Lec 2 Intro to ID 2 Rybakov Flashcards

1
Q

gram positive bacteria appear _____ under a microscope

a. green
b. red/pink
c. purple
d. blue

A

c. purple (due to thick peptidoglycan wall)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

gram-neg bacteria appears _____ under a microscope

a. green
b. red/pink
c. purple
d. blue

A

b. red/pink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

gram-positive
cocci
anaerobic (2 answers)

A

-peptococcus
-peptostreptococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

gram-positive
cocci
aerobic
catalase (+)
coagulase (+)

a. Staph aureus
b. CoNS (staph epidermis)
c. Streptococcus pneumoniae
d. Enterococcus faecium

A

a. Staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

gram-positive
cocci
aerobic
catalase (+)
coagulase (-)

a. Staph aureus
b. CoNS (staph epidermis)
c. Streptococcus pneumoniae
d. Enterococcus faecium

A

b. CoNS (staph epidermis)

(CoNS stands for coagulase negative staph epidermis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

gram-positive
cocci
anaerobic
catalase (-)
alpha hemolysis (2 answers)

a. streptococcus pneumoniae
b. vividans streptococci
c. streptococcus pyogenes
d. streptococcus aglactieae
e. enterococcus faecium
f. enterococcus faecalis

A

a. streptococcus pneumoniae
b. vividans streptococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

gram-positive
cocci
anaerobic
catalase (-)
beta hemolysis (2 answers)

a. streptococcus pneumoniae
b. vividans streptococci
c. streptococcus pyogenes
d. streptococcus agalactiae
e. enterococcus faecium
f. enterococcus faecalis

A

c. streptococcus pyogenes (group A)
d. streptococcus agalactiae (group B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

gram-positive
cocci
anaerobic
catalase (-)
gamma hemolysis (2 answers)

a. streptococcus pneumoniae
b. vividans streptococci
c. streptococcus pyogenes
d. streptococcus aglactieae
e. enterococcus faecium
f. enterococcus faecalis

A

e. enterococcus faecium
f. enterococcus faecalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

aerobic cocci clusters is considered _______ positive

A

catalase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

aerobic cocci pairs/chains is considered _______ negative

A

catalase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

gram positive aerobic cocci clusters

a. catalase +
b. catalase -
c. anaerobic

A

a. catalase +

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

gram positive aerobic cocci pairs/chains

a. catalase +
b. catalase -
c. anaerobic

A

b. catalase -

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

gram positive
bacilli
anaerobic
spore forming (2 answers)

a. clostridium spp
b. clostridioides difficile
c. cutibacterium
d. actinomyces
e. bacillus spp
f. corynebacterium
g. lactobacillus spp
h. listeria monocytogenes

A

a. clostridium spp
b. clostridioides difficile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

gram positive
bacilli
anaerobic
non-spore forming (2 answers)

a. clostridium spp
b. clostridioides difficile
c. cutibacterium
d. actinomyces
e. bacillus spp
f. corynebacterium
g. lactobacillus spp
h. listeria monocytogenes

A

c. cutibacterium
d. actinomyces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

gram positive
bacilli
aerobic
spore forming (1 answer)

a. clostridium spp
b. clostridioides difficile
c. cutibacterium
d. actinomyces
e. bacillus spp
f. corynebacterium
g. lactobacillus spp
h. listeria monocytogenes

A

e. bacillus spp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

gram positive
bacilli
aerobic
non-spore forming (3 answers)

a. clostridium spp
b. clostridioides difficile
c. cutibacterium
d. actinomyces
e. bacillus spp
f. corynebacterium
g. lactobacillus spp
h. listeria monocytogenes

A

f. corynebacterium
g. lactobacillus spp
h. listeria monocytogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

staphylococcus aureus is ALWAYS _______ _______

a. catalase negative
b. coagulase positive
c. coagulase negative

A

b. coagulase positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

group A

a. streptococcus pyogenes
b. streptococcus agalactiae

A

a. streptococcus pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

group B

a. streptococcus pyogenes
b. streptococcus agalactiae

A

b. streptococcus agalactiae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

for gram-positive, most medically important pathogens are

a. cocci
b. bacilli
c. coccobacilli

A

a. cocci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

which of the following is FALSE about gram-positive bacteria? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

a. usually cocci rather than bacilli
b. staphylococcus forms pairs/chains
c. streptococci and enterococci forms clusters
d. catalase test separates staphylococci from streptococci
e. gamma-hemolytic organisms appear in GI tract

A

b. staphylococcus forms pairs/chains
c. streptococci and enterococci forms clusters

(b. forms clusters, c. appears in pairs/chains)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Patient JR has Gram-positive cocci growing in the blood. They don’t have a full identification but tell you the organism is catalase positive, coagulase positive. Which of the following organisms could be growing in JR’s blood?

a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) Staphylococcus epidermidis
c) Streptococcus pyogenes
d) Enterococcus faecalis

A

a) Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

gram negative
aerobic
cocci (2 answers)

a. Neisseria spp
b. Moraxella catarrhalis
c. Haemophilus spp
d. Prevotella

A

a. Neisseria spp
b. Moraxella catarrhalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

gram negative
aerobic
coccobacilli

a. Neisseria spp
b. Moraxella catarrhalis
c. Haemophilus spp
d. Prevotella

A

c. Haemophilus spp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
gram negative bacilli anaerobic (4 answers) a. Campylobacter b. Bacteroides c. Helicobacter d. Acinetobacter spp e. Fusobacterium f. Prevotella g. Veillonella spp
b. Bacteroides e. Fusobacterium f. Prevotella g. Veillonella spp
26
are fastidious gram neg bacilli aerobic or anaerobic?
aerobic
27
gram neg aerobic bacilli enterobacterales lactose fermenters (oxidase neg) what bugs are in this class? (acronym)
CEEK acronym citrobacter spp enterobacter spp e. coli klebsiella spp
28
are lactose fermenters oxidase positive or negative?
negative
29
Morganella morganii Proteus spp Providencia spp Salmonella spp Serratia marcescens Shigella spp a. aerobic bacilli, enterobacterales, lactose fermenters b. aerobic bacilli, enterobacterales, non-lactose fermenters c. anaerobic cocci d. anaerobic bacilli e. fastidious
b. aerobic bacilli, enterobacterales, non-lactose fermenters
30
gram neg aerobic bacilli non-enterobacterales lactose fermenters (3 answers) a. aeromonas hydrophila b. pasteurella multocida c. vibrio cholerae d. pseudomonas spp e. acinetobacter spp f. alcaligenes spp g. burkholderia cepacia h. stenotrophomonas i. campylobacter j. helicobacter k. bartonella l. HACEK organisms
a. aeromonas hydrophila b. pasteurella multocida c. vibrio cholerae
31
gram neg aerobic bacilli non-enterobacterales non-lactose fermenters (5 answers) a. aeromonas hydrophila b. pasteurella multocida c. vibrio cholerae d. pseudomonas spp e. acinetobacter spp f. alcaligenes spp g. burkholderia cepacia h. stenotrophomonas i. campylobacter j. helicobacter k. bartonella l. HACEK organisms
d. pseudomonas spp e. acinetobacter spp f. alcaligenes spp g. burkholderia cepacia h. stenotrophomonas
32
gram neg aerobic bacilli non-enterobacterales fastidious (4 answers) a. aeromonas hydrophila b. pasteurella multocida c. vibrio cholerae d. pseudomonas spp e. acinetobacter spp f. alcaligenes spp g. burkholderia cepacia h. stenotrophomonas i. campylobacter j. helicobacter k. bartonella l. HACEK organisms
i. campylobacter j. helicobacter k. bartonella l. HACEK organisms
33
chlamydia, legionella, mycoplasma... a. atypical b. spirochetes c. fastidious
a. atypical
34
treponema pallidium borellia burgdorferi a. atypical b. spirochetes c. fastidious
b. spirochetes
35
campylobacter helicobacter bartonella HACEK organisms a. atypical b. spirochetes c. fastidious
c. fastidious
36
are gram-negative cocci or bacilli more common?
bacilli
37
Patient ZE has Gram-negative rods growing in the blood. They don’t have a full identification but tell you the organism is a non-enteric non-lactose fermenter. Which of the following organisms could be growing in JR’s blood? a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa b) Citrobacter freundii c) Morganella morganii d) Aeromonas hydrophila
a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa (b. is enteric lactose fermenter, c. is enteric non-lactose fermenter, d. is lactose fermenter)
38
-Acts as selective barrier -Certain drugs must pass through to reach target site a. cytoplasmic membrane b. peptidoglycan layer (cell wall) c. outer memb (gram-neg) d. periplasmic space
a. cytoplasmic membrane
39
-Permeability barrier for large molecules -PBPs: proteins essential for cell-wall synthesis a. cytoplasmic membrane b. peptidoglycan layer (cell wall) c. outer memb (gram-neg) d. periplasmic space
b. peptidoglycan layer (cell wall)
40
-lipopolysaccharides (LPS) -porins a. cytoplasmic membrane b. peptidoglycan layer (cell wall) c. outer memb (gram-neg) d. periplasmic space
c. outer memb (gram-neg)
41
Vital for bacterial protein secretion, folding, quality control; acts as reservoir for virulence factors a. cytoplasmic membrane b. peptidoglycan layer (cell wall) c. outer memb (gram-neg) d. periplasmic space
d. periplasmic space
42
transferable between organisms a. plasmid b. transposons c. conjugation
a. plasmid
43
move from plasmid to chromosomes or vice versa a. plasmid b. transposons c. conjugation
b. transposons
44
most common method of acquired resistance a. plasmid b. transposons c. phages d. conjugation e. transduction f. transformation
d. conjugation
45
Which of the following describes the difference between Gram-positive and Gram-neg bacteria? a) Gram-positive have a thin cell wall; Gram-negative have a thick cell wall b) Gram-positive have a thick cell wall; Gram-negative have a thin cell wall c) Gram-positive have porin channels; Gram-negative lack porin channels d) Gram-positive have PBP; Gram-negative lack PBP
b) Gram-positive have a thick cell wall; Gram-negative have a thin cell wall
46
enzyme example of extended-spectrum beta-lactamases (ESBLs) a. CTX-M-15 b. KPC-1 c. NDM-1 d. Amp-C e. OXA-48
a. CTX-M-15
47
enzyme example of serine carbapenemases a. CTX-M-15 b. KPC-1 c. NDM-1 d. Amp-C e. OXA-48
b. KPC-1
48
enzyme example of metallo-beta-lactamases a. CTX-M-15 b. KPC-1 c. NDM-1 d. Amp-C e. OXA-48
c. NDM-1
49
enzyme example of cephalosporinases a. CTX-M-15 b. KPC-1 c. NDM-1 d. Amp-C e. OXA-48
d. Amp-C
50
OXA-type enzyme example a. CTX-M-15 b. KPC-1 c. NDM-1 d. Amp-C e. OXA-48
e. OXA-48 (obviously)
51
tx of choice for ESBL infections
carbapenems
52
zosyn is a tx option for ESBL infection in ______ source only
urinary
53
Hydrolyze penicillin; produced primarily by Enterobacterales a. narrow-spec b-lactamases b. extended-spec b-lactamases (ESBL) c. serine carbapenemases d. metallo-b-lactamases e. cephalosporinases f. OXA-type
a. narrow-spec b-lactamases
54
Hydrolyze narrow & extended spectrum-β-lactam antibiotics a. narrow-spec b-lactamases b. extended-spec b-lactamases (ESBLs) c. serine carbapenemases d. metallo-b-lactamases e. cephalosporinases f. OXA-type
b. ESBLs
55
Hydrolyze carbapenems (3 answers) a. narrow-spec b-lactamases b. extended-spec b-lactamases (ESBL) c. serine carbapenemases d. metallo-b-lactamases e. cephalosporinases f. OXA-type
c. serine carbapenemases d. metallo-b-lactamases f. OXA-type
56
inducible a. narrow-spec b-lactamases b. extended-spec b-lactamases (ESBL) c. serine carbapenemases d. metallo-b-lactamases e. cephalosporinases f. OXA-type
e. cephalosporinases
57
Hydrolyze oxacillin, oxyimino β-lactams, and carbapenems a. narrow-spec b-lactamases b. extended-spec b-lactamases (ESBL) c. serine carbapenemases d. metallo-b-lactamases e. cephalosporinases f. OXA-type
f. OXA-type
58
ambler class A (3 answers) a. narrow-spec b-lactamases b. extended-spec b-lactamases (ESBL) c. serine carbapenemases d. metallo-b-lactamases e. cephalosporinases f. OXA-type
a. narrow-spec b-lactamases b. extended-spec b-lactamases (ESBL) c. serine carbapenemases
59
Ambler class B a. narrow-spec b-lactamases b. extended-spec b-lactamases (ESBL) c. serine carbapenemases d. metallo-b-lactamases e. cephalosporinases f. OXA-type
d. metallo-b-lactamases
60
Ambler class C a. narrow-spec b-lactamases b. extended-spec b-lactamases (ESBL) c. serine carbapenemases d. metallo-b-lactamases e. cephalosporinases f. OXA-type
e. cephalosporinases
61
Ambler class D a. narrow-spec b-lactamases b. extended-spec b-lactamases (ESBL) c. serine carbapenemases d. metallo-b-lactamases e. cephalosporinases f. OXA-type
f. OXA-type
62
the CTX-M enzyme is most prevalent in all of the following EXCEPT: a. E. coli b. Klebsiella pneumoniae/oxytoca c. Acinetobacter spp d. Proteus mirabilis
c. Acinetobacter spp
63
Most frequent cause of of Carbapenem-resistant Enterobacterales (CRE) in the USA a. narrow-spec b-lactamases b. extended-spec b-lactamases (ESBL) c. serine carbapenemases d. metallo-b-lactamases e. cephalosporinases f. OXA-type
c. serine carbapenemases (the slide doesn't have the serine; resistance to whole beta-lactam class)
64
KPC (Klebsiella pneumoniae carbapenemase) is found in which bacteria? (6 of them)
K. pneumoniae K. oxytoca E. coli E. cloacae E. aerogenes P. mirabilis
65
metallo-beta-lactamase enzyme example
NDM (New Delhi MBL)
66
tx option if NDM enzyme is present (2 listed)
cefiderocol (trojan horse) aztreonam + ceftazidime/avibactam (limited options)
67
NDM resistance is present in all of the following EXCEPT: a. Enterobacterales b. Morganella morganii c. Pseudomonas aeruginoas d. Acinetobacter spp
b. Morganella morganii
68
OXA-type resistant is primarily found in which 2 bacteria? (underlined)
Acinetobacter baumannii Pseudomonas aeruginosa
69
tx option if OXA-48 enzyme is present (2 listed)
cefiderocol sulbactam/durlobactam
70
T or F: carbapenem-resistant Enterobacterales (CRE) means carbapenemases are present
F (can be CRE through efflux pumps, porins)
71
JM is a 45 YOM admitted with fever, chills, urinary frequency and urgency. Blood cultures are collected and 12 hour after admission rapid diagnostic testing identifies E.coli, CTX-M (+) in 4/4 bottles. What type of antibiotic resistance is present? a. Non-CP CRE b. ESBL c. NDM d. KPC
b. ESBL
72
JM is a 45 YOM admitted with fever, chills, urinary frequency and urgency. Blood cultures are collected and 12 hour after admission rapid diagnostic testing identifies E.coli, CTX-M (+) in 4/4 bottles. What is their recommended tx option? a) Meropenem b) Meropenem/vaborbactam c) Aztreonam + Ceftazidime/avibactam d) Piperacillin/tazobactam
a) Meropenem (CTX-M is present in ESBL resistance. Carbapenem is tx option)
73
AmpC most important resistance mechanism
inducible via chromosomally encoded AmpC genes
74
AmpC is found in which bacteria? (acronym)
HECK-YES Ma'am Hafnia alvei Enterobacter cloacae Citrobacter freundii Klebsiella aerogenes Yersinia enterocolitica Serratia marcescens Morganella morganii Aeromonas hydrophila
75
AmpC induction mechanism: Gene for beta-lactamase production is _______ -> inducer -> gene _______ -> inc beta-lactamase production Remove inducer -> gene _______ -> beta-lactamase production back to low level Genetic mutation -> gene _______ -> _______ _______ -> high level beta-lactamase production continuously
repressed; derepressed repressed derepressed; stable derepression
76
weak AmpC inducer bolded on slide a. Penicillin G b. Cefazolin c. Aztreonam d. Ceftriaxone
d. Ceftriaxone
77
1st line tx for stably depressed mutants a. Ceftriaxone b. Cefepime c. Cephalexin d. Levofloxacin
b. Cefepime
78
JH is a 65 YOM admitted with pyelonephritis (infection in the kidney) and started on IV ceftriaxone. However, he soon develops a fever and becomes hypotensive. Blood cultures are taken and result for E. cloacae. What could explain his sudden decompensation? a) E. cloacae harbors an ESBL gene and this was induced with ceftriaxone tx b) E. cloacae harbors a KPC gene and this was induced with ceftriaxone tx c) E. cloacae harbors an AmpC gene and this was induced with ceftriaxone tx d) E. cloacae harbors a NDM gene and this was induced with ceftriaxone tx
c) E. cloacae harbors an AmpC gene and this was induced with ceftriaxone tx
79
JH is a 65 YOM admitted with pyelonephritis (infection in the kidney) and started on IV ceftriaxone. However, he soon develops a fever and becomes hypotensive. Blood cultures are taken and result for E. cloacae. What antibiotic change would you recommend? a) Switch to Piperacillin/tazobactam b) Switch to Cefepime c) Switch to Ceftazidime d) Switch to Aztreonam
b) Switch to Cefepime (tx for stably depressed mutants from AmpC induction)
80
mechanism of vancomycin resistance in Enterococci species a. altered target site: PBPs b. altered target site: cell wall precursor c. altered target site: ribosomal target d. altered target site: DNA gyrase/topo IV
b. altered target site: cell wall precursor
81
most common method of aminoglycoside resistance
aminoglycoside-modifying enzymes
82
3 mechanisms for aminoglycoside-modifying enzymes
acetylation nucleotidylation phosphorylation
83
which of the following is NOT a mechanism for aminoglycoside-modifying enzymes? a. adenylation b. acetylation c. phosphorylation d. nucleotidylation
a. adenylation
84
two genes for vanc resistance
VanA and VanB
85
What is the mechanism of Staphylococcus aureus resistance to beta-lactams? a) mecA gene b) VanA gene c) ermB gene d) KPC gene
a) mecA gene (methicillin resistant staph aureus = MRSA)
86
MRSA resistance is due to expression of which gene? What does this gene encode for?
mecA; encodes for PBP2A
87
efflux pumps are an Important resistance mechanism for _____ _____ against carbapenems & _____ _____ against macrolide antibiotics
Pseudomonas aeruginosa Streptococcus pneumoniae
88
mutations that result in the loss of porins is most commonly seen with _______ and carbapenem-resistant _______ _______
Enterobacterales Pseudomonas aeruginosa
89
which antibiotic class includes ADP-ribosylation as a resistance mechanism? a. beta-lactams b. glycopeptides c. macrolides d. fluoroquinolones e. rifamycins
e. rifamycins
90
AUC definition a. Highest drug concentration b. Overall drug exposure over a certain time c. Minimum inhibitory concentrations
b. Overall drug exposure over a certain time
91
3 main PK/PD indices
1. Cmax/MIC 2. AUC/MIC 3. fT>MIC
92
Continued growth inhibition for a variable period after concentration at site of infection has decreased below MIC a. Cmax b. PAE c. MIC d. AUC
b. PAE (post antibiotic effect)
93
Time that free drug concentrations remain above MIC is known as ______ which correlates with clinical and microbiological outcomes
ft>MIC
94
fT>MIC penicillin: ___% fT>MIC cephalosporin: ___-___% fT>MIC carbapenem: ___%
50% 60-70% 40%
95
4 strategies to maximize fT/MIC of beta-lactams
1. inc dose, same interval 2. same dose, shorter interval 3. continuous infusion (stability issues; need IV) 4. prolonged infusions (3-4 hours, longer T>MIC)
96
PD target for Vancomycin
AUC0-24/MIC
97
goal AUC/MIC for vancomycin
400-600
98
Which of the following describes the PK/PD parameters of meropenem? a) Time-dependent antibiotic; fT>MIC 40% of the dosing interval b) Concentration dependent antibiotic; fAUC/MIC c) Time-dependent antibiotic; fT>MIC 80% of the dosing interval d) Concentration dependent antibiotic; Cmax/MIC
a) Time-dependent antibiotic; fT>MIC 40% of the dosing interval
99
T or F: all beta-lactam antibiotics (penicillin, cephalosporin, carbapenem, monobactam) are time-dependent
T
100
which of the following are time-dependent? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY a. aminoglycosides b. beta-lactams c. daptomycin d. fluoroquinolones e. vancomycin
b. beta-lactams e. vancomycin
101
which of the following are concentration-dependent? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY a. aminoglycosides b. beta-lactams c. daptomycin d. fluoroquinolones e. vancomycin
a. aminoglycosides c. daptomycin d. fluoroquinolones
102
is daptomycin time or concentration dependent?
concentration
103
aminoglycosides 2 predictive PK/PD parameters
Peak/MIC AUC/MIC
104
beta-lactams predictive PK parameter a. T>MIC b. Peak/MIC c. AUC/MIC
a. T>MIC
105
fluroquinolones and vancomycin predictive PK parameter a. T>MIC b. Peak/MIC c. AUC0-24/MIC
c. AUC0-24/MIC