Exam 6 - Toxicology Howell Flashcards

(59 cards)

1
Q

most medication overdoses in adults are due to

a. analgesics
b. antidepressants
c. CV drugs
d. household cleaning substances

A

a. analgesics

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2
Q

Difference between primary measured cations and primary measured anions

a. anion gap
b. osmolar gap

A

a. anion gap

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3
Q

anion gap is present if > ____

a. 10
b. 14
c. 5
d. 2

A

b. 14

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4
Q

osmolar gap is present if > ____

a. 10
b. 14
c. 5
d. 2

A

a. 10

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5
Q

used for whole bowel irrigation

a. activated charcoal
b. golytely
c. hemodialysis

A

b. golytely

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6
Q

hemodialysis is NOT effective for the which of the following medication overdose?

a. alcohols
b. lithium
c. salicylates
d. digoxin
e. theophylline

A

d. digoxin

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7
Q

antidote for salicylate poisoning

a. sodium bicarbonate
b. flumazenil
c. benztropine
d. digibind

A

a. sodium bicarbonate

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8
Q

sodium bicarbonate MOA when used as antidote for salicylates

a. urine alkalinization
b. inc sodium gradient of poisoned sodium channels
c. binds free drug and tissue bound drug released during equlibrium state
d. blocks parasympathetic activity to inc heart rate

A

a. urine alkalinization

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9
Q

which is NOT an indication to use sodium bicarbonate in salicylate poisoning?

a. serum salicylate level > 20
b. anion gap metabolic acidosis
c. altered mental status

A

a. serum salicylate level > 20

(> 30)

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10
Q

which type of toxicity is being described?
-CNS depression
-respiratory depression
-bradycardia
-hypotension

a. salicylate
b. sedatives
c. TCAs
d. antipsychotics

A

b. sedatives

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11
Q

which type of toxicity is being described?
-N/V
-tinnitus and diaphoresis
-decreased GI motility
-hyperventilation
-seizures

a. salicylate
b. sedatives
c. TCAs
d. antipsychotics

A

a. salicylate

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12
Q

which type of toxicity is being described?
-hypotension
-anticholinergic sx
-tachycardia
-seizures
-prolonged QRS

a. salicylate
b. sedatives
c. TCAs
d. antipsychotics

A

c. TCAs

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13
Q

flumazenil MOA

A

competes with BZDs at BZD binding site of GABA complex

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14
Q

T or F: flumazenil should be used in patients with seizures

A

F

(if pt has seizure history she does not recommend using flumazenil)

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15
Q

which of the following is FALSE about TCAs pharmacokinetics?

a. initially is rapidly absorbed from the GI tract
b. half-life = 4-93 hours
c. highly lipophobic
d. acidemia increases the percentage of unbound TCA

A

c. highly lipophobic

(lipophilic)

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16
Q

TCAs effects of QRS prolongation: QRS interval > 150 msec

a. inc risk of seizure activity
b. inc risk of cardiac arrhythmias
c. promotes unbinding of drug from proteins

A

b. inc risk of cardiac arrhythmias

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17
Q

TCAs effects of QRS prolongation: QRS interval > 100 msec

a. inc risk of seizure activity
b. inc risk of cardiac arrhythmias
c. promotes unbinding of drug from proteins

A

a. inc risk of seizure activity

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18
Q

TCAs effects of QRS prolongation: metabolic acidosis

a. inc risk of seizure activity
b. inc risk of cardiac arrhythmias
c. promotes unbinding of drug from proteins

A

c. promotes unbinding of drug from proteins

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19
Q

sodium bicarbonate MOA when used as antidote for TCAs

a. urine alkalinization
b. inc sodium gradient of poisoned sodium channels
c. binds free drug and tissue bound drug released during equlibrium state
d. blocks parasympathetic activity to inc heart rate

A

b. inc sodium gradient of poisoned sodium channels

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20
Q

which of the following is NOT an indication of sodium bicarbonate for TCA poisoning?

a. QRS interval > 100 msec
b. TCA induced arrhythmias or hypotension
c. metabolic alkalosis

A

c. metabolic alkalosis

(acidosis)

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21
Q

we can d/c sodium bicarbonate for TCA poisoning when:
QRS < ____ msec
Resolution of ____ abnormalities
_______ stable

A

< 100
ECG
hemodynamically

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22
Q

TCAs seizure management: what 2 drugs/classes are most commonly used? (one is a class; slide 41)

A

BZDs
phenobarbital

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23
Q

first gen antipsychotics

a. D2 antagonism
b. 5HT2A/D2 antagonism

A

a. D2 antagonism

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24
Q

second gen antipsychotics

a. D2 antagonism
b. 5HT2A/D2 antagonism

A

b. 5HT2A/D2 antagonism

25
haloperidol, fluphenazine, chlorpromazine a. typical b. atypical
a. typical
26
aripiprazole, clozapine, olanzapine a. typical b. atypical
b. atypical
27
which type of toxicity is being described? -hypotension -tachycardia -QT/QRS prolongation -neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) -extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) a. salicylate b. sedatives c. TCAs d. antipsychotics
d. antipsychotics
28
two drugs for extrapyramidal symptoms (no doses)
-benztropine -diphenhydramine
29
benztropine route of administration for extrapyramidal symptoms a. oral b. IV c. IM d. subQ
c. IM
30
which of the following is TRUE about the treatment of extrapyramidal symptoms? a. benztropine onset is 5 minutes b. diphenhydramine onset is 15-20 minutes c. diphenhydramine 1-2 mg/kg IV/IM should be given over several hours d. diphenhydramine should be continued with oral therapy for 3-4 days
d. diphenhydramine should be continued with oral therapy for 3-4 days (a. is 15-20 min; b. is 5 min; c. is several minutes)
31
which of the following is TRUE about neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)? a. fever up to 104 F with vision problems b. caused by antipsychotics c. occur 3-6 hours after initiating therapy or adding a 2nd agent d. pts are often over 50 years of age and more often in females e. complications typically continue for 12 hours
b. caused by antipsychotics (a. is 108 F with altered mental status and muscular rigidity; c. is 3-9 days; d. is less than 40 and males; e. is 5-10 days)
32
tx of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (3 drugs; no doses)
-BZDs -dantrolene -bromocriptine
33
which of the following drugs is NOT used as tx for NMS? a. BZDs b. dantrolene c. bromocriptine d. cyproheptadine
d. cyproheptadine
34
initial and maintenance dose of dantrolene for NMS
initial: 2.5 mg/kg to a max of 10 mg/kg maintenance: 2.5 mg/kg Q6H until resolved
35
bromocriptine dose for NMS
2.5 mg BID initially, inc to 5 mg TID (doses as high as 60 mg/day have been used)
36
serotonin syndrome triad of symptoms
-altered mental status -autonomic instability -neuromuscular abnormalities
37
serotonin syndrome develops within ____ hours of an inc in the precipitating medication
6
38
which of the following drugs is used as tx for serotonin syndrome? a. dantrolene b. cyproheptadine c. bromocriptine d. allopurinol
b. cyproheptadine
39
cyproheptadine dose and frequency for serotonin syndrome a. 2 mg PO Q2H; max dose 16 mg b. 2 mg PO Q1H; max dose 32 mg c. 4 mg PO Q1H; max dose 16 mg d. 4 mg PO Q1H; max dose 32 mg
c. 4 mg PO Q1H; max dose 16 mg
40
which of the following is FALSE about serotonin syndrome vs NMS? a. SS lasts < 24 hours b. SS has a lower fever c. NMS involves diffuse lead pipe rigidity d. SS affects upper limbs more than lower limbs
d. SS affects upper limbs more than lower limbs (other way around)
41
for digoxin toxicity, administer _______ _______ if presentation within 2 hours of ingestion
activated charcoal
42
digibind indications (4)
-Ventricular arrhythmias, bradycardia/2nd or 3rd degree heart block not responsive to atropine -Hyperkalemia (K > 5.5) with s/sx of toxicity -Serum digoxin concentrations > 10-15 ng/mL drawn at least 6 hours after time of ingestion -Ingestion > 10 mg in adults, > 4 mg in children
43
digoxin immune fab (Digibind) MOA
binds free digoxin and tissue bound digoxin released during equilibrium state
44
each vial of digibind binds ____ mg of digoxin a. 0.25 b. 0.5 c. 1 d. 2
b. 0.5
45
Digibind formula based on acute ingestion of known amount
-TBL = mg digoxin ingested * 0.8 -TBL/0.5 mg = # Digibind vials to administer
46
Digibind formula based on serum digoxin conc in adults
# Digibind vials = (digoxin conc (ng/mL) * pt's wt (kg))/100
47
T or F: digoxin toxicity only occurs with acute ingestion
F (acute and chronic)
48
CCB and BB toxicities: Bypasses beta receptor and acts directly on Gs to stimulate conversion of ATP to cAMP a. atropine b. calcium c. glucagon d. high dose insulin e. lipid emulsion
c. glucagon
49
CCB and BB toxicities: Enters open voltage sensitive calcium channels to promote calcium release from sarcoplasmic reticulum resulting in myocardial contractility a. atropine b. calcium c. glucagon d. high dose insulin e. lipid emulsion
b. calcium (calcium chloride or gluconate)
50
CCB and BB toxicities: Increased inotropy and increased intracellular glucose transport a. atropine b. calcium c. glucagon d. high dose insulin e. lipid emulsion
d. high dose insulin
51
CCB and BB toxicities: Limits bioavailability of lipophilic medication by creating a “lipid sink” a. atropine b. calcium c. glucagon d. high dose insulin e. lipid emulsion
e. lipid emulsion
52
CCB and BB toxicities: blocks parasympathetic activity to inc heart rate a. atropine b. calcium c. glucagon d. high dose insulin e. lipid emulsion
a. atropine
53
vasodilatory shock a. norepinephrine b. epinephrine
a. norepinephrine
54
cardiogenic shock a. norepinephrine b. epinephrine
b. epinephrine
55
we may need to premedicate glucagon with _______ and add PRN regimen due to N/V a. ethambutol b. ondansetron c. promethazine d. metoclopramide
b. ondansetron
56
lipid emulsion therapy max total dose
10 mL/kg
57
T or F: activated charcoal is effective for iron toxicity
F
58
iron toxicity antidote a. atropine b. deferoxamine c. norepinephrine d. flumazenil
b. deferoxamine
59
deferoxamine dosing: start at ____ mg/kg/hour; may increase to ____ mg/kg/hour if severe poisoning
15; 45