radiates from the blood and warms the air. Evaporation of _______ from the mucus membrane moistens the air.

Heat/water

What is the role of the dorsal respiratory group in the control of respiration?

stimulates inspiratory muscles