EXAMPLE EXAM QUESTION Flashcards

1
Q

Petechaie are best described as

A

tiny purple, red, or brown spots on the skin

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2
Q

Infective endocarditis will generally be treated with which group of medications?

A

Antibiotics

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3
Q

Which of the following is not an independent risk factor of coronary artery disease?

A

Corneal Arcus

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4
Q

An acidotic state is likely due to present with what breathing pattern?

A

Kussmalls

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5
Q

Bronchiectasis is likely to result in which type of sputum?

A

Yellow-green purulent

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6
Q

How many more times likely is a child with a congenital heart defect likely to suffer a stroke than a child with nil co-morbidities?

A

19

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7
Q

You ask your patient to shrug there shoulders. Which cranial nerve are you testing for?

A

11

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8
Q

A sharp unilateral periorbital pressure is likely to be which sort of headache?

A

Cluster

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9
Q

If a patient is suffering from an itchy, painful external ear canal, the course of treatment is likely to be what?

A

Ear drops

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10
Q

Which of the following does not form part of the centor critera?

A

Presence of cough

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11
Q

A boggy swelling over the point of the elbow without a history of trauma is likely to be what?

A

Olecranon bursitis

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12
Q

The Mills test is used to identify which of the following?

A

Lateral epicondylitis

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13
Q

Swelling in the posterior region of the knee without a pulsation is likely to be which of the following?

A

Bakers cyst

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14
Q

A palpable serous fluid filled cavity <1cm is otherwise known as

A

Vesicle

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15
Q

A butterfly appearance to a facial rash may be due to which of the following?

A

Lupus

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16
Q

During pregnancy, implantation bleeding typically happens at what period following fertilisation?

A

5 -12 days

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17
Q

Pregnancy increase the risk of DVT development by around which figure?

A

5 - 10 x

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18
Q

Which of the following delays the stages of healing?

A

Anti-coagulants

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19
Q

Intra-abdominal abscesses are a complication of Crohn’s disease?

A

True

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20
Q

what two muscles of the rotator cuff are prone to impingement? why?

A

supraspinatus and infraspinatus

these muscles help innovate abduction. overhead activities

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21
Q

what can a GP referral do for a shoulder injury?

A

start non invasive treatments e.g.
- physiotherapy
- corticosteroid injections
- surgery referral

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22
Q

what connects the radius to the humerus allowing for pronation and supination?

A

Annular ligament

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23
Q

nursemaids elbow is aka and most common in who

A

Pulled elbow and Children

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24
Q

Olecranon bursitis is…

A

inflammation of the bursae

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25
Q

Tennis elbow is more commonly known as?
pathophysiology of the injury?

A

Lateral epicondylitis
repetitive strain injury

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26
Q

conservative treatment for Olecranon bursitis

A

Aseptic - resolves in 8 weeks
Septic - requires antibiotics + close monitoring

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27
Q

Treatments of a septic joint

A

Effusion may be drained
persistent cases need corticoid steroid injections

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28
Q

name the 8 Carpal bones

A

Scaphoid
Lunate
Triquetrum
Pisiform
Trapezium
Trapezoid
Capitate
Hamate

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29
Q

most commonly injured carpal bone?

A

Scaphoid - size and prominence

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30
Q

Where is the sesamoid bone located?

A

between the metacarpal and proximal phalanges in the thumb

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31
Q

Which heart sound is purely pathological

A

S4 - Thrills

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32
Q

What are the 5 P’s of peripheral artery disease

A

Pallor
Paralysis
Parastesia
Pain
Pulse

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33
Q

What system assessment would you not complete auscultation last and why

A

Abdominal
Created bowel sounds from false movement

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34
Q

What should a patient say when assessing tactile felremitus

A

99

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35
Q

What lymph glands are located over the ears

A

Pre auricular

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36
Q

What joint is closest to the tip of the finger

A

Distal interpharangeal

37
Q

What type of deformity presents in a patient with rickets

A

Valgus deformity

38
Q

3 cranial nerves responsible for eye movements

A

Trochlear, occularmotor, abducens

39
Q

How do you correctly document a lub dub sound with no adventitious sound on the heart valve auscultation

A

S1+S2+0

40
Q

Which breathing pattern associated with metabolic acidosis

A

Kussmauls

41
Q

3 vocal consolidation sounds when assessing breathing sounds

A

Egophany
Bronchophany
Wispered petriloquy

42
Q

Which heart valve prevents blood returning to the right atrium during contractions

A

Tricuspid

43
Q

How many grades of heart murmur are there

A

6

44
Q

Which respiratory sound should be heard over the trachea over someone in good health

A

Bronchial sound

45
Q

What tests for the LCL ligament

A

Varus stress test

46
Q

What is the nerve ending affecting the funny bone?

A

Ulna nerve

47
Q

What muscle and nerve does the regimental badge sign test?

A

Axillary nerve
Deltoid muscle

48
Q

Where do you test for a scaphoid fracture?

A

Snuffbox

49
Q

What cranial nerve is responsible for tounge twisters?

A

Hypoglossal

50
Q

How far should a tongue depressor go into the mouth?

A

1/3rd

51
Q

What are the 4 muscles of the rotator cuff?

A

Supraspinatus
Infraspinatus
Subscapularis
Teres minor

52
Q

What tests for the MCL ligament?

A

Valgus test

53
Q

What tests the nerves in the hand?

A

Kumars sign

54
Q

What tests for cerebella function?

A

The Rhombergs Test

55
Q

What are the 3 tests for vocal sounds?

A

Bronchophany, Egophany and Whispered Pectoriloquy

56
Q

What is the threshold for a raised ICP?

A

Between 3-5cm

57
Q

What are the two tests for pyelonephritis?

A

Kidney tenderness on palpation
CVA tenderness

58
Q

what is the eye test chart called?

A

Snellen

59
Q

what are the 6F’s of abdominal distention?

A
  • fat
  • fluid
  • flatus
  • faeces
  • foetus
  • fulminant mass
60
Q
A
61
Q

What three inputs does the cerebellum utilise to allow us to balance?

A

vestibular, visual, and proprioception

62
Q

what are the sinuses most likely to be inflamed in the case of siusitis

A

maxillary and the anterior ethmoid sinuses.

63
Q

Whispered pectoriloquy is a test for what in the lungs?

A

evaluate for the presence of lung consolidation

64
Q

The Valgus stress test is in association with what ligament?

A

Medial collateral ligament

65
Q

On auscultation of the heart valves, an S4 sound is always pathological. True or false?

A

True

66
Q

Adam has fallen on his outstretched hand whilst his wrist was dorsiflexed, he appears to have a something fracture

what is something in this case?

A

Colles

67
Q

Arabella has cut her hand on a trowel whilst gardening. Her family are opposed to vaccinations and she does not think she has ever had any. Under these circumstances, what vaccine should you advise her to consent to receiving? The _____________ vaccine.

A

Tetnus

68
Q

You meet Terrence whilst on placement at a HASU. Terrence has a right sided facial drop. He has no headache and no other neurological deficit. A CT scan shows no indication of ischaemia.

You are asked to give Terrence the good news that he is not having a CVA or a TIA and that the likely diagnosis is ………….

A

Bells palsy

69
Q

You are on placement in a UCC when you are asked to help keep eighteen month old Ronan still for otoscopy.

Ronan is very, very distressed and pulling at his ear. He is also pyrexic. The ENP tells you that his tympanic membrane is bulging and there is fluid behind it.

Your diagnosis (using correct, medical terminology) for this patient is

A

Otitis media

70
Q

The most likely valve to be affected with endocarditis in the case of an intravenous drug user is the _____________ valve.

A

tricuspid

71
Q

Which muscles comprise the rotator cuff?

A

Supraspinatus
Infraspinatus
Subscapularis
Teres minor

72
Q

Where does the axillary nerve originate from?

A

C5 & C6

73
Q

The cross body adduction test assesses for which two impingements?

A

supraspinatus & acromioclavicular joint

74
Q

Which nerves does the Kumar’s Test assess?

A

Radial, medial and ulnar

75
Q

Inability to oppose the thumb and index finger indicates damage to which nerve?

A

medial

76
Q

Approximately how long does it take a ruptured tympanic membrane to heal?

A

3 months

77
Q

Ottawa Ankle Rules?

A

Any one of the following:
Bone tenderness at the base of the fifth metatarsal (for foot injuries), OR
Bone tenderness at the navicular bone (for foot injuries), OR
An inability to bear weight both immediately and in the emergency department for four steps.

78
Q

Parasternal heaves felt at the left sternal edge indicate what pathology?

A

Right ventricular enlargement

79
Q

Which foreign object would Urgent Care Centre staff be unwilling to remove from eighteen month old Morag’s ear?
Group of answer choices

a lego head

b squashed pea

c spider

d battery

A

D

80
Q

The presence of ptosis and nystagmus indicate a problem with which cranial nerve?

A

CN III

81
Q

Apixaban, Aspirin, Atenolol, Prednisolone, Ramipril, Salbutamol and Simvastatin.

A
82
Q

A patient presents with a two-day history of a sore throat. Upon inspection of the oral cavity you visualise unilateral bulging and a deviated uvula away from the bulging lesion. Which condition is most likely?

A

Peritonsillar abscess

83
Q

Which of the following is the most common type of headache experienced?
Group of answer choices

Cluster

Caffeine related

Migraine

Tension type headache

A
84
Q

Which of the following is NOT a NICE recommendation for transport to hospital following a head injury?
Group of answer choices

Regular corticosteroids

Persistent vomiting

Previous neurosurgery

Any clotting or bleeding disorders

A

Regular corticosteroids

85
Q

During auscultation of the abdominal arteries, you hear a bruit, which of the following disease processes could this signify?
Group of answer choices

Liver cirrhosis

Sickle-cell anaemia

Malaria

Abdominal aortic aneurysm

A
86
Q

Overflow diarrhoea is associated with which condition?
Group of answer choices

Crohn’s disease

Norovirus

Gastroenteritis

Bowel obstruction

A

Bowel obstruction

87
Q

An ataxic gait is associated with with region of the brain?
Group of answer choices

Cerebellum

Frontal lobe

Occipital lobe

Temporal lobe

A
88
Q

You assess a patient and notice that he has xanthelasma and corneal arcus. This indicates to you that the patient has what?

A

high colestrol

89
Q
A