Exam I Flashcards
1
Q
The general functions of epithelium.
A
Absorption, secretion, and to provide a barrier
2
Q
Sensory functions of epithelium would most likely be found where?
A
Taste buds, retina in the eye
3
Q
Basic characteristics of shared among epithelial types.
A
Cells are adjacent to one another, associated with complete/partial basement membranes, avascular, associated with vascular connective tissue, held together by cell junctions
4
Q
Which part of the basement membrane is produced by epithelium?
A
Basal lamina
5
Q
Which part of the basement membrane is produced by fibroblasts in connective tissue?
A
Reticular lamina
6
Q
Basal lamina is produced by:
A
Epithelium
7
Q
Reticular lamina is produced by:
A
Fibroblasts in connective tissue
8
Q
A partial basement membrane is composed of:
A
Basal lamina only
9
Q
Functions of a basement membrane.
A
Provides a surface for epithelial cell attachment, molecular filter, limits stretch, directs migration of cells
10
Q
How do epithelial cells obtain nutrition?
A
Diffusion
11
Q
Functions of connective tissue.
A
Provide nutrition and a source of defensive cells
12
Q
Which cell junction is called a tight junction?
A
Zonula occludens
13
Q
These junctions involve the sharing of intrinsic membrane proteins between adjacent cells.
A
Zonula occludens (tight junctions)
14
Q
Two functions of tight junctions.
A
Provide strong attachments and prevent passage of materials between cells
15
Q
Which cell junction is called an adhesion belt?
A
Zonula adherens
16
Q
Cadherins and marginal bands are found in which cell junction?
A
Zonula adherens (adhesion belt)
17
Q
Functions of zonula adherens.
A
Provide strong attachments and cell structural stability
18
Q
Which cell junction is called a desmosome?
A
Macula adherens
19
Q
In which cell junction will you find proteins arranged in a cylinder?
A
Gap junctions
20
Q
Functions of gap junctions.
A
Provide strong attachment and transport materials between cells
21
Q
Which cell junction allows transport of materials between cells?
A
Gap junctions
22
Q
Which junction helps to connect epithelial cells to the basal lamina?
A
Hemidesmosomes
23
Q
Which junction uses integrin to bind to structural CT glycoproteins and also connects to the cytoskeleton?
A
Focal point contacts
24
Q
Which clinical consideration of cell junctions is not an autoimmune disease, but instead caused by bacterial infection?
A
Cholera
25
Which clinical consideration of cell junctions causes large, blistering lesions that burst, but do heal?
Bullous pemphigoid
26
Which clinical consideration of cell junctions causes skin blistering that doesn't heal easily, with excessive bleeding and can be fatal?
Pemphigus vulgaris
27
This disease is caused by antibodies that bind to some parts of desmosomes.
Pemphigus vulgaris
28
This disease is caused by toxins that disrupt proteins in the zonula occludens.
Cholera
29
This disease is caused by antibodies that bind to some proteins in hemidesmosomes.
Bullous pemphigoid
30
Epithelium that is a single layer thick is termed:
Simple epithelium
31
Epithelium found in the lung, parietal layer of Bowman's capsule and serosa on the outside of organs is most likely what type?
Simple squamous
32
Functions of simple squamous epithelium.
Living filter, provide a barrier
33
Epithelium found in the exocrine ducts, thyroid cells, and kidney tubules is most likely what type?
Simple cuboidal
34
Functions of simple cuboidal epithelium.
Absorption, secretion, provide a barrier
35
Epithelium found in the stomach, small intestines, gall bladder and larger exocrine ducts is most likely what type?
Simple columnar
36
Functions of simple columnar epithelium.
Absorption, secretion, provide a barrier
37
Epithelium found in the trachea, respiratory region of nasal cavity and bronchi is most likely what type?
Ciliated pseudostratified columnar
38
The 3 cell types associated with ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium.
Goblet cells, ciliated columnar cells, and basal cells
39
Function of goblet cells.
Produce mucus
40
Function of ciliated columnar cells.
Move mucus over the surface
41
Function of basal cells.
To be the stem cell for CPSC epithelium
42
Finger-like projections at the apical surface on some epithelial cells are called:
Microvilli
43
Microvilli are also called:
A brushborder or a striated border
44
Function of microvilli.
To increase surface area to increase absorption
45
Location of microvilli.
Kidney tubule cells and small intestines
46
Extremely long microvilli that aren't related to true cilia are called:
Stereocilia
47
Location of stereocilia.
Epididymis and cochlear hair cells
48
Thin, apical hair-like extensions of the cytoskeleton are termed:
Cilia
49
What are two points about cells with cilia?
Cells have many mitochondria and basal bodies block the free surface so there is no absorption or secretion.
50
Location of cilia.
Trachea and fallopian tube (oviduct)
51
The surface layer of glycoproteins and carbs that covers some epithelium is termed:
Glycocalyx
52
The glycocalyx is produced by:
Epithelium
53
Functions of the glycocalyx.
Protection and cell recognition
54
Location of glycocalyx.
Stomach and small intestines
55
Epithelium that is two or more cell layers thick is called:
Stratified epithelium
56
Function of stratified squamous epithelium.
Protection from abrasion/friction
57
Location of stratified squamous epithelium.
Esophagus, oral cavity, tongue and vagina
58
Problems/limitations of stratified squamous epithelium.
No protection from drying and limited thickness
59
Location of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.
Skin
60
Function of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.
Protection in a dry environment
61
Which epithelial layer in the skin is the uppermost 2-5 layers that exocytose lipid-filled lamellar granules?
Stratum granulosum
62
Which epithelial layer in the skin contains mitotic keratinocytes and is closest to the dermis?
Stratum basale
63
Which epithelial layer in the skin is present only in thick skin and is very difficult to see?
Stratum lucidum
64
Which epithelial layer in the skin produces lipids and keratohyaline vacuoles?
Stratum spinosum
65
Functions of the stratum corneum.
Prevents water loss, provides a barrier to microbes and protects against abrasion
66
Which cells protect against UV radiation?
Melanocytes
67
Melanocytes are found in which skin epithelial layer?
Stratum basale
68
Darker pigments in the skin are due to the presence of:
Eumelanin
69
Reddish pigments in the skin are due to the presence of:
Pheomelanin
70
Which cells recognize and process external foreign antigens (aka APCs)?
Langerhans cells
71
Langerhans cells are found in which skin epithelial layer?
Stratum spinosum
72
Merkel cells are found in which epithelial layer of the skin?
Stratum basale
73
When exposed to UV light, melanocytes increase/decrease, while Langerhans cells increase/decrease.
Increase; decrease
74
Which type of epithelium would most likely be found in the larger ducts of sweat glands and salivary glands?
Stratified cuboidal
75
Which type of epithelium would most likely be found in the larger ducts in the pancreas, parts of the male urethra, and conjunctiva of the eye?
Stratified columnar
76
Location of transitional (urinary) epithelium?
Most of the urinary tract
77
Transitional epithelium has several specializations including:
Thin, fenestrated basement membrane, large superficial cells and a well-developed zonula occludens
78
Why is having a well-developed zonula occludens important?
Due to fenestrated basement membrane and prevents waste/urine from seeping between cells
79
What is an unusual feature found in transitional epithelium?
Some binucleated superficial cells
80
Patchy skin lesions, accumulation of cells in stratum corneum, and inflammation in dermal papillae are all indicative of:
Psoriasis vulgaris
81
An increase in melanin without an increase in melanocyte numbers would present as:
Freckles
82
Patches that lack melanocytes would be termed:
Vitiligo
83
Discoloration due to a proliferation of melanocytes would be termed:
Moles
84
What disease is associated with mitotically active melanocytes that invade the dermis?
Malignant melanoma
85
Albinism occurs when:
Melanocytes fail to produce melanin.
86
The most common form of albinism occurs when:
Tyrosinase is missing from melanocytes. When present, converts tyrosine to melanin.
87
The method of secretion by which the product is released into a duct or directly onto an epithelial surface is termed:
Exocrine secretion
88
The method of secretion where secretory product is released into nearby CT for vascular dispersal to targets is termed:
Endocrine secretion
89
Two components of exocrine secretion.
Parenchyma and stroma
90
What is the most common method of secretion? Where is it located?
Merocrine; goblet cells, salivary glands, pancreas, sweat glands
91
Which method of secretion is associated with odor?
Holocrine and apocrine
92
Location of holocrine secretion.
Sebaceous glands, tarsal (Meibomian) glands of eyelid
93
Which method of secretion secretes cytoplasm, membranes and in-tact vacuoles?
Apocrine
94
Location of apocrine secretion.
Lactating mammary glands, sweat glands, ceruminous glands and ciliary (Moll's) glands in eyelid
95
The smallest division of a gland or group of cells surrounding a cavity is termed:
Acinus
96
A small group of serous cells attached to a mucus acinus is called:
Serous demilune
97
Contractile cells that wrap around acini and assist in secretion are called:
Myoepithelial cells
98
Location of myoepithelial cells.
Salivary/sweat glands, lacrimal glands, and lactating mammary glands
99
Serous glands produce:
Proteins
100
Location of serous glands.
Pancreas, parotid gland, chief cells in the stomach
101
Mucus glands produce:
Mucus
102
Location of mucus glands.
Goblet cells, mucous cells in stomach, minor salivary glands in tongue and palate
103
Mixed glands produce:
Serous and mucus
104
Location of mixed glands.
Sublingual and submandibular salivary glands
105
How is exocrine secretion regulated?
Myoepithelial cells, hormones, blood supply
106
Which subtype of endocrine secretion occurs when the signaling cell is its own target?
Autocrine
107
Which subtype of endocrine secretion occurs when the signaling cell is close to the target cell, so the hormone doesn't enter the blood?
Paracrine
108
How is endocrine secretion regulated?
Hormones and the ANS
109
General functions of CT.
Provide structural support, provide a medium for exchange, defense/protection, storage of adipose
110
Most CT is derived from:
Mesenchyme
111
Ground substance is composed of:
GAGs, proteoglycans and adhesive glycoproteins
112
The important general trait of GAGs is that they are:
Hydrophilic
113
Examples of sulfated GAGs.
Keratan sulfate, chondroitin sulfate, heparin sulfate and dermatin sulfate
114
Examples of non-sulfated GAGs.
Hyaluronic acid (Hyaluronan)
115
Which type of GAG allows for diffusion in tissues by holding water?
Non-sulfated (Hyaluronic acid)
116
Positive aspects of inflammation include:
Increased fluidity will aid cell movement and increased numbers of defensive cells.
117
Negative aspects of inflammation include:
Excessive swelling can damage BVs, nerves and cells
118
What are examples of adhesive glycoproteins?
Laminin and fibronectin
119
What disease is associated with improperly produced collagen I?
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome and scurvy
120
What disease is associated with underdeveloped elastic fibers?
Marfan's syndrome
121
Which type of fiber is not affected by aging and is the first fiber produced during wound healing?
Reticular
122
Reticular fibers are the same as:
Collagen III
123
Which cells in CT are derived from mesenchyme cells?
Fibroblasts
124
Functions of fibroblasts.
Structural- produce and maintain matrix/healing
| Defensive- produce cytokines/phagocytosis
125
Mature, less active fibroblasts that maintain tissue are called:
Fibrocytes
126
Fibrocytes produce:
HA, ground substance and ventricular fibers
127
Fibrocytes cannot produce:
Collagen I and elastic fibers
128
Myofibroblasts primarily function during:
Wound healing and tooth eruption
129
Which CT cell type produces leptin?
Adipocytes
130
Which CT cell type is derived from B lymphocytes, have a "clock-faced" nucleus and produces immunoglobulins?
Plasma cells
131
Which CT cell type is derived from monocytes?
Macrophages
132
Functions of macrophages.
Phagocytosis of debris and microbes, act as an APC, create foreign body giant cells, release cytokines
133
Which CT cell type is derived from bone marrow precursors and contain basophils?
Mast cells
134
Functions of mast cells.
Mediate inflammation/IHR/anaphylaxis/asthma and to release primary and secondary mediators
135
What are the primary mediators?
Histamine, heparin, ECF and NCF
136
What are the secondary mediators?
Leukotrienes
137
Which primary mediator is the "on switch?"
Histamine
138
Which primary mediator is the "off switch?"
Heparin
139
What stimuli will activate mast cells?
Trauma, phagocytosis, IgE-allergen complex and complement process
140
Which cells are produced when IgE formation is elicited?
Memory cells (B and T)
141
Anaphylaxis is stimulated by massive production of:
IgG
142
Immediate hypersensitivity response is stimulated by:
IgE-allergen complex
143
The primary problem of asthma is the release of:
Leukotrienes
144
Secondary difficulties of asthma are caused by:
Inflammation in the lungs
145
Which leukocyte is attracted to sites of acute inflammation?
Neutrophils
146
Which leukocyte is attracted to sites of allergic inflammation?
Eosinophils
147
Which leukocyte is attracted to sites of chronic inflammation?
Lymphocytes
148
Adult stem cells that change into another cell type are called:
Mesenchyme cells
149
Reticular cells function to make _____ when needed on a permanent basis.
Reticular fibers
150
Loose areolar tissue is found in:
Greater and lesser omenta and around BVs
151
Loose irregular tissue is found in:
Dermis- papillary layer and beneath epithelium in organs
152
Dense irregular tissue is found in:
Dermis- reticular layer, nerve sheaths, and organ capsules
153
Dense regular tissue is found in:
Tendons, ligaments and aponeuroses
154
An important adipokine produced by white adipose is:
Leptin
155
Major functions of leptin.
Inhibit appetite and regulate formation of new adipocytes
156
White adipose tissue stores large amounts of _____ to break down triglycerides.
Lipase
157
What is the function of brown adipose?
Thermogenesis
158
Increased _____ and _____ should lead to an increase in healing potential.
Cell types and vascularity
159
3 types of specialized CT.
Cartilage, bone and blood
160
Surface protections, such as keratin on the skin and acidic environments in the vagina, are examples of _____ immunity.
Innate
161
Acute inflammation, such as non-specific processes (neutrophil/macrophage/eosinophil movement) is an example of _____ immunity.
Innate
162
A form of acquired immunity mediated by B cells and plasma cells is called:
Humoral immunity
163
A form of acquired immunity mediated by T lymphocytes, and doesn't depend on B lymphocyte participation is called:
Cell-Mediated immunity
164
Humoral immunity usually occurs in response to _____, while cell-mediated immunity occurs in response to _____.
Bacteria; Viruses/fungi/foreign cells
165
Which form of acquired immunity is a cytotoxic response?
Cell-mediated immunity
166
Humoral immunity and an incomplete capsule are characteristics of:
Diffuse lymphatics
167
Humoral and cell-mediated immunities, as well as the presence of a capsule, are characteristics of:
Lymphatic organs
168
Locations of MALT.
Gastrointestinal tract, respiratory tract, and urogenital tract
169
Which antibody is secreted by MALT?
IgA
170
Locations of GALT.
Gastrointestinal tract (Peyer's patches in ileum)
171
Locations of BALT.
Lymph nodules in the respiratory tract (commonly form when air tubes bifurcate)
172
Which type of tonsil is associated with epithelial folds (pleated tonsils)?
Pharyngeal tonsils
173
When pharyngeal tonsils become inflamed they are called:
Adenoids
174
Which type of tonsil is associated with tonsilar crypts?
Palatine tonsils
175
Palatine tonsils are also called:
Faucial tonsils
176
Palatine tonsils exhibit which type of surface epithelium?
Stratified squamous
177
Tonsils located in the dorsal posterior 1/3 of the tongue that exhibit stratified squamous epithelium are called:
Lingual tonsils
178
The tonsillar ring around the openings to the digestive and respiratory systems is called:
Waldeyer's ring
179
Major functions of lymph nodes.
Filtration of lymph using phagocytosis and establish humoral/cell-mediated immunities
180
The first sinus to receive afferent lymph is called the:
Subcapsular sinus (marginal sinus)
181
The primary cell type of the cortex is _____ and exhibits _____ immunity.
B lymphocytes; humoral
182
The primary cell type of the paracortex is _____ and exhibits _____ immunity.
T lymphocytes; cell-mediated
183
HEVs are lined with _____ cells and is an important cross-over point between _____ and _____.
Cuboid cells; blood and lymph
184
The primary cell type of the medulla is:
Plasma cells
185
Thymus involution begins first in the _____, second in the _____ and third in the _____.
Septa; cortex; medulla
186
The formation of thymic corpuscles (Hassall's bodies) occurs in the:
Medulla
187
Function of thymic corpuscles.
Secrete cytokines to influence dendritic cells and development of some T cells
188
What prevents T cells from physically contacting foreign antigens?
Blood thymic barrier
189
TEC types I, II and III are found in the _____, while TEC types IV, V, and VI are found in the _____.
Cortex; medulla
190
What is lacking in the thymus?
Afferent lymph vessels, reticular cells and reticular fibers
191
The spleen stores large numbers of:
Monocytes
192
The general function of white pulp is:
Immunity
193
Function of red pulp.
Rapid blood filtration and allows contact with blood-borne foreign antigens
194
Long-term storage of T cells occurs where?
Periarteriolar lymphoid sheaths (PALS)
195
Location of reticular fibers.
Liver, bone marrow, and lymph nodes
