exam 4 previous exams Flashcards
(160 cards)
1
Q
Which are NOT parts of the first line of defense?
a. Skin and tears
b. Normal microbiota and phagocytes
c. Mucous membranes and tears
d. Skin and mucous membranes
e. Normal microbiota and tears
A
b. Normal microbiota and phagocytes
2
Q
Fever is a part of the
a. First line of defense.
b. Second line of defense.
c. Third line of defense.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.
A
b. Second line of defense.
3
Q
Which of the following are the major phagocytic cells in the body?
a. Neutrophils and macrophages
b. Basophils and neutrophils
c. Basophils and macrophages
d. Neutrophils and lymphocytes
e. Macrophages and lymphocytes
A
a. Neutrophils and macrophages
4
Q
In phagocytosis, digestive enzymes are activated (degranulated) in the
a. Phagosome.
b. Lysosome.
c. Phagolysosome.
d. Phagosome and phagolysosome.
e. Phagosome, lysosome and phagolysosome.
A
c. Phagolysosome.
5
Q
The mechanism of killing in a phagocytic cell requires
a. Hydrogen peroxide, myeloperoxidase and chloride ion.
b. Sodium hydroxide and myeloperoxidase.
c. Hydroxyl radicals and chloride ion.
d. Hydrogen peroxide, sodium hydroxide, and hypochlorite.
e. None of the above.
A
a. Hydrogen peroxide, myeloperoxidase and chloride ion.
6
Q
The bacterium that can live inside of the phagocytic cell is
a. E. coli
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
c. Bovine spongiform encephalopathy.
d. Staphylococcus aureus.
e. HIV.
A
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
7
Q
A genetic disorder that results in the inability of a phagocyte to make hydrogen peroxide is
a. Rheumatoid arthritis.
b. Mad cow disease.
c. Superoxide dismutase.
d. Chronic wasting disease.
e. Chronic granulomatous disease.
A
e. Chronic granulomatous disease.
8
Q
In the fever process, what resets the body’s thermostat?
a. Macrophage
b. Endotoxin
c. Histamine
d. Prostaglandins
e. Interferon
A
d. Prostaglandins
9
Q
A moderate fever is good because
a. It removes interferon from the body more rapidly.
b. It speeds up growth of viruses.
c. It speeds up growth of bacteria.
d. It speeds up tissue repair.
e. All of the above.
A
d. It speeds up tissue repair.
10
Q
An epitope is
a. A binding site on an antibody molecule.
b. Part of an antigen.
c. The same thing as an antigen.
d. The non-binding portion of an antibody.
e. None of the above.
A
b. Part of an antigen.
11
Q
The most common antibody in the serum is
a. IgG.
b. IgM.
c. IgA.
d. IgD.
e. IgE.
A
a. IgG.
12
Q
The antibodies that can fix complement are
a. IgA and IgM.
b. IgM and IgG.
c. IgG and IgE.
d. IgA, IgM and IgG.
e. IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD and IgE.
A
b. IgM and IgG.
13
Q
Haptens
a. Are antigens.
b. Can cause an immune response by themselves.
c. Cannot bind to antibodies, by definition.
d. Can bind to antibodies, if the antibodies are already present.
e. None of the above.
A
d. Can bind to antibodies, if the antibodies are already present.
14
Q
T cells
a. Are derived from B cells.
b. Originally differentiated in the adult bone marrow.
c. Are derived from macrophages.
d. Started out as stem cells and ended up in the lymphoid tissue.
e. Are non-specific leukocytes.
A
d. Started out as stem cells and ended up in the lymphoid tissue.
15
Q
Antibodies are produced by
a. Plasmids.
b. Plasma cells.
c. T helper cells.
d. Stem cells.
e. B helper cells.
A
b. Plasma cells.
16
Q
Following stimulation of a B cell by its specific antigenic fragment
a. Antibodies and T helper cells are made.
b. Plasma cells and T helper cells are made.
c. Plasma cells and memory B cells are made.
d. Plasma cells and memory T cells are made.
e. Memory B cells and memory T cells are made.
A
c. Plasma cells and memory B cells are made.
17
Q
An anamnestic response
a. Is the same as the primary response.
b. Is due to memory B cells.
c. Is due to macrophages.
d. Is due to cytotoxic T cells.
e. All of the above.
A
b. Is due to memory B cells.
18
Q
Which is NOT a Protective Mechanism of Binding Antibodies to Antigens?
a. Agglutination
b. Opsonization
c. Interferon activation
d. Complement activation
e. All of the above are Protective Mechanisms of Binding Antibodies to Antigens.
A
c. Interferon activation
19
Q
Receiving antivenom for a spider bite is an example of
a. Natural active immunity.
b. Natural passive immunity.
c. Artificial active immunity.
d. Artificial passive immunity.
e. Innate immunity.
A
d. Artificial passive immunity.
20
Q
Hemolytic disease of the newborn is ultimately due to
a. Natural active immunity.
b. Natural passive immunity.
c. Artificial active immunity.
d. Artificial passive immunity.
e. Innate immunity.
A
b. Natural passive immunity.
21
Q
Which would NOT typically be used in a vaccine?
a. Killed or attenuated bacteria
b. Microbial components
c. Active toxins
d. “Killed” or attenuated viruses
e. All of the above would typically be used in a vaccine.
A
c. Active toxins
22
Q
Which is NOT a characteristic of antisera?
a. Not used much today because of antibiotics.
b. Used mainly to prevent disease following exposure.
c. Lasts for the recipient’s entire life.
d. Source is usually horse or human.
e. A possible side effect is serum sickness.
A
c. Lasts for the recipient’s entire life.
23
Q
An immediate hypersensitivity reaction involves
a. A mast cell, IgG, and antigen.
b. A mast cell, IgG and histamine.
c. IgE and histamine.
d. IgE, an antigen and a cytotoxic T cell.
e. IgE, IgG and histamine.
A
c. IgE and histamine.
24
Q
An Rh- person who has never had a transfusion
a. Has anti-Rh antibodies.
b. Does not have anti-Rh antibodies.
c. Is type O by definition.
d. Is type AB by definition.
e. Can never be a blood donor.
A
b. Does not have anti-Rh antibodies.
25
A person with type A blood
a. Has the A antigen on the surface of their red blood cells.
b. Has the B antigen on the surface of their red blood cells.
c. Has anti-A antibodies on the surface of their red blood cells.
d. Has anti-B antibodies on the surface of their red blood cells.
e. None of the above.
a. Has the A antigen on the surface of their red blood cells.
26
One requirement for Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn to occur is
a. The father must be Rh-.
b. The mother must be Rh-.
c. The fetus must be Rh-.
d. The mother must be Rh+.
e. None of the above.
b. The mother must be Rh-.
27
Which is an autoimmune disease?
a. AIDS
b. Chronic Granulomatous Disease
c. Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn
d. Rheumatoid Arthritis
e. All of the above.
d. Rheumatoid Arthritis
28
Cancer cells are normally killed by
a. T helper cells.
b. Cytotoxic T cells.
c. Plasma cells.
d. B cells.
e. Stem cells.
b. Cytotoxic T cells.
29
Contact dermatitis due to poison ivy is mediated by
a. Memory B cells.
b. Memory T cells.
c. Cytotoxic T cells during the very first contact.
d. Plasma cells during the very first contact.
e. Macrophages.
b. Memory T cells.
30
Transplants that are normally rejected without immunosuppression are
a. Autografts and allografts.
b. Isografts and allografts.
c. Autografts and xenografts.
d. Isografts and xenografts.
e. Allografts and xenografts.
e. Allografts and xenografts.
31
Which statement is correct?
a. Humoral immunity can be transferred by injection of white blood cells.
b. Humoral immunity can be transferred by injection of red blood cells.
c. Cellular immunity can be transferred by injection of white blood cells.
d. Cellular immunity can be transferred by injection of red blood cells.
e. All of the above are correct.
c. Cellular immunity can be transferred by injection of white blood cells.
32
Desensitization with an allergy shot works by
a. Inducing synthesis of blocking IgE.
b. Altering the antigen before it is injected.
c. Blocking complement activation.
d. Inducing synthesis of blocking IgG.
e. Blocking the histamine receptor sites.
d. Inducing synthesis of blocking IgG.
33
Transfusion of a normal A+ blood type person with type A- blood should result in
a. Immediate attack of the A- blood by antibodies.
b. Eventual production of antibodies against the A- blood.
c. Activation of complement which will lyse the A- blood.
d. Inflammation.
e. None of the above.
e. None of the above.
34
The common factor between humoral immunity and cellular immunity that is the primary target of HIV is the
a. Cytotoxic T Lymphocyte.
b. T suppressor cell.
c. Polymorphonuclear neutrophil (PMN).
d. T helper cell.
e. Cytokine.
d. T helper cell.
35
A person who has a genetic predisposition for an allergy to penicillin
a. Will have an anaphylactic response immediately following EVERY exposure to penicillin.
b. Will have an anaphylactic response immediately following JUST the first exposure to penicillin.
c. Will have an anaphylactic response immediately following EVERY subsequent exposure to penicillin, but not following the first exposure.
d. Will never have an anaphylactic response after any exposure to penicillin.
e. None of the above.
c. Will have an anaphylactic response immediately following EVERY subsequent exposure to penicillin, but not following the first exposure.
36
Which statement is correct?
a. HIV can be transmitted by blood and sexual contact.
b. HIV can be transmitted by sexual contact and mosquito bites.
c. HIV can be transmitted by blood and kissing.
d. HIV can be transmitted by blood, sexual contact, kissing and mosquito bites.
e. None of the above.
a. HIV can be transmitted by blood and sexual contact.
37
Serum sickness is associated with
a. Natural active immunity.
b. Natural passive immunity.
c. Artificial active immunity.
d. Artificial passive immunity.
e. Innate immunity.
d. Artificial passive immunity.
38
The mechanism that humans use to raise body temperature is
a. Ingestion of interleukin-1.
b. Ingestion of prostaglandin.
c. Ingestion of interleukin-1 and prostaglandin.
d. Chills.
e. Sweating.
d. Chills.
39
The desirable end result of agglutination and opsonization is
a. Complement fixation.
b. Haptenization.
c. Cell-mediated cytotoxicity.
d. Granulation.
e. Phagocytosis.
e. Phagocytosis.
40
When you are first given a vaccination (first exposure to that antigen)
a. It usually causes a mild version of the disease.
b. It induces a primary humoral immune response.
c. It induces a secondary humoral immune response.
d. It causes an immediate production of antibodies.
e. None of the above.
b. It induces a primary humoral immune response.
41
Which of the following statements is true?
a. Interferon is an antiviral protein.
b. Interferon causes phagocytosis.
c. Interferon causes bacteriocidal activity by macrophages.
d. Interferon acts against specific viruses and bacteria.
e. All of the above are true.
a. Interferon is an antiviral protein.
42
Which of the following is not a function of inflammation?
a. To destroy an injurious agent.
b. To remove an injurious agent.
c. To wall off an injurious agent.
d. To repair tissue damage.
e. To produce antibodies.
e. To produce antibodies.
43
One result of fever is
a. Decreased availability of iron.
b. Increased availability of iron.
c. Slower tissue repair.
d. Increased nickel concentration.
e. None of the above.
a. Decreased availability of iron.
44
The first line of defense does not include
a. Skin.
b. Tears.
c. Interferon.
d. Mucous membranes.
e. It includes all of the above.
c. Interferon.
45
Cells that are involved in the humoral allergic response are
a. Basophils and erythrocytes.
b. Neutrophils and basophils.
c. Neutrophils and erythrocytes.
d. Basophils and mast cells.
e. Mast cells and neutrophils.
d. Basophils and mast cells.
46
The major phagocytic cells in the body are
a. Macrophages and neutrophils.
b. Neutrophils and erythrocytes.
c. Erythrocytes and basophils.
d. Macrophages and basophils.
e. Macrophages, neutrophils, erythrocytes and basophils.
a. Macrophages and neutrophils.
47
What type of immunity results from vaccination?
a. Innate immunity.
b. Natural active immunity.
c. Natural passive immunity.
d. Artificial active immunity.
e. Artificial passive immunity.
d. Artificial active immunity.
48
The structure in the phagocytic cell that contains inactive digestive enzymes is the
a. Phagosome.
b. Lysosome.
c. Lysozyme.
d. Phagolysosome.
e. Residual body.
b. Lysosome.
49
A human’s resistance to canine distemper is an example of
a. Innate immunity.
b. Natural active immunity.
c. Natural passive immunity.
d. Artificial active immunity.
e. Artificial passive immunity.
a. Innate immunity.
50
The killing mechanism of the phagocytic cell includes reaction of
a. Hydrogen peroxide, lysozyme, and chloride ion.
b. Superoxide, chloride ion and myeloperoxidase.
c. Lysozyme, myeloperoxidase, and chloride ion.
d. Chloride ion, myeloperoxidase and hydrogen peroxide.
e. Hydrogen peroxide, chloride ion, lysozyme and myeloperoxidase.
b. Superoxide, chloride ion and myeloperoxidase.
51
Chronic granulomatous disease
a. Is a mild, non-fatal disease.
b. Is due to a defect in phagocytic killing.
c. Is where granulocyte number is reduced in the body.
d. Can be cured with artificial passive immunity.
e. None of the above
b. Is due to a defect in phagocytic killing.
52
In the fever process due to a Gram negative bacterium
a. Interleukin I causes endotoxin to travel to the hypothalamus.
b. The phagocytic cell releases prostaglandins.
c. The hypothalamus releases prostaglandins which go to the phagocytic cell.
d. Endotoxin release by the bacterium causes interleukin I production.
e. None of the above.
d. Endotoxin release by the bacterium causes interleukin I production.
53
In the humoral immune response
a. Penicillin can act as an antigen.
b. Penicillin can act as a hapten.
c. Catechol can act as an antigen.
d. Catechol can act as a hapten.
e. Penicillin and catechol can both act as antigens.
b. Penicillin can act as a hapten.
54
Antibodies
a. And antibiotics are the same things.
b. Can be antigens.
c. Are sometimes made of proteins and sometimes made of polysaccharide.
d. Are part of the cellular immune system.
e. None of the above.
b. Can be antigens.
55
The immunoglobulin that fixes complement, but does NOT pass the placenta is
a. IgG.
b. IgM.
c. IgA.
d. IgD.
e. IgE.
b. IgM.
56
Hydrogen cyanide (HCN)
a. Always acts as a hapten.
b. Is not an antigen because it is not foreign since H, C and N are normal constituents of the body.
c. Can be an antigen in high concentration.
d. Can cause immunity in small doses.
e. Is simply too small to be an antigen.
e. Is simply too small to be an antigen.
57
The microorganism that can survive inside of a phagocytic cell is
a. Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
b. Clostridium botulinum.
c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
d. Chlamydia trachomatis.
e. All of the above.
c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
58
Which of the following is not a characteristic of B cells?
a. They originate in the bone marrow of humans.
b. They have antibodies on their surfaces.
c. They are responsible for a memory response.
d. They are precursors to plasma cells.
e. They recognize antigens presented by T cells.
e. They recognize antigens presented by T cells.
59
What type of immunity is not due to antibodies?
a. Innate immunity.
b. Natural active immunity.
c. Natural passive immunity.
d. Artificial active immunity.
e. Artificial passive immunity.
a. Innate immunity.
60
Which of the following is not normally used in a vaccine?
a. Toxoid
b. Parts of bacterial cells
c. Live, attenuated bacteria
d. Inactivated viruses
e. Antibodies
e. Antibodies
61
Natural passive immunity is facilitated by
a. IgG and IgM.
b. IgM and IgA.
c. IgA and IgG.
d. IgD and IgM.
e. IgE and IgD.
c. IgA and IgG.
62
The mechanism that humans use to raise body temperature is
a. Ingestion of interleukin-1.
b. Ingestion of prostaglandin.
c. Ingestion of interleukin-1 and prostaglandin.
d. Chills.
e. Sweating.
d. Chills.
63
Desensitization with an allergy shot works by
a. Inducing synthesis of blocking IgE.
b. Altering the antigen before it is injected.
c. Blocking complement activation.
d. Inducing synthesis of blocking IgG.
e. Blocking the histamine receptor sites.
d. Inducing synthesis of blocking IgG.
64
Which statement is correct?
a. Haptens are antigens.
b. Haptens can induce antibody production in a person with the “proper” genetics.
c. Haptens can never induce antibody production.
d. Haptens are too large to be antigens.
e. Haptens induce cell-mediated immunity only.
c. Haptens can never induce antibody production.
65
Requirements for inducing antibody production include
a. Antigenic fragments, B cells, T helper cells and cytokines.
b. Basophils, T helper cells and antigenic fragments.
c. Mast cells, haptens, B cells and cytokines.
d. Mast cells, basophils and cytokines.
e. None of the above.
a. Antigenic fragments, B cells, T helper cells and cytokines.
66
The anamnestic response is facilitated by
a. T helper cells.
b. Memory B cells.
c. Memory T cells.
d. Cytokines.
e. Macrophages.
b. Memory B cells.
67
Transfusion of a normal A+ blood type person with type A- blood should result in
a. Immediate attack of the A- blood by antibodies.
b. Eventual production of antibodies against the A- blood.
c. Activation of complement which will lyse the A- blood.
d. Inflammation.
e. None of the above.
e. None of the above.
68
Antisera
a. Were not used much in the 20th century, but are commonly used today.
b. Are used mainly for bacterial infections.
c. Are derived mainly from chicken eggs and pigs.
d. Are most frequently used for prevention of disease following exposure.
e. All of the above apply to antisera.
d. Are most frequently used for prevention of disease following exposure.
69
Which of the following is true in humans?
a. Stem cells are differentiated into B cells in the adult red bone marrow and T cells in the thymus.
b. Stem cells are differentiated into B cells in the fetal liver and T cells in the thymus.
c. Stem cells are differentiated into B cells in the adult red bone marrow and T cells in the fetal liver.
d. Stem cells are differentiated into B cells in the adult red bone marrow and T cells in the hypothalamus.
e. None of the above.
a. Stem cells are differentiated into B cells in the adult red bone marrow and T cells in the thymus.
70
Which statement is correct?
a. Memory T cells and memory B cells are produced in humoral immunity.
b. Memory T cells and memory B cells are produced in cellular immunity.
c. Only memory T cells are produced in humoral immunity.
d. Only memory T cells are produced in cellular immunity.
e. Only memory B cells are produced in cellular immunity.
d. Only memory T cells are produced in cellular immunity.
71
Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn
a. Afflicts all fetuses from a Rh- mother.
b. Can be a problem if the father is Rh+.
c. Is never fatal.
d. Has to do with A and B blood type antigens in the fetus.
e. None of the above.
b. Can be a problem if the father is Rh+.
72
An example of immune-complex hypersensitivity is
a. Rheumatoid arthritis.
b. Multiple sclerosis.
c. Hemolytic disease of the newborn.
d. Chronic granulomatous disease.
e. All of the above.
a. Rheumatoid arthritis.
73
Cyclosporine
a. Is an antibiotic, by definition.
b. Is a chemically-synthesized chemotherapeutic agent.
c. Is normally administered to a Rh- woman after she has given birth.
d. Is an immunosuppressant.
e. None of the above.
d. Is an immunosuppressant.
74
Cancer cells are typically killed by a(an)
a. Antibody plus complement.
b. Antibody plus a helper virus.
c. Antibody plus a T helper cell.
d. Cytotoxic T Lymphocyte.
e. Antibody plus a Cytotoxic T Lymphocyte plus a helper virus
d. Cytotoxic T Lymphocyte.
75
HIV originated and has the largest presence in
a. North America.
b. Latin America.
c. Sub-Saharan Africa.
d. Southeast Asia.
e. Eastern Europe.
c. Sub-Saharan Africa.
76
The protective mechanism of antibodies includes all of the following except
a. Agglutination.
b. Opsonization.
c. Tissue repair.
d. Neutralization.
e. The protective mechanism includes all of the above.
c. Tissue repair.
77
A term for the part of the antigen that binds to the antibody is
a. Epitope.
b. Carrier molecule.
c. Adjuvant.
d. Immunoglobulin.
e. Cytokine.
a. Epitope.
78
The common factor between humoral immunity and cellular immunity that is the primary target of HIV is the
a. Cytotoxic T Lymphocyte.
b. T suppressor cell.
c. Polymorphonuclear neutrophil.
d. T helper cell.
e. Cytokine.
d. T helper cell.
79
a person who has a genetic predisposition for an allergy to penicillin
a. Will have an anaphylactic response immediately following EVERY exposure to penicillin.
b. Will have an anaphylactic response immediately following JUST the first exposure to penicillin.
c. Will have an anaphylactic response immediately following EVERY subsequent exposure to penicillin, but not following the first exposure.
d. Will never have an anaphylactic response after any exposure to penicillin.
e. None of the above.
c. Will have an anaphylactic response immediately following EVERY subsequent exposure to penicillin, but not following the first exposure.
80
Which statement is correct?
a. HIV can be transmitted by blood and sexual contact.
b. HIV can be transmitted by sexual contact and mosquito bites.
c. HIV can be transmitted by blood and kissing.
d. HIV can be transmitted by blood, sexual contact, kissing and mosquito bites.
e. None of the above.
a. HIV can be transmitted by blood and sexual contact.
81
Which of the following is NOT a part of the first line of defense in non-specific host resistance?
a. Inflammation
b. Tears
c. Skin
d. Mucous membranes
e. All of the above are part of the first line of defense
a. Inflammation
82
By paralyzing the cilia in the respiratory tract, cigarette smoke interferes with which of the following?
a. First line of defense
b. Second line of defense
c. Third line of defense
d. Immunity
e. Interferon
a. First line of defense
83
Which statement concerning fever is true?
a. Fever is harmful to the host and should always be treated with medication.
b. Fever is beneficial to the host up to a point.
c. Fever is beneficial because it results in the total destruction of all bacteria, viruses and toxins.
d. Fever normally follows sweating.
e. None of the above are true
b. Fever is beneficial to the host up to a point.
84
In the fever process, which chemical induces the hypothalamus to produce prostaglandins?
a. Interleukin I
b. Interferon
c. Complement
d. Interleukin II
e. Histamine
a. Interleukin I
85
Taking 10 showers a day may not be such a good idea because
a. Being “too” clean will embarrass your friends.
b. Washing the oils off your skin is washing away some of your first line of defense.
c. You may use up all of the hot water.
d. You will wash away your B and T cells.
e. None of the above.
b. Washing the oils off your skin is washing away some of your first line of defense.
86
In the process of inflammation following a cut by a knife
a. Blood leaves the area around the cut so a clot can form.
b. Phagocytic cells enter the blood vessels and are carried away.
c. Tissue repair must occur before phagocytosis.
d. Neutrophils leave the blood vessels and go after the bacteria.
e. None of the above.
d. Neutrophils leave the blood vessels and go after the bacteria.
87
Antigens
a. Are sometimes foreign to the host and reasonably large.
b. Are always foreign to the host and reasonably large.
c. Are the same as epitopes.
d. By definition contain only one hapten.
e. Are always antibodies.
b. Are always foreign to the host and reasonably large.
88
A hapten
a. By itself causes the production of antibodies and binds to those antibodies.
b. Cannot cause antibody production by itself.
c. By itself causes the production of antibodies, but requires a carrier to bind to the antibodies.
d. Is an antigen.
e. None of the above.
b. Cannot cause antibody production by itself.
89
A typical antibody
a. Can bind two epitopes.
b. Is a protein.
c. Can be an antigen.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.
d. All of the above.
90
Which is true about penicillin?
a. It can cause an allergic response the very first time it is introduced into a body.
b. It can bind to a normal protein in some individuals, and the combination can induce antibody synthesis.
c. It is not antigenic because it is not considered foreign by the host.
d. All of the above are true.
e. None of the above are true
b. It can bind to a normal protein in some individuals, and the combination can induce antibody synthesis.
91
The immunoglobulin that is most commonly found on the surface of B cells is
a. IgG.
b. IgM.
c. IgA.
d. IgD.
e. IgE.
d. IgD.
92
The immunoglobulin that fixes complement, but does NOT pass the placenta is
a. IgG.
b. IgM.
c. IgA.
d. IgD.
e. IgE.
b. IgM.
93
The most important phagocytic cells in the body are
a. All of the leukocytes are equally important phagocytic cells.
b. Neutrophils and macrophages.
c. Neutrophils and lymphocytes.
d. Macrophages and lymphocytes.
e. Basophils and lymphocytes.
b. Neutrophils and macrophages.
94
The structure in the phagocytic cell that stores the digestive enzymes is the
a. Phagosome.
b. Endoplasmic reticulum.
c. Residual body.
d. Nucleus.
e. Lysosome.
e. Lysosome.
95
In the human, stem cells differentiate into B cells in the
a. Red bone marrow of the adult.
b. Bursa of fabricius.
c. Thymus.
d. Hypothalamus.
e. Spleen.
a. Red bone marrow of the adult.
96
In the activation of B cells to differentiate into plasma cells which produce antibodies, the antigen fragment is displayed on the B cell surface along with
a. IgG.
b. Helper T cell.
c. Major histocompatibility complex class II.
d. Plasma cell.
e. Cytokines.
c. Major histocompatibility complex class II.
97
What releases cytokines that activate the B cell to differentiate into plasma cells?
a. Extracellular antigens
b. Major histocompatibility complex class II
c. Gram negative bacterial cell
d. Helper T cell
e. Macrophage
d. Helper T cell
98
In the anamnestic response
a. More IgG is produced than in the primary response.
b. Less IgG is produced than in the primary response.
c. Only IgM is produced.
d. The same amount of IgG is produced as in the primary response.
e. None of the above.
a. More IgG is produced than in the primary response.
99
Opsonization
a. Is where multiple antigens are tied together by antibodies.
b. Enhances phagocytosis.
c. Is simply neutralization.
d. Requires complement.
e. None of the above.
b. Enhances phagocytosis.
100
Treatment following a venomous spider bite normally results in
a. Natural active immunity.
b. Natural passive immunity.
c. Artificial active immunity.
d. Artificial passive immunity.
e. Innate immunity.
d. Artificial passive immunity.
101
Natural passive immunity is facilitated by
a. IgG and IgM.
b. IgM and IgA.
c. IgA and IgG.
d. IgD and IgM.
e. IgE and IgD.
c. IgA and IgG.
102
Activation of complement requires the antigen to bind to
a. IgG or IgM.
b. IgM or IgA.
c. IgA or IgD.
d. IgD or IgE.
e. IgE or IgG.
a. IgG or IgM.
103
Results of antigen-antibody binding include
a. Agglutination, opsonization and hapten formation.
b. Opsonization, neutralization and complement activation.
c. Degranulation, agglutination and complement activation.
d. Opsonization, complement activation and hapten formation.
e. None of the above.
b. Opsonization, neutralization and complement activation.
104
The concept of monoclonal antibodies deals with
a. Antibodies for every epitope on an antigen.
b. Antibodies that live forever.
c. Antibodies directed against a hydridoma.
d. Pure antibodies directed against one epitope.
e. B cells directing their antibodies against myeloma cells
d. Pure antibodies directed against one epitope.
105
When a person’s genetic makeup dictates that they will be allergic to ragweed pollen, when they first inhale ragweed pollen
a. There is no indication that they are allergic.
b. They go into anaphylaxis.
c. Their mast cells release histamine.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.
a. There is no indication that they are allergic.
106
Desensitization with an allergy shot works by
a. Inducing synthesis of blocking IgE.
b. Altering the antigen before it is injected.
c. Blocking complement activation.
d. Inducing synthesis of blocking IgG.
e. Blocking the histamine receptor sites.
d. Inducing synthesis of blocking IgG.
107
An example of a food that does NOT induce a true allergic response is
a. An egg.
b. A peanut.
c. Lactose.
d. Fish.
e. Wheat.
c. Lactose.
108
Anaphylaxis
a. Always results in death, by definition.
b. Results from degranulation of mast cells.
c. Is a category III hypersensitivity reaction.
d. Is a part of Cell-Mediated Immunity.
e. Is a part of Non-Specific Resistance.
b. Results from degranulation of mast cells.
109
Hemolyic Disease of the Newborn is which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
a. Type I – Anaphylactic Reactions
b. Type II – Cytotoxic Reactions
c. Type III – Immune Complex Reactions
d. Type IV – Cell-Mediated Reactions
e. None of the above.
b. Type II – Cytotoxic Reactions
110
The presence of large numbers of antigens bound to antibodies deposited in the walls of blood vessels
a. Will usually result in anamnestic reactions.
b. Will usually result in anaphylactic reactions.
c. May result in cell-mediated hypersensitivity.
d. May result in immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity.
e. All of the above.
d. May result in immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity.
111
Transfusion of a normal A+ blood type person with type A- blood should result in
a. Immediate attack of the A- blood by antibodies.
b. Eventual production of antibodies against the A- blood.
c. Activation of complement which will lyse the A- blood.
d. Inflammation.
e. None of the above.
e. None of the above.
112
Toxoids
a. Are simply inactivated toxins.
b. Are attenuated bacteria or viruses.
c. Are usually made up of microbial components.
d. Are the same as nucleic acid vaccines.
e. Are none of the above.
a. Are simply inactivated toxins.
113
When you are first given a vaccination
a. It usually causes a mild form of the disease.
b. It induces a primary humoral immune response.
c. It induces an anamnestic humoral immune response.
d. It causes an immediate production of antibodies.
e. None of the above
b. It induces a primary humoral immune response.
114
Antisera
a. Were not used much in the 20th century, but are commonly used today.
b. Are used mainly for bacterial infections.
c. Are derived mainly from chicken eggs and pigs.
d. Are most frequently used for prevention of disease following exposure.
e. All of the above apply to antisera.
d. Are most frequently used for prevention of disease following exposure.
115
Vaccines
a. Are the same as antisera.
b. Are always made from dead bacteria.
c. Are also called adjuvants.
d. Can be composed of toxoids.
e. All of the above apply to vaccines.
d. Can be composed of toxoids.
116
You should not be immunized against everything because
a. You may develop immune complex syndrome.
b. You may develop autoimmunity.
c. Your immune system might get overloaded and shut down.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above
a. You may develop immune complex syndrome.
117
Which statement is correct?
a. Humoral immunity can be transferred by injection of white blood cells.
b. Humoral immunity can be transferred by injection of red blood cells.
c. Cellular immunity can be transferred by injection of white blood cells.
d. Cellular immunity can be transferred by injection of red blood cells.
e. All of the above are correct.
c. Cellular immunity can be transferred by injection of white blood cells.
118
An immune response against a tumor cell is mediated by
a. B cells.
b. Plasma cells.
c. Helper T cells.
d. Cytotoxic T cells.
e. None of the above.
d. Cytotoxic T cells.
119
HIV, the virus that causes AIDS, is transmitted by
a. Sexual activity and exchange of blood.
b. Sexual activity, kissing and mosquito bites.
c. Kissing, using the same eating utensils, and exchange of blood.
d. Sexual activity and using the same eating utensils.
e. Sexual activity and toilet seat.
a. Sexual activity and exchange of blood.
120
The major targets of HIV are
a. Erythrocytes and cytotoxic T cells.
b. Cytotoxic T cells and helper T cells.
c. Helper T cells and macrophages.
d. Macrophages and plasma cells.
e. Plasma cells and B cells.
c. Helper T cells and macrophages.
121
By paralyzing the cilia in the respiratory tract, cigarette smoke interferes with which of the following?
a. first line of defense
b. second line of defense
c. interferon
d. immunity
e. none of the above
a. first line of defense
122
Which of the following are the major phagocytic cells in the body?
a. T & B lymphocytes
b. basophils and eosinophils
c. erythrocytes
d. neutrophils and macrophages
e. epithelial cells with cilia
d. neutrophils and macrophages
123
Chill is a sign that
a. body temperature will decrease
b. body temperature will increase
c. body temperature will remain the same
d. sweating has already happened
e. none of the above
b. body temperature will increase
124
Vlad Tepes’ (the real Dracula) had a nasty habit of skinning people alive. This immediately impaired their
a. first line of defense
b. second line of defense
c. third line of defense
d. interferon production
e. specific immunity
a. first line of defense
125
When LPS is released by a Gram negative bacterial cell during phagocytosis, it stimulates the release of interleukin-1 by
a. the phagocytic cell
b. the bacterial cell
c. the hypothalamus
d. the thymus
e. none of the above
a. the phagocytic cell
126
Which of the following is a characteristic of antigens?
a. usually an amino acid or simple sugar
b. have less than one thousand molecular weight
c. found on human cells
d. induce formation of antibiotics
e. are not present in/on microbial cells
c. found on human cells
127
Penicillin, by itself, is incapable of inducing production of specific immunoglobulins, but it can combine with proteins to stimulate an allergic response. Penicillin is an example of a(n)
a. antigen
b. antibody
c. serotonin
d. chemotaxin
e. hapten
e. hapten
128
Which of the following produce immunoglobulins?
a. granulocytes
b. macrophages
c. helper T cells
d. stem cells
e. plasma cells
e. plasma cells
129
Which of the following is NOT directly involved in an antibody- mediated immune response?
a. immunoglobulins
b. helper T lymphocytes
c. B lymphocytes
d. antigens
e. none of the above (meaning all of the above are involved)
e. none of the above (meaning all of the above are involved)
130
Immunity to chicken pox, acquired as a result of a childhood disease, is an example of
a. active artificial immunity
b. passive artificial immunity
c. active natural immunity
d. passive natural immunity
e. innate immunity
c. active natural immunity
131
A healthcare worker suffers a needlestick injury from a patient infected with the hepatitis B virus. His doctor recommends artificial passive immunity. Which of the following would he receive?
a. antibodies to hepatitis B virus
b. modified hepatitis B virus antigen
c. modified hepatitis B virus toxoid
d. intact hepatitis B virus
e. antiviral drugs
a. antibodies to hepatitis B virus
132
Neonates acquiring immunoglobulin from mother’s breast milk is an example of which type of immunity?
a. natural active
b. artificial active
c. natural passive
d. artificial passive
e. innate immunity
c. natural passive
133
The formation of antibody following a vaccination is an example of what type of immunity?
a. natural active
b. artificial passive
c. natural passive
d. artificial active
e. innate
d. artificial active
134
All of the following processes can occur as a result of specific antibody production EXCEPT
a. delayed hypersensitivity
b. opsonization
c. neutralization
d. agglutination
e. complement activation
a. delayed hypersensitivity
135
The anamnestic immune response is characterized by
a. extended lag period before antibody formation begins
b. production of IgA rather than IgG
c. higher and longer lasting IgG titer than seen during the primary response
d. cell-mediated response rather than humoral response
e. memory cells directly producing antibody instead of dividing to plasma cells
c. higher and longer lasting IgG titer than seen during the primary response
136
A person should probably not get immunized against everything out there because
a. they might come down with immune complex syndrome
b. they might get an autoimmune disease
c. the immunizations might cause delayed hypersensitivity
d. they might lose their humoral immune system
e. none of the above
a. they might come down with immune complex syndrome
137
Desensitization to prevent allergies involves the injection of
a. IgE
b. IgG
c. antihistamine
d. antigen
e. Rhogam
d. antigen
138
Antigens that are coated (saturated) with antibodies are susceptible to
a. further antibody attack
b. phagocytosis
c. helper T cells
d. B cells
e. none of the above
b. phagocytosis
139
Which of the following is NOT normally used in a vaccine?
a. toxoids
b. parts of bacterial cells
c. live attenuated bacteria
d. inactivated viruses
e. antibodies
e. antibodies
140
The chemical mediators of anaphylaxis are
a. found in mast cells
b. antibodies
c. antigens
d. antigen-antibody complexes
e. the proteins of the complement system
a. found in mast cells
141
Reaction of IgG with a virus
a. activates complement, thus forming an attack complex resulting in lysis of the virus
b. simply neutralizes the virus
c. can result in an attenuated viral vaccine
d. is all of the above
e. is none of the above
b. simply neutralizes the virus
142
Which antibodies will be in the serum of a person with blood type B, Rh-?
a. anti-A, anti-B, anti-Rh
b. anti-A, anti-Rh
c. anti-A
d. anti-b, anti-Rh
e. anti-b
c. anti-A
143
A person with type O blood can safely receive a blood transfusion from which type of donor?
a. only A
b. only B
c. only O
d. only AB
e. either O or AB
c. only O
144
Which of the following would probably cause the most severe reaction in a person with type A blood?
a. transfusion with type A blood
b. transfusion with type B blood
c. transfusion with type O blood
d. all of the above would cause equally severe reactions
e. none of the above would cause severe reactions
b. transfusion with type B blood
145
Hemolytic disease of the newborn
a. occurs with all Rh+ babies
b. causes production of antibodies that destroy a pregnant woman’s erythrocytes
c. won’t occur if a woman is Rh+
d. occurs when sensitized T cells destroy fetal erythrocytes
e. is an autoimmune disorder
c. won’t occur if a woman is Rh+
146
An immediate hypersensitivity reaction occurs
a. during the first exposure to an antigen
b. on a second or subsequent exposure to an antigen
c. in immunologically tolerant individuals
d. during autoimmune diseases
e. in individuals with diseases of the immune system
b. on a second or subsequent exposure to an antigen
147
Hemolytic disease of the newborn can result from
a. an Rh+ mother with an Rh- fetus
b. an Rh- mother with an Rh+ fetus
c. an AB mother with a B fetus
d. an AB mother with an O fetus
e. none of the above
b. an Rh- mother with an Rh+ fetus
148
Reaction of antigen with IgE attached to mast cells causes
a. lysis of the cells
b. release of chemical mediators (e.g. histamine)
c. complement fixation
d. agglutination
e. all of the above
b. release of chemical mediators (e.g. histamine)
149
Theoretically, desensitization shots work by
a. inducing production of interfering antigens
b. interfering with histamine activity
c. inducing production of blocking IgG
d. inducing production of blocking antigen
e. all of the above
c. inducing production of blocking IgG
150
Which of the following is an autoimmune disease?
a. serum sickness
b. scarlet fever
c. rheumatoid arthritis
d. anaphylaxis
e. none of the above
c. rheumatoid arthritis
151
Serum sickness is
a. an autoimmune disease
b. due to release of catechol
c. due to foreign antibodies attacking host antibodies
d. usually fatal
e. none of the above
e. none of the above
152
A positive reaction to a tuberculin skin test is a classic example of
a. a humoral immune response
b. an anaphylactic reaction
c. degranulation and release of mediators
d. a delayed hypersensitivity reaction
e. an IgG-complement mediated reaction
d. a delayed hypersensitivity reaction
153
Contact dermatitis is mediated by
a. sensitized T lymphocytes
b. formation of immune complexes
c. IgE antibodies
d autoantibodies
e. rheumatoid factor
a. sensitized T lymphocytes
154
Which type of graft is least compatible?
a. autograft
b. allograft
c. isograft
d. xenograft
e. none of the above
d. xenograft
155
Which of the following is an immunosuppressant?
a. catechol
b. anti-Rh antiserum
c. cyclosporine
d. adjuvant
e. none of the above
c. cyclosporine
156
Which of the following is NOT true of T cells?
a. they secrete histamine
b. certain types attacked by the AIDS virus
c. some have direct cytotoxic action
d. they can secrete lymphokines
e. some serve as memory cells
a. they secrete histamine
157
Of the following, which is NOT a true statement about tumors?
a. tumor cells have "new" antigens
b. human body probably produces many tumor cells during lifetime
c. most tumor cells are probably destroyed by the cellular immune response
d. a person treated with corticosteroids following an allograft will
likely develop more tumors than the average person
e. tumor cells are usually destroyed by the humoral immune system
e. tumor cells are usually destroyed by the humoral immune system
158
Which of the following does NOT pertain to both cell-mediated and humoral immunity?
a. specificity
b. macrophages
c. helper T cells
d. memory cells
e. conducted by immunoglobulins
e. conducted by immunoglobulins
159
HIV is transmitted by all of the following EXCEPT
a. homosexual activity
b. heterosexual activity
c. hypodermic needles
d. mosquitoes
e. none of the above (meaning all can transmit HIV
d. mosquitoes
160
Which of the following cell types does the AIDS virus infect?
a. B cells
b. killer T cells
c. red blood cells
d. helper T cells
e. all of the above are infected by the AIDS virus
d. helper T cells
