Exam Practice Test 1

Question 1

In the triple vulnerability model of anxiety, negative affectivity is:

A. feeling enthusiastic, active and alert.
B. feeling sad and lethargic.
C. subjective distress involving anxiety, disgust and anger.
D. feeling grumpy and irritable.

Answer 1

C

Question 2

What changes to the diagnostic criteria for GAD were enacted in the DSM-5?

A. Removed the criterion that worry should be difficult to control.
B. No changes were made in the DSM-5.
C. Excessive anxiety and worry must be present for three, rather than six, months.
D. Reduced the number of associated symptoms.

Answer 2

B

Question 3

In the DSM-5, dysthymic disorder has been renamed as:

A. depressive personality disorder.
B. low-level chronic depressive disorder.
C. persistent depressive disorder.
D. mood dysregulation disorder.

Answer 3

C

Question 4

Postnatal depression is a:

A. brief period of depression after childbirth, occurring in 70 per cent of women.
B. less common but serious disorder after childbirth.
C. mild long-term condition, involving low mood, which does not meet the criteria for depression.
D. type of depression that does not respond to medication.

Answer 4

B

Question 5

The family communication style known as high expressed emotion (HEE) entails high levels of all of the following except:

A. support.
B. criticism.
C. hostility.
D. over-involvement.

Answer 5

A

Question 6

When treating someone with a bipolar disorder, a cognitive behaviour therapist would not expect to:

A. identify maladaptive thoughts and behaviour patterns.
B. alleviate acute symptoms.
C. reduce relapse rates.
D. cure the disorder.

Answer 6

D

Question 7

Which of the following options is not typically a reason why patients with bipolar disorder are admitted to a psychiatric unit?

A. If they pose a risk to themselves.
B. If they are experiencing psychosis.
C. If they are showing signs of disturbed sleep.
D. If they are resisting treatment.

Answer 7

C

Question 8

Which of the following is a change to the PTSD diagnosis in the DSM-5?

A. Acute stress disorder was added to the DSM-5.
B. The diagnosis of PTSD could be made following events that caused shock but were not life threatening.
C. The cluster group involving negative alterations in cognitions and mood was removed.
D. The term ‘traumatic stress’ was extended to include reactions such as guilt, anger and shame.

Answer 8

D

Question 9

The main reason for the removal of OCD from the anxiety chapter in the DSM-5 was:

A. to reflect that OCD, hair pulling, hoarding and skin picking are related in diagnosis and treatment.
B. to provide more space in the DSM for the diagnosis of hair pulling, hoarding and skin picking.
C. to reflect that OCD is not related to anxiety disorders.
D. to more accurately reflect the distinction between OCD and psychotic disorders.

Answer 9

A

Question 10

Research supports the view that obsessional thoughts experienced by OCD sufferers are no different from those experienced by the general population. However, in OCD sufferers:

A. the obsessional thoughts are very negative.
B. the obsessional thoughts are very aggressive and/or sexual in nature.
C. the obsessional thoughts are awarded a special significance.
D. the obsessional thoughts arise ‘out of the blue’.

Answer 10

C

Question 11

The DSM-5 includes avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder. The key feature is:

A. amenorrhoea.
B. an intense fear of weight gain.
C. an eating disturbance where nutritional needs are not met.
D. All of the given options are correct.

Answer 11

C

Question 12

Preliminary studies have suggested that motivational enhancement therapy:

A. improves self-esteem and motivation.
B. decreases self-esteem and motivation.
C. improves self-esteem but decreases motivation.
D. decreases self-esteem but increases motivation.

Answer 12

A

Question 13

Which of the following would exclude an individual from meeting DSM-5 criteria for binge eating disorder?

A. binge eating for a period of more than three months
B. eating alone during binges
C. becoming distressed by his/her binge eating
D. meeting criteria for anorexia or bulimia

Answer 13

D

Question 14

Substance use disorders cluster in families because:

A. relatives of individuals with substance abuse are more likely to suffer from the disorder.
B. substance use disorders have a strong genetic component.
C. children model their substance use on their parents’ behaviour and environment.
D. All of the options given are correct.

Answer 14

D

Question 15

For each year that first use of alcohol is delayed, the risk of developing alcohol use disorder decreases. However, this may be due to:

A. conduct disorder.
B. availability of alcohol and drugs to young people.
C. increase in self-harm behaviour during youth.
D. reduction in peer pressure.

Answer 15

A

Question 16

In the DSM-5, pathological gambling is renamed as:

A. gambling disorder.
B. a personality disorder.
C. an impulse control disorder.
D. a mood disorder.

Answer 16

A

Question 17

Which of the following is not a typical feature of borderline personality disorder?

A. emotional instability
B. lack of sense of self or identity
C. impulsivity
D. arrogance

Answer 17

D

Question 18

The prevalence of personality disorders:

A. differs between cultures but is stable over time.
B. varies over time but not between cultures.
C. varies between cultures and over time.
D. does not vary between cultures or over time.

Answer 18

C

Question 19

Young’s schema therapy model of personality development suggests that early maladaptive schemas:

A. develop in childhood and are strengthened by adult relationships.
B. develop in adult life and are strengthened by substance abuse.
C. develop in childhood as a result of biological and interpersonal factors.
D. develop in childhood but are expressed in young adulthood.

Answer 19

C

Question 20

The violence inhibition mechanism model argues that psychopaths:

A. process emotion information in the same way as other people.
B. have difficulty recognising and processing fear.
C. have difficulty inhibiting emotions.
D. are unable to express their emotions.

Answer 20

B

Question 21

Among children and adolescents in Australia, which option is true of the prevalence of childhood disorders?

A. Approximately 13 per cent of children and adolescents are affected by some form of disorder.
B. Anxiety and depression are more common than aggressive behaviour.
C. Mental disorders are experienced equally by boys and girls.
D. All of the given options are correct.

Answer 21

A

Question 22

The range of pervasive developmental disorders may be subsumed under the autistic disorder category for DSM-5 because:

A. it reduces confusion in communication between health experts.
B. the disorders vary across different research and clinical settings.
C. there is little overlap between symptom severity, language level or intelligence.
D. it was hard to distinguish between previous categories.

Answer 22

D

Question 23

Which of the following is not true of oppositional defiant disorder?

A. Its prevalence declines through childhood and adolescence.
B. It involves difficulty regulating emotion.
C. It involves a negative affective style.
D. It is more common in boys than in girls.

Answer 23

A

Question 24

Which of these is not a first-rank symptom of schizophrenia, according to Schneider’s classification system?

A. bizarre delusions including passivity phenomena
B. elevated mood
C. hearing voices arguing
D. hearing voices commenting on the individual’s actions

Answer 24

B

Question 25

Which of the following is true of individuals who return home to a family with high expressed emotion after a psychotic episode?

A. They are more likely than others to relapse.
B. They receive high levels of emotional support from their families.
C. They are more likely than others to relapse and they receive high levels of emotional support from their families.
D. They are neither more likely than others to relapse nor to receive high levels of emotional support from their families.

Answer 25

A

Question 26

Attribution theory suggests that people initially tend to explain bodily symptoms in terms of:

A. physical causes.
B. psychological causes.
C. situational causes.
D. cultural causes.

Answer 26

C

Question 27

Dissociative disorders all involve which of the following?

A. the presence of two or more distinct identities or personality states
B. hallucinations and delusions
C. somatosensory amplification
D. disconnection of normally integrated mental functions

Answer 27

D

Question 28

The medical model of treating men’s erectile difficulties:

A. assumes that providing an erection will solve the sexual problem.
B. addresses the psychosexual issues (such as subjective arousal).
C. addresses underlying relationship difficulties.
D. All of the given options are correct.

Answer 28

A

Question 29

A paedophilic act is also classified as incest if:

A. the victim and perpetrator know each other.
B. the victim and perpetrator are close relatives.
C. the perpetrator is an adult.
D. the perpetrator is five years or more older than the victim

Answer 29

B

Question 30

When conducting a differential diagnosis for gender dysphoria, which of the following is not a diagnosis that should be considered?

A. transvestic disorder
B. psychotic disorders
C. depression
D. body dysmorphic disorder

Answer 30

C

Question 31

The most common causes of death in the early 1900s and now are:

A. acute illnesses.
B. chronic illnesses.
C. chronic illnesses in the early 1900s, acute illnesses now.
D. acute illnesses in the early 1900s, chronic illnesses now.

Answer 31

D

Question 32

Mild neurocognitive disorder:

A. meets the criteria for the diagnosis of dementia.
B. involves cognitive changes that negatively affect functioning.
C. involves impairment of a range of cognitive functions including memory.
D. never progresses to Alzheimer’s disease.

Answer 32

B

Question 33

Recent research shows that, on average:

A. retirement is generally a positive transition for both men and women.
B. retirement is generally a negative transition.
C. retirement is generally a positive experience, but only for men.
D. retirement is generally a negative experience, but only for men.

Answer 33

A

Question 34

Common reasons why older adults might cease driving a car include all of the following except:

A. fear of having an accident.
B. medications that interfere with attention and concentration.
C. sleep disturbances that might interfere with attention and concentration.
D. health-related symptoms (e.g., arthritis).

Answer 34

A

Question 35

The Holmes and Rahe Social Readjustment Rating Scale, in which the number of recent stressful life events is counted, has been criticised in the literature because:

A. the same event can have a different impact on different people.
B. it does not include all of the possible stressful life events.
C. it includes too many categories of stressful life events.
D. All of the given options are correct.

Answer 35

A

Question 36

Which is not a key component of acceptance and commitment therapy?

A. acceptance of life circumstances (e.g., chronic pain) without attempting to change them
B. non-judgmental observance of thoughts
C. becoming aware of self
D. correcting cognitive distortions

Answer 36

D