Exam 5 - HIV/AIDs Kleyn (ChatGPT made first 54 cards) Flashcards by Rehman Hameed

Which of the following is the primary target cell of HIV?

A. B lymphocyte
B. CD4 T helper/inducer lymphocyte
C. Platelet
D. Red blood cell

B. CD4 T helper/inducer lymphocyte

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What type of cells does HIV preferentially bind to?

A. B cells
B. Red blood cells
C. Neurons
D. CD4 T cells

D. CD4 T cells

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is a route of transmission of HIV?

A. Casual contact
B. Sharing utensils
C. Exposure to infected body fluids
D. Sneezing/coughing

C. Exposure to infected body fluids

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is used to assess a patient’s overall immunocompetence?

A. HIV RNA (viral load)
B. CD4 T lymphocyte cell count
C. p24 antigen
D. IgG antibodies

B. CD4 T lymphocyte cell count

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

During which stage of HIV infection are viral loads typically the highest?

A. Chronic HIV infection
B. AIDS
C. Acute Retroviral Syndrome
D. Latent infection

C. Acute Retroviral Syndrome

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the usual range of CD4 cells/mm3 in a patient at baseline?

A. 100-300 cells/mm3
B. 400-600 cells/mm3
C. 600-1000 cells/mm3
D. 800-1500 cells/mm3

D. 800-1500 cells/mm3

(Kania said 800-1200; know the general range)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is a way HIV can be transmitted?

A. Sharing food
B. Infected body fluids
C. Insects
D. Closed-mouth kissing

B. Infected body fluids

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the first laboratory marker detectable after HIV infection?

A. IgG antibodies
B. p24 antigen
C. HIV RNA
D. IgM antibodies

C. HIV RNA

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What type of sample is used for the OraQuick In-Home HIV test?

A. Blood
B. Saliva
C. Urine
D. Cerebrospinal fluid

B. Saliva

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In the recommended laboratory HIV testing algorithm, how is an HIV diagnosis confirmed?

A. Positive result from a rapid test
B. Positive result from an antibody test
C. Positive result from a multi-test algorithm
D. Positive result from p24 antigen test

C. Positive result from a multi-test algorithm

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is a surrogate marker used to assess a patient’s immunocompetence?

A. HIV RNA (viral load)
B. CD4 T lymphocyte cell count
C. p24 antigen
D. HIV DNA

B. CD4 T lymphocyte cell count

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which surrogate marker is most useful for assessing the effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy after its initiation?

A. CD4 T lymphocyte cell count
B. p24 antigen
C. HIV RNA (viral load)
D. Antibody levels

C. HIV RNA (viral load)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A decrease in which surrogate marker is a strong indicator that ART is working?

A. CD4%
B. HIV RNA (viral load)
C. p24 antigen
D. White blood cell count

B. HIV RNA (viral load)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the CD4 count threshold that defines AIDS?

A. <500 cells/mm3
B. <300 cells/mm3
C. <200 cells/mm3
D. <100 cells/mm3

C. <200 cells/mm3

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

HIV infection is classified as stage 3 (AIDS) when:

A. The patient is asymptomatic
B. The patient’s CD4 count is >500
C. An AIDS-defining opportunistic infection is diagnosed
D. The patient has a high viral load

C. An AIDS-defining opportunistic infection is diagnosed

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which antiretroviral drug class prevents HIV from entering the host cell by binding to the CD4 T-cell co-receptor?

A. Protease Inhibitors (PIs)
B. Non-Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NNRTIs)
C. Chemokine Coreceptor 5 (CCR5) Antagonist
D. Integrase Strand Transfer Inhibitors (INSTIs)

C. Chemokine Coreceptor 5 (CCR5) Antagonist

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which antiretroviral drug class inhibits the HIV integrase enzyme, preventing proviral DNA integration?

A. Fusion Inhibitor
B. Integrase Strand Transfer Inhibitors (INSTIs)
C. Non-Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NNRTIs)
D. Protease Inhibitors (PIs)

B. Integrase Strand Transfer Inhibitors (INSTIs)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which antiretroviral drug class interferes with the action of the viral protease enzyme?

A. Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NRTIs)
B. Non-Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NNRTIs)
C. Protease Inhibitors (PIs)
D. Integrase Strand Transfer Inhibitors (INSTIs)

C. Protease Inhibitors (PIs)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the typical adult dose of dolutegravir when used in combination with other antiretrovirals?

A. 200 mg once daily
B. 300 mg once daily
C. 50 mg once daily
D. 400 mg twice daily

C. 50 mg once daily (look at notes)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The handout implies dolutegravir is administered at what frequency?

A. Once daily
B. Twice daily
C. Three times daily
D. Four times daily

A. Once daily

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which antiretroviral requires specific administration with food to enhance absorption?

A. Efavirenz
B. Rilpivirine
C. Atazanavir
D. Elvitegravir

B. Rilpivirine

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which drug has specific requirements for separating administration from antacids?

A. Neviripine
B. Etravirine
C. Rilpivirine
D. Elvitegravir

C. Rilpivirine

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is a common class effect of NRTIs?

A. Rash
B. GI intolerance
C. Mitochondrial toxicity
D. Weight gain

C. Mitochondrial toxicity

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which antiretroviral is administered via IV infusion?

A. Cabotegravir
B. Ibalizumab
C. Lenacapavir
D. Atazanavir

B. Ibalizumab

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is a common adverse effect associated with Protease Inhibitors (PIs)? A. Lactic acidosis B. Rash C. Insulin resistance D. Anemia

C. Insulin resistance

Which antiretroviral drug class is commonly associated with weight gain? A. NNRTIs B. PIs C. INSTIs D. NRTIs

C. INSTIs

What is the recommendation for managing drug interactions between antiretrovirals and antacids? A. Administer antacids at the same time as antiretrovirals. B. Separate antacid administration from integrase inhibitors by 6 hours. C. No separation is required. D. Increase the dose of the antiretroviral.

B. Separate antacid administration from integrase inhibitors by 6 hours.

Which benzodiazepines are preferred when used with protease inhibitors and cobicistat? A. Alprazolam B. Diazepam C. Lorazepam D. Clonazepam

C. Lorazepam (LOT = loraz, oxaz, temaz)

What is the recommendation for managing potential drug interactions between dolutegravir and biguanides? A. Increase the dose of the biguanide. B. Decrease the dose of the biguanide. C. Administer them 2 hours apart. D. There is no clinically significant interaction.

B. Decrease the dose of the biguanide.

Which antiretroviral class commonly requires dosage adjustment in patients with renal insufficiency? A. Protease Inhibitors (PIs) B. Non-Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NNRTIs) C. Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NRTIs) D. Integrase Strand Transfer Inhibitors (INSTIs)

C. Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NRTIs) (except for abacavir)

Which NRTI does NOT require dosage adjustment in renal insufficiency? A. Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (TDF) B. Zidovudine C. Lamivudine D. Emtricitabine

B. Zidovudine

Why do most NRTIs require renal dose adjustment? A. They are primarily metabolized by the liver. B. They can accumulate and increase the risk of side effects. C. They directly damage the kidneys. D. Renal impairment increases their effectiveness.

B. They can accumulate and increase the risk of side effects.

What specific lab test is required before starting abacavir? A. Renal function tests B. HLA-B*5701 genotype C. Liver function tests D. CD4 count

B. HLA-B*5701 genotype

What is the purpose of testing for the HLA-B*5701 genotype before administering abacavir? A. To predict the drug's effectiveness. B. To assess the risk of liver toxicity. C. To identify patients at risk for a potentially fatal hypersensitivity reaction. D. To monitor kidney function.

C. To identify patients at risk for a potentially fatal hypersensitivity reaction.

What test must be performed before initiating maraviroc? A. HLA-B*5701 genotype B. Renal function tests C. HIV tropism assay D. Liver function tests

C. HIV tropism assay

The federally approved HIV/AIDS medical practice guidelines can be found at which website? A. www.cdc.gov B. www.who.int C. http://clinicalinfo.hiv.gov D. www.nih.gov

C. http://clinicalinfo.hiv.gov

How frequently are the HIV/AIDS medical practice guidelines typically updated? A. Annually B. Every 5 years C. Every 6-9 months D. Every 2 years

C. Every 6-9 months

What type of information can be found on the clinicalinfo.hiv.gov website? A. Information on global HIV/AIDS statistics B. Antiretroviral drug information and treatment guidelines C. Information on HIV basic science research D. Patient support group listings

B. Antiretroviral drug information and treatment guidelines

What is the primary goal of antiretroviral therapy (ART)? A. To cure HIV infection B. To eliminate all traces of the virus from the body C. To maximally and durably suppress plasma HIV RNA D. To prevent the development of drug resistance

C. To maximally and durably suppress plasma HIV RNA

Which of the following is a general principle of ART? A. Monotherapy is preferred to minimize side effects. B. Treatment interruptions are beneficial for long-term management. C. Eradication of HIV is achievable with current treatments. D. ART should be continued indefinitely (lifelong).

D. ART should be continued indefinitely (lifelong).

What is a key benefit of effective antiretroviral therapy? A. Reduced risk of HIV transmission B. Increased viral replication C. Shortened lifespan D. Increased inflammation

A. Reduced risk of HIV transmission

When is ART recommended for individuals with HIV? A. Only when the CD4 count drops below 200 cells/mm3 B. Only when the patient develops AIDS-defining conditions C. Only during pregnancy D. For all individuals with HIV, regardless of CD4 count

D. For all individuals with HIV, regardless of CD4 count

In which situation is immediate initiation of ART particularly important? A. In patients with a high CD4 count B. In patients with acute or recent HIV infection C. In patients who are asymptomatic D. In patients with well-controlled HIV

B. In patients with acute or recent HIV infection

Why is early initiation of ART recommended? A. It increases the risk of drug resistance. B. It is less expensive than delayed treatment. C. It has no impact on long-term outcomes. D. It delays the progression of HIV and reduces transmission risk.

D. It delays the progression of HIV and reduces transmission risk.

A recommended first-line antiretroviral regimen for most treatment-naïve patients consists of: A. Monotherapy with an NNRTI B. Dual therapy with two PIs C. Two NRTIs in combination with a third active ARV from one of three drug classes D. An INSTI plus a PI

C. Two NRTIs in combination with a third active ARV from one of three drug classes

Which of the following is a commonly used NRTI backbone in a first-line ART regimen? A. Abacavir + lamivudine B. Dolutegravir + lamivudine C. Efavirenz + tenofovir D. Ritonavir + darunavir

A. Abacavir + lamivudine

Which antiretroviral class generally has a higher genetic barrier to resistance? A. NNRTIs B. Boosted-PIs C. NRTIs D. INSTIs

B. Boosted-PIs

What does "genetic barrier to resistance" refer to? A. The likelihood of developing side effects B. The number of mutations required for the virus to become resistant to a drug C. The cost of the medication D. The patient's adherence to the medication

B. The number of mutations required for the virus to become resistant to a drug

What is a clinical implication of NNRTIs having a lower genetic barrier to resistance compared to boosted-PIs? A. NNRTIs are less likely to cause drug interactions. B. NNRTIs are more forgiving with missed doses. C. NNRTIs are more likely to lead to resistance with poor adherence. D. NNRTIs are preferred in patients with multi-drug resistant HIV.

C. NNRTIs are more likely to lead to resistance with poor adherence.

What is the recommended duration of post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP)? A. 7 days B. 14 days C. 21 days D. 28 days

D. 28 days

When should PEP be initiated for it to be most effective? A. Within 72 hours of exposure B. Within 7 days of exposure C. 1 week after exposure D. 2 weeks after exposure

A. Within 72 hours of exposure

What is the primary goal of pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP)? A. To treat existing HIV infection B. To prevent HIV infection in high-risk individuals C. To cure AIDS D. To reduce the side effects of ART

B. To prevent HIV infection in high-risk individuals

Which medication is commonly used for PrEP? A. Dolutegravir B. Efavirenz C. Emtricitabine/tenofovir D. Ritonavir

C. Emtricitabine/tenofovir

What is an important monitoring parameter for individuals taking PrEP? A. Regular HIV testing B. CD4 count monitoring C. Viral load monitoring D. Liver enzyme monitoring

A. Regular HIV testing

as a general rule, combination ART consists of ___ to ___ active agents from at least ___ classes

2 to 3; 2 classes

which glycoprotein binds to CD4 receptors cells in HIV?

gp120

What happens to CD4 cells after they are infected by HIV? a. they become resistant to viral replication b. they are destroyed by a cytolytic effect after being used for viral replication c. they produced antibodies against HIV d. they undergo uncontrolled division

b. they are destroyed by a cytolytic effect after being used for viral replication

During which stage of the HIV lifecycle is viral RNA converted into DNA? a. binding b. reverse transcription c. assembly d. budding

b. reverse transcription

Synthetic purine and pyrimidine analogues which result in elongation termination of growing proviral DNA chain a. NRTIs b. NNRTIs c. PIs d. INSTIs

a. NRTIs

Bind to an allosteric site of the reverse transcriptase enzyme reducing functionality a. NRTIs b. NNRTIs c. PIs d. INSTIs

b. NNRTIs

Inhibit the action of the viral protease preventing the assembly, maturation, and release of new virions a. NRTIs b. NNRTIs c. PIs d. INSTIs

c. PIs

Inhibits HIV integrase, preventing the proviral DNA integration into the host cell genome a. NRTIs b. NNRTIs c. PIs d. INSTIs

d. INSTIs

Mitochondrial toxicity and lactic acidosis with or without hepatomegaly and hepatic steatosis a. NRTIs b. NNRTIs c. PIs d. INSTIs

a. NRTIs

Rash is main adverse effect a. NRTIs b. NNRTIs c. PIs d. INSTI

b. NNRTIs

Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of protease inhibitors? a. GI intolerance b. insulin resistance c. lipodystophy d. lactic acidosis

d. lactic acidosis (this is an AE of NRTIs)

which NRTI does NOT require dose adjustment in renal insufficiency? a. tenofovir b. abacavir c. lamivudine d. emtricitabine

b. abacavir

maraviroc a. attachment inhibitor b. post-attachment inhibitor c. chemokine coreceptor 5 antagonist d. capsid inhibitor

c. chemokine coreceptor 5 antagonist

resistance testing: specimen should contain > ____ copies/mL for best likelihood of yielding a successful standard resistance test results, but should still be considered if > ____ copies/mL

> 500 > > 200

HIV protease inhibitor drugs ending

-navir

4 main NRTI drugs

tenofovir emtricitabine abacavir lamivudine TEAL

HIV Integrase Inhibitor common ending

-tegravir

which drug is CI with PPIs? a. raltegravir b. atazanavir c. bictegravir d. rilpivirine

d. rilpivirine

3 preferred benzos to be given with protease inhibitors and cobicistat

lorazepam, oxazepam, temazepam LOT

preferred steroid with protease inhibitors and cobicistat a. prednisone b. beclomethasone c. dexamethasone d. prednisolone

b. beclomethasone

T or F: we should NEVER give raltegravir with Al or Mg containing compounds

which drug class does NOT have any considerations when given with protease inhibitors and cobicistat? a. corticosteroids b. PDE5 inhibitors c. statins d. polyvalent cation supplements

d. polyvalent cation supplements (a. prefers beclamethasone; b. use very low doses q48-72h; c. prefers low dose atorva, rosuva, pitava, or pravastatin; d. has interactions with integrase inhibitors)

statin doses may need to be INCREASED when given with: a. NNRTIs b. PIs and cobicistat c. INSTIs d. post-attachment inhibitors

a. NNRTIs

special administration requirement for efavirenz a. subQ Q6months b. empty stomach at bedtime c. take with food d. 30 mg daily lead-in for 28 days

b. empty stomach at bedtime

special administration requirement for etravirine, atazanavir, rilpivirine, and elvitegravir a. empty stomach at bedtime b. take with food c. IV loading dose then maintenance d. dose titration over 14 days

b. take with food (but don't take rilpivirine with protein drink)

special administration requirement for nevirapine a. empty stomach at bedtime b. take with food c. IV loading dose then maintenance d. dose titration over 14 days

d. dose titration over 14 days

special administration requirement for ibalizumab a. empty stomach at bedtime b. take with food c. IV loading dose then maintenance d. dose titration over 14 days

c. IV loading dose then maintenance

special administration requirement for lenacapavir a. dose titration over 14 days b. 30 mg daily lead-in for 28 days c. IV loading dose then maintenance d. subQ Q6 months

d. subQ Q6 months

special administration requirement for cabotegravir a. dose titration over 14 days b. 30 mg daily lead-in for 28 days c. IV loading dose then maintenance d. subQ Q6 months

b. 30 mg daily lead-in for 28 days (then they get injection)

Exam 5 - HIV/AIDs Kleyn (ChatGPT made first 54 cards) Flashcards

(83 cards)