exam questions Flashcards
(560 cards)
1
Q
glycogen is stored
A
in the liver and in skeletal muscle
2
Q
Gamma motor neurons innervate:
A
Intrafusal muscle fibers found in muscle spindles
3
Q
Chain fibers & flowerspray sensory neurons monitor:
A
change in muscle length
4
Q
where is the gate in gate control located?
A
Substantia gelitanosa
5
Q
Micro Villi , plica circulares, and villi all work to:
A
increase surface area in the small intestines
6
Q
The ganglia are where the ________and ________ motor neurons synaps
A
parasypethetic, sympathetic Ns
7
Q
Group A nerve fibers are
A
Heavily mylinated
8
Q
Group B nerve fibers are
A
moderately myelinated
9
Q
group c nerve fibers are
A
unmylinated
10
Q
A delta fibers are involved in perception of
A
Fast, sharp, localized, acute pain
11
Q
cranial nerves III,_____ Ix, and x supply the parasympathetic NS
A
IV
12
Q
Mechano receptors are faster then nociceptors
A
gate control theory
13
Q
Mechano receptors gives sence of?
A
Touch, pressure, Vibration
14
Q
Proprioceptors give sense of
A
movement
15
Q
Nociceptors give sense of
A
Pain, noxious stimuli
16
Q
The 2nd order interneuron can be inhibited in the neuromatrix of pain by mechano and ________
A
ascending tracts
17
Q
The __________ causes the contents of the transvers colon to move into the rectum when the stomach is full
A
gastrocolic reflex
18
Q
Slowest nerve fibers are: a alpha/a gamma/___/b
A
C fibers
19
Q
Pain that is experienced in the dermatome supplied by a nerve is________
A
nerve root pain
20
Q
deep connective tissue structures supplied by a spinal segment/ nerve is _______
A
Sclerotome pain
21
Q
Pain originating from deep visceral structures that is percieved to come from somatic structures that share the same spinal segment is__________
A
Referred pain
22
Q
________ postganglionic fibers release acetylcholine
A
Parasympathetic
23
Q
The 2nd order associated neuron/transmission neuron transmits noxious stim up through which spinal tract?
A
Dorsal columns
24
Q
Where are endogenous opiates released?
A
substantia gelatinosa
25
Brush border secretes enzymes to break down
Carbs and proteins. NOT LIPIDS
26
light touch and vibration
Meissner's corpuscle
27
Deep pressure, deep dermis, subcutaneous tissues, with rapid adaptations
Pacinian corpsucle
28
receptor found in the dermis, and joint capsules, stimulated by stretch, slow adaptaions
Ruffini corpuscle
29
Mechanoreceptor, in the epidermal junction, mucosal membranes, with slow adaptation
merkel dics
30
3 main components of the liver:
hepatocytes, bile canaliculi, and hepatic sinusoids
31
The portal triad around the perimeter of hepatic lobules consists of 3 basic structures:
bile duct, hepatic artery branch, and hepatic portal vein branch
32
The sphincter between the stomach and small intestine:
pyloric sphincter
33
The componant of muscle spindles that is primarily tonic
Flowerspray neuron
34
extrafusal muscle fibers are the normal skeletal muscle cells outside of the muscle spindle and are innervated by
alpha motor neurons
35
sensory nerves are found near the _______ of a muscle spindle
centre
36
Nuclear bag fibers + annulosprial sensory neurons sense:
rate of change of length, and adapt quickly
(phasic receptor annulospiral sensory neuron)
37
Nuclear chain fibers + flower spray sensory neuron sense:
muscle length (tonic receptor flowerspray)
38
muscle spindle is a
proproceptive sense organ that is found in muscle bellies and monitors changes in length of a skeletal muscle.
39
The sympathetic innervation for the abdominal visera is supplied by _________from the pervertebral ganglia
splanchnic N.
40
Fiber in the ANS that is unmylinated type C ________
Postganglionic fibre
41
The preganglionic fiber found in the lateral grey horn is
myelinated type B
42
Nociceptors can be stimulated by
damage to tissues, pain, inflammatory chem.
43
a collection of neuro cell bodies in the PNS
Ganglia
44
Ending segment of the large intestine:
Anal canal
45
Funtion of bile
Emulsifies lipids
46
Sense organs in the joint capsule
Ruffini
47
the Vegus N supplies the parasympathetic from the neck to
the small intestine and ascending colon
48
Ganglia in the sympathatic NS found lateral to vertebral bodes
Chain Ganglia
49
modified ganglion innervated by the sympathetic NS:
adrenal medulla
50
Organ that stores bile
gallbladder
51
Gray rami communicates are
unmyelenated structures that provide a short connection from the sympathetic chain ganglion to the spinal N that contains postganglionic sympathtic fiber
52
grey rami communicated to
target organ
53
The parasympathetic ganglia are located
just outside or within the wall of the target organ
54
the sympathetic central neuron cell bodies are round in the lateral grey horn of
T1-L5
55
where are the prevertebral ganglia found in the sympathetic NS
Anterior to the vertebral column in the abdominal cavity
56
the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct form the
ampulla of vater
57
Sympethetic post ganglionic fibers travel with spinal nerves to sweat glands _______, blood vessels, skin, and skeletal muscles
pilli
58
Which nutrients are reabsorbed by the PCT?
glucose, amino acids, vitamins
59
Which part of the nephron is impermeable to water?
ascending limb of loop of henle
60
Which organ is used to segment the different parts of the urethra in men?
prostate
61
Control of the sphincters of the urinary bladder, are under the complete control of the autonomic nervous system.
False
62
Which capillary is involved with the reabsorption from the proximal convoluted tubule?
peritubular
63
The minor calyces are structures that:
collect urine from the papillary ducts
64
The key structure in monitoring the rate of filtration by the kidney is the:
juxtaglomerular apparatus
65
Which of the following hormones causes principle cells to increase the reabsorption of Na and water in the collecting ducts?
aldosterone
66
The renal pyramids are part of the:
renal medulla
67
Which of the following is not allowed through the filtration membrane in the glomerular capsule?
large proteins
68
Adequate blood flow to the kidney is essential to the function of the organ.
True
69
The kidney plays a large role in pH maintenance in the body. Which cells are responsible for secreting H+ in the collecting duct?
intercalated cells
70
The final adjustments to urine composition are made in which part of the nephron?
collecting ducts
71
Creatinine is a nitrogenous waste product cleared from the body by the kidneys. Which tissue is the source of this waste?
muscle
72
Which of the following is not normally a component of urine in a healthy individual?
RBC
73
Which epithelial cells make up the proximal and distal convoluted tubules? DCT
simple cuboidal
74
The visceral layer of the glomerular capsule of the nephron is formed by specialized epithelial cells called:
podocytes
75
Which of the following is the breakdown product of purine nucleotides?
uric acid
76
In females the bladder is directly anterior to which of the following organs?
uterus
77
Which of the following does NOT contribute to urine flow in the ureters?
osmotic pressure
78
Which of the following hormones causes pores to develop in the principle cells, to increase water retention?
antidiuretic hormone
79
The transitional epithelium within the bladder allows for which of the following functions?
stretching
80
Plasma filtration occurs in which part of the nephron?
renal corpuscle
81
Which of the following is not synonymous term for micturition?
defecating
82
Which of the following ions is the key to reabsorption?
Na+
83
Which of the following comes immediately after Bowman’s capsule in the nephron?
PCT
84
The ureters connect which two structures?
renal pelvis and bladder
85
The kidneys are located:
in the retroperitoneal space at the level of T12-L3
86
Which of the following lists the vessels in the correct order of blood flow around the nephron?
afferent arteriole, glomerulus, efferent arteriole, peritubular capillary/vasa recta
87
The glomerular filtration rate increases under which of the following situations?
efferent arteriole is constricted and afferent arteriole dilated
88
Gametes contain how much of the DNA compared to the parent cell
half
89
The beta cells in the pancreas secrete with hormone
insulin
90
in down regulation there's a decrease in which chemical/structure in a cell responce to increase hormone levels
receptors
91
which part of the pituitary gland is connected to the hypothalamis via blood vessels
anterior
92
The function of yellow bone marrow
energy storage
93
which protien within red blood cells carries oxygen
hemoglobin
94
Which blood cell transports oxygen and carbon dioxide
erythrocytes
(red blood cells)
95
Which structure in osteons connect osteocytes with the central canal?
Canaliculi
96
Connective tissue is classifed into categories of loose and dense by?
arrangement and density of fibers
97
Lipid hormones bind to receptors found where/in/on target cells
Inside the cell binding on a receptor protien
98
Only cells that have a receptor for the hormone will respond to the hormone
true
99
Which of the following hormones is found to be elevated durring the resistance stage?
renin/calcitonin/aldonterone/insulin
insulin
100
The formation of blood cells in the red bone marrow is called
hemopoieses
101
Fribrinolysis is defined as
process in which coagulation is localized to a region and then ended
102
Cartilaginous joints are held together by fribrocartilage (symphis) or
Hyaline cartilage (synchondrosis)
103
what increases water retention in the body
antidiuretic hormone
104
durring external respiration, gases are exchanged between the
alveoli and the blood
105
the middle layer of the adrenal cotex is called____ and secretes______
zona fasciculata; glucocorticoids
106
the amount of air moved durring quiet breath is
tidal volume
107
the cells in the inner layer of the joint capsule secrete
synovial fluid
108
functions of the nose
sense of smell
warming inspired air
collection point for mucus
(not external respiration)
109
Muscles of active expiration
Internal intercostals; abdominals
110
Amphortharosis is defined as
slightly movable
111
which structural type of joint is diarthrotic (freely moveable)
Synovial
112
The parathyroid hormone _________ blood calcium levels
Raises
(calcitonin decreases)
113
Which type of circulation involves circulation to the lungs
plumonary
114
The 2 areas of the brain that contain respiration centers are the
Medulla oblongata and the pons
115
Boyles law
as the volume in the container increases the the pressure with in the container decreases
116
Which alveolar cells produce surfactant
type II alveolar cells
117
Surface tension of the alveoli is reduced by the secretion of
Surfaciant
118
The removal of an amine group (nitrogen) from amino acids is called
deamination
119
Lactic acid is produced in which type of situation
oxygen depleted
120
Which portion of the pharynx receives the openings from the auditory tubes
nasopharynx
121
Compliance is affected primarily by the amount of elastic tissue in the lungs and the
Amount of surfactant
122
Bones become weaker as we age because of decrease in protein synthesis and
demineralization
123
Which canal in the osteon contains the blood vessel and nerve?
Haversian Canal
124
The activity of the epiphyseal plate allows bone to grow in
Length
125
Which syndrome involves a temporary abnormal resetting of the bodys homeostatic control mechanisms
general adaptation syndrome
126
Hormones that are formed by removing a fatty acid chain from the phospholipid bilayer of a cell membrane are called
Eiconsanoids
127
The alpha cells in the pancreas secrete which hormone?
glucagen
128
Hormones can be devided into classes reffered to as
lipid based and protien based
129
Most carbon dioxide is transported in blood by
Conversion to bicarbonate ion
130
a type 1 aveolar cell is a
simple squamous epithelial cells
131
Collagen provides which type of strenth to bones
tensile
132
which of the following fibrocartilage structures in a synovial joint increase the congruency of the joint
meniscus
133
Which layer of periosteum do muscles attach to
the outer dense irregualr connective tissue layer
134
The type of epithelium lining the internal nose
pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
135
what are the basic functions of epithelial tissue
protection, diffusion, filtration, sensory
136
The amount of air that remains in the lungs at the end of full expiration
residual volume
137
the endocrine system uses hormones to stimulate target organs and tissue
true
138
Oxytocin is a hormone stored and secreted by the
Posterior pituitary gland
139
Spongy bone receives blood from
red bone marrow
140
There is only fibrous connective tissue connecting the bones in a
suture
141
the formation of tyglycerides from non-fat sources is called
Lipogenesis
142
synathrosis is
Immovably fixed joint
143
Up regulation will _______ receptors when there is a _______ in circulating hormones
increase; decrease
144
The bony structures found in cancellous bone that allows it to be strong yet light is called
trabeculae
145
durring internal respiration
oxygen difuses from the blood into the tissues
146
The hypothalamus is the anatomical site where the _______ and the _______ interact
nervous; endocrine
147
Which hormone type stimulates amplification to happen within the target cell when the hormone binds to the receptor
Lipid based
148
The exchange of gases between the alveoli and the blood occurs over
2 basment membranes and 2 simple squamous epithelium
149
Which part of general adaptation syndrome is a long-term reaction to chronic stress
exhaustion stage
150
Which hormone is released in response to low blood calcium levels
PTh
151
The pleura is the
the serous membrane surrounding the lungs
152
The last step in healing from a bone fracture
remodeling stage
153
Airway resistance is affected primarily by the
diameter of the bronchioles
154
Which vitamin increases the absorption of calcium from the intestine
vit d
155
Which vitamin is required in the synthesis of plasma protiens (coagulation)
vit. k
156
What is the process of fluid being drawn into the capillaries called in starlings law of capilaries
reabsorption
157
Cartilage repairs slowly because of its avascular character
true
158
each lung can be divided into segments supplied by secondary bronchi called
lobes
159
fibrocartilage has the highest ratio of collagen fibers thus increasing the rigidity and stiffnes
T/F
F
Hayaline cartilage has the highest ration of collagen fibers
160
Function of T3 and T4
Synthesize protiens, breakdown fats, increase ATP production
161
A chemical that acts on a neighboring cell is
Paracrine
162
Which spinal level contributes to the phrenic N
C3-C5
163
Which gland is both endocrine and exocrine
pancrease
164
compact bone contains osteons
t/f
True
165
An increase in which chemical in the blood stream Will cause increased inhalation
CO2
166
Iodine is needed to produce which thyriod hormone
T3 and t4
167
all gasses in a mixture of air exert a pressure that is porpotrional to the content of each gas. the pressure a single gas exerts is reffered to as
partial pressure
168
most oxygen is transported in the body by
hemoglobin and red blood cells
169
The adreanal medulla secretes which hormones?
epinephrin and norepinephrine
170
Which hormones acts on the lactotroph cells of the anterior pituitary gland
Prolactin releasing hormone
171
The end of long bones is knows as the
epiphysis
172
The trachea divides into
left and right bronchi
173
The somatorophs of the anterior pituitary secrete
Growth hormone
174
What hormone directly stimulates the production of t3 and t4 from the follicular cells in the thyroid gland?
TSH
175
Which cell produces bone matrix
osteoblasts
176
durring puberty, bone growth is stimulated by
testosterone and estrogen
177
Hemoglobin will have increased affinity for oxygen when
temp decreases
178
Which hormone Increases water retention in the body
Anti diuretic hormone ADH
179
What is the main constitution of ground substance in bones
hydrocyapatite
180
Gas echange in the lung begins at the level of the
respiratory bronchioles
181
How is the posterior pituitary gland connected to the hypothalamus?
infundibulum, neurons
182
Which type of ossification goes from mesenchymal cells to cartilage then bone?
intramembraneous ossification
183
Melatonin is secreated by
pineal gland
184
progesterone and estrogen are secreated by
ovaries
185
Which type of hormone binds to the receptors found on the outside of the cell membrane of the target cells?
Amino based
186
The process of moving air in and out of the lungs is called
ventilation
187
conadotropin releasing hormone CRH is secreted by
the hypothalamus
188
The fuction of the epiglottis is to
Close off the larynx durring swallowing
189
The narrowest part of the fallopian tube is:
isthmus
190
Weeks 9 to 38 of gestation are known as which of the following?
fetal
191
Why is the first 8 weeks of development most vulnerable to malformation?
because there is so much cell division
192
The scrotum is designed to perform which of the following functions?
regulate temperature of the testes
193
Which hormone is considered responsible for the let down reflex of lactation?
Oxytocin
194
Which hormone causes Leydig cells to secrete?
LH
195
Which hormone is directly responsible for the development of male secondary sexual characteristics?
testosterone
196
What part of the fallopian tube that helps to collect the oocyte when it is expelled from the ovary is the?
fimbriae
197
Developing sperm cells are protected from the body's immune system by the blood-testis barrier formed by:
sertoli cells
198
In which structure does the process of spermatogenesis occur?
seminiferous tubules
199
Which of the following muscle elevates the testicles closer to the body?
cremaster muslce
200
Fertilization results in the formation of which of the following?
zygote
201
Leydig cells secrete:
testosterone
202
Transmit action potentials
in the sarcomere
t tubles
203
prevensts muscle action at rest
tropomyosin
204
Postganglionic fibers that innervate sweat glands, arrector pili muscles, blood vessels to skin and skeletal muscles travel with which structure?
spinal nerves
205
Where are the sympathetic chain ganglia found?
on either side of the spine close to the vertebrae
206
A single sympathetic preganglionic fiber may synapse with twenty or more postganglionic fibers
True
207
Where are the central neurons cell bodies of the sympathetic division of the ANS found?
T1 to L2 lateral grey horn
parasymp is cranial sacral
208
Parasympathetic stimulation to the liver, stomach and gallbladder is provided by fibers travelling with the:
vagus nerve
209
The adrenal medulla receives stimulation from:
sympathetic preganglionic fibers
210
The concept that most internal organs receive innervation from both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems is called:
dual innervation
211
How many sets of neurons are found in each autonomic motor pathway?
2
212
Autonomic nervous system preganglionic fibres are
myelinated type B fibers
213
What does “SLUDD” stand for in regards of the parasympathetic nervous system:
salivation, lacrimation, urination, digestion, defecation
214
The motor impulses from the ANS innervate which of the following?
cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and glands
215
The major control and integration centre for the autonomic nervous system is the:
hypothalamus
216
The cranial nerves involved in the parasympathetic system are:
III, VII, IX, X
217
The arrector pili, sweat glands and adipose cells only receive innervation from the sympathetic nervous system.
true
218
Parasympathetic ganglia are known as terminal ganglia.
true
219
Which neurotransmitter is used to stimulate the effectors in the sympathetic division of the ANS?
norepinephrine
220
Parasympathetic innervation to the distal colon, the bladder and the reproductive organs is supplied by which of the following:
sacral nerves
221
The post ganglionic fibres in the ANS are what type of fibres?
Type C
222
The sympathetic ganglia that lie close to large abdominal arteries and anterior to vertebral column are the:
prevertebral ganglia
223
The postganglionic fibers of the sympathetic division of the ANS are short.
false
The postganglionic fibers of the sympathetic NS are long
224
Which structures receive sympathetic innervation from the superior cervical ganglia?
the head
225
Which of the following responses is initiated by the sympathetic nervous system?
increased synthesis of ATP
226
Autonomic central neurons synapse with ganglionic neurons:
in ganglia
227
The cell bodies of some parasympathetic central neurons are located in the brain stem.
True
228
When the parasympathetic system is active it decreases the activity of which of the following organs.
heart
229
Effectors innervated by the parasympathetic nervous system are stimulated by which neurotransmitter.
acetylcholine
230
White rami communicantes are so named since:
autonomic preganglionic neurons are myelinated
231
What is the major type of sensory information that is monitored by the Autonomic nervous system?
sensations from the visceral/internal organs
232
Which of the following is supplied with sympathetic innervation by way of the splanchnic nerves from the prevertebral ganglia?
abdominal viscera
233
The final steps of chemical digestion occur along the brush border for all organic molecules except:
lipids
234
The chemical breakdown of protein begins with the action of saliva in the mouth.
false
In your stomach via
235
The movement of food forward by the contraction of the smooth muscle is known as which of the following?
peristalsis
236
The liver is supplied with arterial/oxygenated blood by?
hepatic artery
237
Which of the following cells secretes pepsinogen in the stomach?
chief cells
238
The end product of digestion in the stomach that is propelled into the small intestine is known as:
chyme
239
Pancreatic digestive enzymes are initially secreted as inactive to prevent auto-digestion of the pancreas.
true
240
The movement of amino acids across the mucosa of the small intestine and into the blood is an example of absorption.
true
241
Control and modulation of the digestive process is purely a parasympathetic function.
true
242
Hydrochloric acid is secreted by which cells in the stomach?
parietal cells
243
Which portion of the esophagus has a muscularis layer composed only of skeletal muscle?
upper/ proximal third
244
The beginning segment of the large intestine is called the?
cecum
245
Which of the following aids absorption by increasing the surface area of the small intestine?
villi
246
Which organ of the GI tract has a muscularis layer composed of three layers of muscle instead of the usual two layers?
stomach
247
Fecal material usually contains which of the following?
bacteria
248
Which portion of the small intestine is in the retroperitoneal cavity?
duodenum
249
Bacteria in the large intestine create and absorb which of the following vitamins?
B and K
250
Mixing of chyme (food and enzymes) in the small intestine is enhanced by organized contractions called:
segmentation
251
The smooth muscle of the internal anal sphincter and the rectum are under the control of the:
parasympathetic nervous system
252
The pancreas is found:
tucked into the curve of the duodenum and behind the stomach
253
The function of the gallbladder is
store and concentrate bile
254
Chemical digestion of proteins starts in the stomach by which of the following chemicals?
hydrochloric acid and pepsin
255
The pyloric sphincter is located at the junction of the:
stomach and duodenum
256
Which of the following chemicals emulsifies lipids?
bile
257
Which of the following organs is considered an accessory structure of the gastrointestinal system?
pancreas
258
Which of the following is a function of saliva?
breakdown dietary carbohydrates and lipids
259
Secretion of bile from the gallbladder is promoted by which of the following hormones?
CCK
260
Which two structures unite to form the ampulla of Vater (hepatopancreatic ampulla)?
common bile duct and pancreatic duct
261
The lobule of the liver is created by the sinusoids, bile canaliculi, hepatocytes and blood vessels.
True
262
Which of the following is not a function of the liver
production of gastrin
263
The liver
stores glycogen
produces bile
produces vit d
264
The largest salivary glands are located:
anterior to the ears, around the angle of the mandible
265
Lacteals in the villi of the small intestine collect which of the following nutrient’s?
lipids
266
Surface tension of the alveoli is reduced by the secretion of:
surfactant
267
The internal nose is lined by an epithelium that is designed to warm and humidify air as well as trap dust. The type of epithelium lining the internal nose is:
pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
268
A Type 1 alveolar cell is a:
simple squamous epithelial cells
269
Most oxygen is transported in the blood by:
hemoglobin in red blood cells
270
The ovaries secrete which of the following hormones when stimulated?
both estrogen and progesterone
271
Which hormone is produced by the pineal gland?
melatonin
272
The anatomical site where the nervous system and endocrine system interact is the:
Hypothalamus-pituitary complex
273
Insulin is produced by which cells of the pancreas?
beta cells
274
Which hormone is secreted in response to decreased levels of blood calcium?
parathyroid hormone
275
During the phenomena referred to as the general adaptation syndrome which stage is the result of alterations in hormone secretion by the hypothalamus?
resistance reaction
276
Hormones that are formed by removing a fatty acid chain from the phospholipid bilayer of a cell membrane are called:
eicosanoids
277
Which type of hormones have their target receptors located within the cytosol of the target cell?
lipid soluble hormones
278
Which hormone acts on the somatotroph cells of the Anterior Pituitary gland
growth hormone releasing hormone
279
When a hormone stimulates a single receptor a cascade of events within the cell results in a disproportionately large reaction called:
amplification
280
Hormones influence the activity of target cells by:
binding to hormone specific receptors on the target cells
281
Corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH) is secreted by:
the hypothalamus
282
Water-soluble hormones bind to receptors found:
on the outside of the cell membrane of target cells
283
Oxytocin is a hormone stored and secreted by the posterior pituitary.
true
284
How is the anterior pituitary gland connected to the hypothalamus?
via a portal system
285
Which of the following increases water retention in the body?
aldosterone
286
Which of the following ions is the production of thyroid hormones dependent on?
iodine
287
The endocrine system uses neurotransmitters to excite nerves, muscles and glandular tissue.
false
Endocrine system uses hormones
288
Which endocrine gland can be classified as both an endocrine and an exocrine gland?
pancreas
289
The outermost layer of the adrenal cortex is called ____________ and secretes _______________.
zona fasciculata/ androgens
290
The target organ of thyroid stimulating hormone is the:
thyroid
291
A chemical that a cell that releases that acts on that same cell is which of the following?
autocrine
292
Glucagon is secreted by which cells of the pancreas.
alpha cells
293
The general adaptation syndrome involves a temporary abnormal resetting of the body's homeostatic control mechanisms.
true
294
When a target cell is bombarded by an excess of a hormone it responds by decreasing the number of hormone receptors it has in a process known as:
down regulation
295
this hormones is found to be elevated during the resistance reaction?
cortisol
296
Epinephrine and norepinephrine are secreted by which endocrine gland?
adrenal medulla
297
this hormones aids in reduction of blood glucose levels?
insulin
298
Which thyroid hormones are involved in synthesis of proteins, breakdown of fats, and increasing metabolism?
T3 and T4
299
If there is a reduction in the concentration of a hormone, which of the following will occur?
up regulation
300
Which part of the pituitary gland is directly connected to the hypothalamus via neurons?
the posterior pituitary gland
301
The lactotrophs of the anterior pituitary secrete which of the following hormones?
prolactin
302
What is the function of Antidiuretic hormone?
increase water retention in the body
303
Hormones can be divided into two classes referred to as:
amino acid and lipid derived
304
The function of osteoblasts is to:
produce bone matrix
305
When referring to a joint, a meniscus is:
a fibrocartilage disc that extends into the joint cavity
306
The periosteum consists of two layers, the outer layer of dense irregular connective tissue and the inner __________________.
osteogenic layer
307
Bones are more brittle in the elderly because:
there is less collagen relative to the amount of mineral salts
308
Synovial fluid is produced by:
cells in the inner layer of the articular capsule
309
A slightly moveable joint is referred to as a(n):
amphiarthrosis
310
Cartilaginous joints are held together by either of the following:
fibrocartilage or hyaline cartilage
311
Hyaline cartilage has the highest ratio of collagen fibres thus increasing the rigidity and stiffness.
FALSE
Check
312
an immovable joint?
synarthrosis
313
A function of vitamin D in proper bone development is to:
increase absorption of calcium from the intestine
314
hormone increases osteoblast activity?
calcitonin
315
Cartilage repairs slowly because of its avascular character.
true
316
There is only fibrous connective tissue connecting the bones in a:
suture
317
Spongy bone contains osteons.
false
Contains trebecule
318
Before puberty, bone growth is stimulated mainly by the hormone:
human growth hormone
319
The end of long bones is known as the
epiphysis
320
metaphysis is the
metaphysis is the wider end of the shaft located between the diaphysis and epiphysis
321
A hormone that increases the number and activity of osteoclasts is:
parathyroid hormone
322
type of ossification forms bone directly from mesenchymal cells?
intramembraneous ossification
323
The activity of the epiphyseal plate is the only means by which the diaphysis can increase in length.
true
324
The artery that pierces the diaphysis of a long bone is known as a:
nutrient artery
325
An important energy reserve is provided by the skeletal system in the form of:
yellow bone marrow
326
The bony structures found in spongy bone that allows it to be strong yet light is called:
trabeculae
327
Why are diarthrosis joints freely moveable?
presence of loose joint capsule
presence of synovial fluid
presence of hyaline cartilage
328
Spongy bone does not require a Haversian system to deliver blood because the trabeculae are surrounded by blood.
true
329
The first step in the repair of a bone fracture is:
development of a fracture hematoma
330
Hydroxyapatite is:
the main constituent of the ground substance of bones
331
Which of the following component of bone tissue is responsible for the tensile strength
collagen
332
structures serves to decrease the amount of friction between two surfaces around a synovial joint?
bursa
333
Canaliculi are:
tiny channels connecting osteocytes with the central canal of osteons
334
The central (Haversian) canal of an osteon contains:
a blood vessel and nerve
335
Continuous propagation of nerve stimulus as long as a stimulus persists refers to which type of receptor?
Tonic
336
Which structure of the muscle spindle mostly monitors rate of change of length?
annulospiral sensory neuron
337
Pain that creates hyperalgesia and swelling in a stocking-glove pattern is an example of:
sympathetic pain
338
Our brain produces which of the following to modify pain perception?
endogenous opiates
339
The gate control theory of pain is established due to which of the following?
mechanoreceptor information travels faster than noxious stimulus information
340
Long term chronic pain has been found to alter the central nervous system similar to the effects of:
depression
341
Receptor selectivity/specificity refers to the concept that:
receptors respond to only one type of stimulus
342
The Substansia Gelatinosa is found where?
the dorsal horn of the spinal cord
343
Nociceptors can be stimulated by:
inflammatory chemicals
344
Which cell determines if a noxious stimulus is transmitted to the brain from the spinal cord is the:
2nd neuron/association neuron
345
Central pain perception and modulation of the pain experience involves:
multiple brain centres
346
Pain originating from deep visceral structures is which of the following:
referred pain
347
Deep connective tissue that is innervated by the same spinal segment is known as which of the following?
sclerotome
348
Which of the following fibers results in the perception of chronic pain?
C fibers
349
Rapid adaptation of a receptor to a stimulus classifies the receptor as:
phasic receptor
350
Motor units that are used exclusively to innervate the muscle spindle are the:
gamma motor units
351
Acute pain is indicative of which of the following:
tissue damage
352
Which sense organ is found in the connective tissue around a joint?
pacinian corpuscles
353
The fastest conducting nerve fibre type is the:
A alpha fibers
354
Which receptor is used to detect pressure?
pacinian corpuscle
355
Muscle length is measured and monitored by
muscle spindles
356
The component of the muscle spindle that is considered to be primarily phasic in nature is the:
nuclear bag fibers
357
Muscle/tendon tension is measured and monitored by the:
golgi tendon organs
358
The length of a muscle is mostly detected by:
flowerspray sensory neuron
359
Which of the following fibers results in the perception of sharp fast pain?
A delta
360
When an afferent impulse reaches the cortex and we become conscious of a stimulus this is known as:
perception
361
Nerve root pain is the same as which of the following:
radicular pain
362
Which of the following nerve fibers conducts information the slowest?
A delta
363
Receptors that signal noxious stimulus are referred to as:
nociceptors
364
Noxious stimulus can be inhibited at the spinal cord by the descending pathways from the brain.
True
365
The lobule of the liver is created by
Hypatocytes
366
the specialized area of the sarcolomma that has many actylcholine receptors is called
Motor end plate
367
The components of a reflex are are: receptor, sensory neuron, _______ motor neuron, and effector
Interneurons
368
white matter vs grey matter
white = mylin, many axons, out side the brain, inside the cord
grey = lack of mylin, many cell bodies + dendrites, outside the brain, inside the cord
369
Splanchic N
urinary and reproductive
370
371
Parasympathetic increases
SLUDD
372
The 2 divisions of the ANS compete at the
target effector
(one receptor for Ach(PNS) and one for NE (SNS)
373
The source of the most central control of autonomic function
the hypothalamus
374
Somatic NS can only______, ANS can
Excite; excite or inhibit
375
somatic NS is _______, ANS is_______
Volentary; involuntary
376
Somatic NS does not have _________, ANS does have ______
GANGLIA ANS has 2 divisions sympathetic and parasympathetic
Sympathetic has >CHAIN Ganglia parallel to the vertebral column
>Prevertetebral ganglia anterior to vertebral colum
>adrenal medulla modified ganglia
Parasympathetic has terminal/intramural ganglia near or on the wall of the organ in innervates
377
Ganglia in the Sympathtic NS
-chain ganglia found parallel to the vertebral column
-prevertebral / collateral ganglia found anterior to the vertebral column near the large abdominal arteries
- adrenal medulla; modified ganglia
-located T1-L2 in the lateral grey horns
378
ganglia in the parasympathetic NS are
Terminal/intramural ganglia; near or in the wall of the organ it innervates
- located in craneal nerves III, VII, IX, X and sacral lateral grey horns
379
Preganglionic lenght in the sympathetic NS are_______, post ganglionics lengh is_____
Short; long
380
Preganglionic length in the parasympathic NS are_____ Postganglion lenth is_______
Long; short
381
Neurotransmitter of the postganglionic neuron in the sympathetic NS is ________, Neurotransmitter of the postganglionis neuron in the PNS is ________
NE; Ach
382
unique feature of the sympathetic NS
-divergence (one pregnanglionic Neuron can activate many post ganglionic
-organs only innervated by the sympathetic: sweat glands, adrenal medulla, adipose cells, smooth muscle and blood cells
383
in a women the bladder lies
anterior to the uterus and posterior to the pubic bone and anterior to the rectum
384
the proper term for urintation or voiding
micturition
385
urine passes thought the ureter by
waves of peristalsis and hydrostatic pressure and gravity
386
kidneys are the size of
your fist and use 25% of cadiac output, right liver can be displaced by the liver
387
renal colums are
CT extensions that radiat downward from the cortex throught the medulla to separate the renal pyrmids
388
Nephrons are
The functional units of the kidney
389
collection of axons wrapped in CT
a tract
390
Which regulatory protien in the sarcomere binds to calcium and changes its shape
troponin
391
Protien that blocks myosin heads on actin
tropomyosin
392
merkel
low frequency/slow adaptation
393
messiers
papillary/ rapid addaptation
394
afferent neuron
preception
sensory info
395
phasic
rapid
396
tonic
continious
397
nociceptors
noxious/damage
398
chemo
chemical- taste/smell/fluid
399
calcitonin
Thyroid glands response to too much Ca2+ in the blood.
increases osteoblasts (bone builders)
reduces blood Ca2+ levels
400
PTH (para thyroid hormone)
VIA chief cells
Parathyroids responce to Low Blood Ca2+ levels
Stimulates osteoclasts
(bone eaters)
inhibits osteoblasts
(bone makers)
reabsorption of calcium in the kidney
401
osteoblasts
Thyroid -calcitonin
as well as estrogen/testosterone
produce bone matrix
402
osteoclasts
break down bone (PTH)
multi nucleated
from monocytes and macrophages
403
depolarization
dendrite-cell body-axonhillock-axon
404
nuclei
collection of neurons in the CNS
405
Ganglion
collection of neron cell bodys in the PNS (no ganglons in the somatic NS)
406
PNS
periferal
somatic
autonomic-sympathtic/parasymp
sensory/motor/repairable if neuron cell bodys intact and swanna cells active/ slow scartissue
407
CNS
central
brain and spinal/no repair/tract
408
Somatic NS
volentary
T1-L2 lateral grey horns
skeletal muscle
one motor unit
consciously percived sensations
can only excite
noganglia
409
Autonomic
(hypothalamus)
involuntary
Cranial nerves III,Vii,IX,X and sacral lateral grey horns
cardiac and smooth muscle and glands
2 motor neurons
uncontious senses.viceral sanations
can excite or inhibit
has ganglia
410
Dense CT
tendons and ligs
parallel fibers
one direction
411
Dense Ireg CT
stonger
all directions
reticular layer of the skin
412
elastic CT
dense or irregular
413
Areolar CT
web
most epitherlial membranes
B/W muscles, surrounds vessels and organs
414
epidermis
stratified Squam epithilial
basale/spino/ganul/lucid/corn
StraSEpi
BSGLC
415
merkel
mechano
416
axon
controls effector
417
pennate
greatest force
418
resting muscle
ADP+ p attatch to myosin heads
419
NMJ
where the axon release Ach, motor end plate is adjacent to the axon terminal at NMJ
420
Smooth muscle
involuntary/uni nucleated
421
skeletal
voluntay multi Nucleated
422
Skeletal muscle
-Epi (around muscle)
-peir(around bundles/fascles)
-endo (around the muscle fibre)
423
Dystophin
tansmits tentsion
connects actin to the sacrolemma
424
T tubles
transmit action potentials
425
Tropomyosin
prevents action at rest
426
Cardiac muscle
straited.involentary.multi nucleated
427
actin and myosin
contratile protiens
myosin - thick
actin - thin
428
Regulatory protiens
troponin, tropomyosin
429
muscle spindles
the brain regulates tone via - gamma(fibres) motor neuron
annulo + nuclear bag(phasic) = rate of change
flower + nuclear chain = length
430
Pain is
picked up by multiple brain centres
noxious stimulus is inhibited at the spinal cord by down path
431
glial cells
support nerons and neron activity
make mylin
432
graded
membrane potential
433
action
voltage responce
434
excitable
alter membrane potential
435
effarent
motor, impulse, effects
436
vagus N
X - heart/brain stem/Ach/terminal ganglia
III,VI,IX,X
437
Sympathetic
T1-L2/lateral grey horn
-Chain ganglia - found parallel to vertebral colum
-pervertebral collateral ganglia found anterior to vertebral colum near large abdominal arteries
Pre-short- mylin type B (chain ganglia are next to vertebral colum)
Post-long - un mylin type C (effector is further away)
NE
DIVERGENT - 10-20 targets
Adrenal medulla modified ganglia (releases epinephrin and NE)
additional branches
Greater and lesser splanic N
EJACULATION
438
parasympathetic
"cranial sacral"
Terminal ganglia near or in the wall of the organ
Cranial N III,VI,IX,X
sacral lateral grey horn
Pre- LONG mylin type B
Post - short unmylin Type C
Ach
rest and digest
ERECTIONS
439
Preganglionic fibers are
myelinated type B
440
postganglionic fibers
travel to the targeted effector and are unmyelinated Type C (SLOW)
Short in the parasymp.
Long in the Sympath.
441
Splanchnic N (symp)
Sacral (Parasymp)
digestive, urinary and reproductive
442
vegus N (parasymp)
Inervates heart, bronchi, esophagus, stomach, liver, pancreas, galbladder, small intestines, and ascending colon
443
Schwan
insulated axons with myline in the PNS
saltery conduction along mylinated axon
444
neuron has
body/neuclus/organelles/axon to taget cells/dendrite to synaps info/axonhilac with voltage gated ion channels at
445
Salivary amylase
carbs in the mouth
446
pancreatic amylase
carbs in the small intestine
447
Brush border enzyme
small intestine
carbs/protien/neucleic acids
448
Bacteria
LG intestine
Carbs/Protien
Vitamins B and K
449
Lingual lipase
in the mouth
activated in the stomach with gastric lipase (chief cells)
LIPIDS
450
Pepsin
in the stomach
mixed with HCI
(inactive for pepsinogen via chief cells)
PROTIEN
451
HCI
Via parietal cells in the stomach. activates pepsinogen to become pepsin
PROTIENS
452
pancreatic lipase
small intestine
with bile to emulsify
LIPIDS
453
Pancriatic protease
small intestine
PROTIEN
454
Pancreatic nuleases
Small intestine
NEUCLEIC ACIDS
455
Chief cells
in the stomach
pepsinogen
gastric lipase
PROTIEN/LIPIDS
456
alderterone - mineralocoricoid
ZONA GLOM - superficial adrenal cortex
increase K+
causes retention of water which intern increases blood volume pressure
457
Cortisol - glucocorticoid
ZONA FASCI
- middle adrenal zone
down regulates immune system and inhibits inflamatory response
458
Adreneal medulla
sympathetic NS
releases NE and epinephrine
459
GAS general adaptation syndrome
body tries to manage stress
1. alarm fight or flight epineohrine and NE
2. resistance is a long term reaction to chronic stress (coricotropin, GH, thyrotropin)
3. exhaustion body is depleated
460
Pancrease
endorine - insulin (beta cells)
Glucagen (alpha cells)
461
Somatotroph cells
Anterior pituitary
growth releasing hormone
462
Lacotrophs
anterior pituitary
prolactin
463
portal system
connects anterior pituitary and the hypothalamus
464
connected via neurons
posterior pituitary and the hypothalamus
465
Zona Glom- mineral carticoids
Zona fasc - glucocorticoids
Zona retic -gonadal androgens
3 zons of the adrenal gland superficial to deep
466
CRH - corticotropin releasing hormone
hypothalamus
467
accessory organ
tucked into the curve of the duodenum
pancrease
468
connects the stomach to the duodenum
pyloric sphincter
469
produced in the stomach and released to the small intestine
Chyme (food and enzymes)
mixed by segmentation in the intestine
470
begining of the large intestine
Cecum
471
elastic tissue + amount of surfactant =
compliance in the respatory system
472
Pseudostratified caliated columnar epithelium
epitheial lining in the nose
473
stored and secreted in the posterior pituitary - milk let down
Oxytocin
474
Houses the osteocyte
lacuna
layers of lacuna is lamulle
475
Primary cell in mature bone
osteocyte
(mineralization)
476
basic structeral unit of compact bone made of calcified bone with harversian system
Osteon
477
Bone from mesenchymal tissue
Intra ossification
478
bone from hayaline cartilage
endo ossification
479
results in gametes or a cell with 1/2 the DNA f the parent cell
meiosis
Reproductive cell division
480
gametes contain____ chromosomes
23
1/2 of human (46)
481
M ____ chromosome
F _____ chromosome
M= X and small Y
F= two X
482
Sperm production is more efficient 2-4 degrees below core temp. temp regulation is carried out by
the scrotum and the cremaster muscles (net that covers the testies
2 muscles that descend from internal oblique)
483
these develop near the kidney, on the posterior abdominal wall and descend into the scrotum durring the 7th month of fetal development
Testes, descend throught the inguinal canal
484
stem cells undergoing spermatogenesis are found
within the lobules sperm develop in seminiferous tubules
485
surround developing sperm cells and secrete signalling molecules that promote sperm production and can control weather germ cells live or die
Sertoli Cells
486
mature sperm is stored
in the tail of epididymus (a coiled tube attached to the testies) until ejaculation
487
glands that add secretions to sperm to create semen
(sperm is only 5%)
accessory glands:
seminal vesicles, prostate, bulbourethral
488
this gland sits anterior to the rectum at the base of the bladder and surrounds the prostatic urethra
Prostate gland
489
beings with the ovarian stem cells (oogonia) formed durring fetal development and divided via mitosis.
Oogonia form primary oocytes in the fetal ovary prior to birth. the primaty oocytes arrest in meiosis and resume at puberty can continues to menopause
Oogenesis
Begins in fetal development, paused until puberty and continues to menopause
490
Tertiary follicles are growing and secreting estrogen.
FSH stimulates follicuar growth, LH stimulated the gansulosa and theca cells to produce estrogen.
follicular/perovulatory phase
stratum functionalis of the endometrum thickens
491
Large burst of LH causes ovulation of the dominate follicle, stimulating the resumption of meiosis of the primary oocyte to the secondary oocyte
Ovulatory phase
The surge of LH stimulates a chane in the granulosa and theca cells that remain in the follicle after the oocyte is ovulated, this is called leutinisation and it transforms the collaped follicle into a new endocrine structure called the corpus luteum (produces progesterone)
492
the increase in progesterone in this phase is key for maintaining a thick stratum funcionalis and prepairs the endometrim lining for implantation
Luteal phase
493
LH binds to receptors on this cell in the testies and up reguates the production of testosterone
leydig cells
found between the seminiferous tubles and the testes
494
plays a role in muscle development/bone growth/2nd sex charateristics/maintaining libido
testosterone
495
corpus letum
progestrone production
496
when a sperm and an oocyte combine and their nuclei fuse the new cell is diploid and called a
Zygote
497
Stratum functionalis
(given rise from stratum basalis that does not shed)
layer that sheds durring mensis
498
stimulates male fetus gonads to secrete testosterone and promotes servival of the corpus lutem
function of HCG
499
2 arteries and 1 vein
blood vessels in the umbelical cord
500
stage 1, 2 and 3 of child birth
1.dialtion
2. dilation10cm to expulsion of baby
3. deliver of placenta
501
Urine should not contains
blood,bacteria,protiens,ketones,WBC or RBC
502
very short, incorporated into bladder wal
preprostatic utethra
503
passes through the prostate
prostatic urethra
504
passes though the deep muscles of the perineum, invested by overlying urethral spincters
membranous urethera
505
exits the tip of the penis, after passing though the corpus spongiosum
spongy urethra
506
picks up the oocyte
fimbriae
507
first section of the filopian tube the oocyte travels through
infundibulum
508
falopian tube from ovary to fundus
>fimbriae-fingers of the infundibulum
-infundibulum - wide distal end
-ampula - fertilization/middle region of the tube
-isthmus- narrow/medial end connected to the uterus
>fundus (top of the uterus
509
Layers of the uterus inside to outside
endomitrium/myometrium/perimetrium
510
between the uterus and the cervix
uterine isthmus
511
estrogen causes ____ in the smooth muscle of the uterine tube
contractions every 4-8 seconds and cordinates movement of cilia
512
body of the uterus
middle section
513
superior portion of the uterus that conects to the filopian tubes is the
fondus
514
regulated by the involuntary ANS
voiding/internal urinary sphincter consisting of smooth musle and voluntary skeletal that forms the external sphincter
515
in women the bladder lies
anterior to the uterus
posterior to the pubic bone
anterior to the rectom
516
interior of the bladder is
made of transitional cellular epithelium for large volume fluxuations
(0-500,600ml)
517
Properterm for unination or voiding
micturition
518
connect the renal pelvis (kidneys) to the bladder
ureters
(lined with trasitional epithelium)
519
waves of peristalsis and hydrostatic pressure and gravity
move urin thought the ureter
520
ribs 11 and 12 protect ____ in the retroperitoneal space.
left is about t12-t13 right is lower due to liver
kidneys - need 25% of cadiac output
521
CT extensions that radiate downward from the cortex through the medulla to separate the renal pyramids and renal papillae
renal colums
522
6-8 cone shaped tissues in the medulla of the kidney containing collecting ducts and the loops of henle of the juctaglomerular nephrons
Renal pyramids
523
cup like structures recieving urins from the collecting ducts and passes it on to the renal pelvis and ureter
minor and major
Calyces
524
fromed from the minor and major calyces.
smooth muscle that funnels urine into the ureter via peristalisis and hydrostatic pressure
Renal pelvis
525
the functional unit of the kidney; cleanse the blood and balance the constituents of the circulation
Nephrons
526
Afferent Arteriole
Glomerulus
Efferent arteriole
Pertiular capillary
Vasa Recta
AGEPV
order of blood vessels around the nephron
AGEPV
527
filtrate moves though the
nephron
528
Vasa recta
Peritubular capillary
VP
recover most of the solutes and water from the filtrate and return them to circulation
PORTAL SYSTEM
529
parts of the nephron that perform filtration
Renal corpuscle:
glomerulus and bowmans capsule
530
parts of the nephron that do secretion and reabsorption
Renal Tubules:
PCT -proximal convoluted tubule
DCT - distal convoluted tubule
Loop of henle
531
Parts of the Nephron that make final adjustments
Collecting ducts
532
simple squamous epithelium (parirtal layer)
then transitions to glomerular capillaries (viceral layer/ podocytes)
outside to of the bowmans capsule
533
cells with finger like arms that cover glomerular capillaries, and project interdigitate to form filtration slits leaving small gaps b/w digits to form a sieve
Podocytes
534
3 things that form the filtration membrane
fenestrations
basement membraine
podocytes
535
this prevents filtrations of blood cells and larg protiens
fenestrations
536
prevents filtration of medium to large protiens
basement membrane
537
stops filtration of medium sized protiens and NOT small ones
podocytes
538
DTC > JGA (macula densa). a cluster of cuboidal epithelial cells that
monitor fluid composition (Na+) flowing through the DTC as well as rate of fluid via nonmotile cilium.
539
JGA releases paracrine signals____ and ____ in responce to Na+ concentration and change in flow rage
ATP and adenosine
540
JGA cell that modified smooth muscle cell lining in the afferent arteriole (contract or relax) in response to ATP or adenosine released by the macula densa
Juxtaglomular cell
541
jga macula densa releases ATP or adenosine and causes the
juxtaglomular cells to contract or relax the afferent arteriole in response to flow/Na+
controlling the GFR (glomerular filtration rate)
542
too much Na+
juxtaglomular cells contract and decresase GFR, leading to less plasma filtration and less urine and decreases Na+ in the DTC
543
Not enough Na+
Juxtaglomular cells relax and increase GFR, enhancing the loss of water to urine causing Na+ to rise
544
GFR
keeps rate of filtration consistant
545
PCT is lined with_____
more substances move across PCT membrane then any other portion of the nephron
simple cuboidal cells with microvilli on luminal surface (same as decending Loop of Henle)
67% H2O,Na+,K+ reabsobed in the PCT
100% glucose, amino acids, vitamins etc
546
decending - thick made of simple cuboidal cells similar to PCT
thin portion is made of simple squamous epithelium,
ascending - thick simple cuboital cells with out cilia similar to DCT
Loop of henle
ASCENDING is completely impermeable to water due to absence of aquaporin channels, makes filtrate hypoosmotic by the time it reaches the DCT
547
collecting ducts
simple squamus epithelium
stimulated by ADH - increases water retention
548
99% of filteration is
returned to circulation
1-2L urine/day
549
afferent arterioles change hydrostatic pressure by
dilate to increase flow to glomerulus
550
efferent arterioles change hydrostatic pressure by
constrict
551
is essential for the reabsorption of nutriens in renal tubles
Na+ movement
552
secrete and absorbe acid or bicarbonate
intercalated cells
553
causes aquaporin channels to be inserted onto the apical membrane be principle cells. water flows into peritubular capillaries
ADH
554
Pricipal cells have receptors for
Alderosterone. regulates Na+ recovery
principal cells manufature luminal Na+ and K+ channels and pumps on the basal membrane
555
regulate blood PH and reabsorb K+ and HC03- while sectreting H+ into filtrate and increasing the acidity of urine
Intercalated cells
increase acidity
556
nitrogen wastes produce by the removal of amine group of amino acids
(break town of creatine from muscle tissue)
deamination
results in urea or uric acid
557
wastes from the break down of purine nucleic acids
uric acid
558
Annulo + nuclear bag
rate of change in a spindle
559
flower + nuclear chain
change in length of a spindle
560
