Lec 1 Intro to ID Rybakov (on slide 29) Flashcards by Rehman Hameed

Q

hallmark of infection

A

fever

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

a fever is considered > ___ C or > ___ F

A

> 38 C
100.4 F

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

a drug-induced fever is considered a false-______

a. negative
b. positive

A

b. positive

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

absence of fever in pts with signs/sx of infection

a. false-negative
b. false-positive

A

a. false-negative

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

3 examples of antipyretics (slide 6)

A

acetaminophen, NSAIDs, aspirin

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

4 criteria for systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)

A

HR > 90 bpm
RR > 20 rpm
fever > 38 C or < 36 C
inc/dec WBC count (> 12000 or < 4000 or > 10% bands)

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

at least ___ criteria out of ___ need to be met for SIRS?

A

at least 2 criteria out of 4

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

difference between signs and symptoms

A

signs is what we see (vitals, inc/dec WBC count), symptoms is what the pt is telling you (chills, etc)

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

signs and symptoms of infection may be absent in _______ patients

A

neutropenic

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

5 types of WBCs

A

neutrophils
lymphocytes
monocytes
eosinophils
basophils

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

two bolded non-infectious causes of infection: lab test (slide 9)

A

steroids, leukemia

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

-most common WBC
-fight infections

a. mature neutrophils
b. immature neutrophils (bands)
c. eosinophils
d. basophils
e. lymphocytes
f. monocytes

A

a. mature neutrophils

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

increases during infection = “left shift”

a. mature neutrophils
b. immature neutrophils (bands)
c. eosinophils
d. basophils
e. lymphocytes
f. monocytes

A

b. immature neutrophils (bands)

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

involved in allergic rxns and immune response to parasites

a. mature neutrophils
b. immature neutrophils (bands)
c. eosinophils
d. basophils
e. lymphocytes
f. monocytes

A

c. eosinophils

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

associated with hypersensitivity rxns

a. mature neutrophils
b. immature neutrophils (bands)
c. eosinophils
d. basophils
e. lymphocytes
f. monocytes

A

d. basophils

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

humoral (B-cell) and cell-mediated (T-cell) immunity

a. mature neutrophils
b. immature neutrophils (bands)
c. eosinophils
d. basophils
e. lymphocytes
f. monocytes

A

e. lymphocytes

Q

-mature into macrophages
-serve as scavengers for foreign substances

a. mature neutrophils
b. immature neutrophils (bands)
c. eosinophils
d. basophils
e. lymphocytes
f. monocytes

A

f. monocytes

Q

-increased neutrophils +/- bands
-associated with bacterial infections

a. leukocytosis
b. lymphocytosis

A

a. leukocytosis

Q

-associated with viral, fungal, or tuberculosis infections
-inc in B and T cells

a. leukocytosis
b. lymphocytosis

A

b. lymphocytosis

Q

risk of infection _______ as ANC ______

a. inc; inc
b. inc; dec
c. dec; inc
d. dec; dec

A

b. inc; dec

Q

T or F: ESR and CRP are always elevated if there is an infection present

A

F (does NOT confirm infection)

Q

normal ESR range in males and females

A

0-15 (males)
0-20 (females)

Q

normal CRP range

A

0-0.5

Q

which acute phase reactant is more specific for bacterial infections than ESR and CRP?

A

procalcitonin

procalcitonin elevation < 0.25 a. low risk of infection b. antibiotics should be continued

a. low risk of infection

procalcitonin elevation > 0.5 a. low risk of infection b. antibiotics should be continued

b. antibiotics should be continued

how often should serial calcitonin measurements be taken?

every 1-2 days

T or F: the type of culture collected for identifying a pathogen depends on the site of infection

T

blood cultures are obtained from ___ peripheral sites as ___ sets

2; 2

what is 1 set of blood cultures?

1 aerobic and 1 anaerobic bottle

A potentially pathogenic organism is present at the body site but is not invading host tissue or eliciting a host immune response a. colonization b. infection

a. colonization (no signs or sx of infection)

ex. Isolate of Pseudomonas aeruginosa from a sputum culture in a patient with a chronic tracheostomy but no couch, fever, leukocytosis, or infiltrate on chest X-ray a. colonization b. infection

a. colonization

ex. Isolation of Streptococcus pneumoniae in the sputum of a patient with fever, leukocytosis, shortness of breath, cough, increased sputum production, and evidence of consolidation on chest X-ray a. colonization b. infection

b. infection

identification of pathogens via cultures: Retrieve cultures from body and send to micro lab a. minutes to hours b. 24-48+ hours c. 48-72+ hours

a. minutes to hours

identification of pathogens via cultures: Plate the organism, await growth, Gram-stain growing organisms a. minutes to hours b. 24-48+ hours c. 48-72+ hours

b. 24-48+ hours

identification of pathogens via cultures: identification and susceptibility testing a. minutes to hours b. 24-48+ hours c. 48-72+ hours

c. 48-72+ hours

Lowest antimicrobial concentration that prevents visible growth

MIC (minimum inhibitory conc)

gold standard for MIC testing

broth dilution