extra biochem Q's (endterm) Flashcards
(198 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following releases pepsinogen?
a. parietal cells
b. chief cells
c. somatic cells
A
b. chief cells
2
Q
Common activator of pancreatic zymogens
a. carboxypeptidase
b. elastase
c. chymotrypsin
d. trypsin
A
d. trypsin
3
Q
Which of the following convert trypsinogen to trypsin?
a. endopeptidase
b. exopeptidase
c. enteropeptidase
A
c. enteropeptidase
4
Q
Which characterizes an aminopeptidase?
a. endopeptidase
b. exopeptidase
c. enteropeptidase
A
b. exopeptidase
5
Q
How are tripeptides absorbed into the intestine?
a. Na+ linked secondary transport system
b. H+ linked transport system
c. Facilitated diffusion
A
b. H+-linked transport system
6
Q
Which characterizes pepsin?
a. endopeptidase
b. exopeptidase
c. enteropeptidase
A
a. endopeptidase
7
Q
Where do you find more amino acids?
a. in cells
b. in extracellular space
A
a. in cells
8
Q
How do free AA’s go into the portal system?
a. Na+ linked secondary transport system
b. H+ linked transport system
c. Facilitated diffusion
A
c. Facilitated diffusion
released into general circulation
9
Q
How do free AA’s go into the intestinal enterocytes?
a. Na+ linked secondary transport system
b. H+ linked transport system
c. Facilitated diffusion
A
a. Na+ linked secondary transport system
10
Q
What’s FALSE about cystinuria?
a. leads to cystine stones in the urinary tract
b. a disorder of the glomerulus
c. cystine, ornithine, arginine, & lysine cannot be reabsorbed
A
b. a disorder of the glomerulus
a disorder of the proximal convoluted tubule
11
Q
Location of pepsin
a. pancreas
b. stomach
c. intestine
A
b. stomach
12
Q
Location of trypsin
a. pancreas
b. stomach
c. intestine
A
a. pancreas
13
Q
Why do the active transport systems of AA require ATP?
A
The concentration of AA is lower in ECM than in cells
14
Q
What’s the function of aminopeptidases?
a. Cleave C terminal of oligopeptides
b. Cleave N terminal of oligopeptides
c. Cleave side chain of oligopeptides
A
b. Cleave N terminal of oligopeptides
15
Q
Acetyl CoA is synthesized into fatty acids when it goes to the…
a. mitochondria
b. golgi
c. cytoplasm
A
c. cytoplasm
16
Q
Acetyl CoA is synthesized into ATP when it goes to the…
a. mitochondria
b. golgi
c. cytoplasm
A
a. mitochondria
17
Q
Which of the following does Acetyl CoA get turned into so it can cross the mitochondrial membrane?
a. oxaloacetate
b. citrate
c. coA
A
b. citrate
18
Q
What’s the rate-limiting enzyme of fatty acid synthesis
A
Acetyl CoA Carboxylase (AAC)
needs biotin coenzyme
19
Q
Which of the following inhibits Acetyl CoA Carboxylase (AAC) function?
a. citrate
b. insulin
c. G6P
d. glucagon
A
d. glucagon
20
Q
How does Acetyl CoA Carboxylase (AAC) react to being phosphorylated?
a. gets activated
b. gets inhibited
A
b. gets inhibited
it hates phosphates!
21
Q
how many FA synthesis cycles does it take to make palmitate (16C)?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7
A
d. 7
requires 14 NADPH
22
Q
Which of the following can humans make?
a. omega 3
b. omega 6
c. omega 9
A
c. omega 9
monounsaturated
23
Q
Where can free glycerol be converted to G3P via glycerol kinase?
a. adipose tissue
b. liver
c. pancreas
A
b. liver
this is the second pathway of G3P synthesis
24
Q
The product of transamination is mostly
a. arginine
b. glutamate
c. glutamine
d. aspartate
A
b. glutamate
25
Which co-enzyme do transaminases need?
a. Cu
b. biotin
c. pyridoxal phosphate
d. vitamin D
c. pyridoxal phosphate
| a B6 derivative
26
Where does oxidate deamination take place?
a. kidney
b. pancreas
c. small intestine
d. bowl
a. kidney (and the liver)
oxidate deamination= liberation of free ammonia from glutamate
27
Urea gets the oxygen from CO2 and one of the nitrogens from free ammonia. Where does it get the second nitrogen from?
a. arginine
b. glutamate
c. glutamine
d. aspartate
d. aspartate
28
Rate limiting enzyme of urea cycle
carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
| NAG allosterically activates it
29
Which of the following can only enter the mitochondria?
a. L-Citrulline
b. L-Ornithine
b. L-Ornithine
30
Which of the following can only leave the mitochondria?
a. L-Citrulline
b. L-Ornithine
a. L-Citrulline
31
How can you treat Ornithine Transcarbamoylase (OTC) Deficiency?
a. limit lactose
b. limit protein
c. limit fructose
b. limit protein
32
What does the spin restriction of an oxygen biradical achieve?
a. unstability
b. low reactivity
c. high reactivity
b. low reactivity
| "barrier to reaction"
33
How is the half-life related to reactivity?
a. directly proportional
b. inversely proportional
b. inversely proportional
34
Which of the following is more reactive?
a. singlet oxygen
b. biradical oxygen
a. singlet oxygen
35
Which of the following ROS is neutralized by beta carotene?
a. superoxide
b. singlet oxygen
c. hydrogen peroxide
d. hydroxyl radical
b. singlet oxygen
36
Which of the following ROS releases iron from Fe-S clusters?
a. superoxide
b. singlet oxygen
c. hydrogen peroxide
d. hydroxyl radical
a. superoxide
37
When (the antioxidant enzyme) superoxide dismutase stops superoxide from release iron from the Fe-S protein, it produces...
a. superoxide
b. singlet oxygen
c. hydrogen peroxide
d. hydroxyl radical
c. hydrogen peroxide
38
Which of the following enzymes is the best against hydrogen peroxide (has the highest catalytic activity)?
a. CAT
b. GPx
a. CAT
```
CAT= Chloramphenicol acetyltransferase
GPx= Glutathione peroxidase
```
39
Which of the following enzymes is most used against hydrogen peroxide?
a. CAT
b. GPx
b. GPx
| CAT has a high Km, it needs hydrogen peroxide to be high to work
40
Which of the following ROS reacts with everything & has no selectivity?
a. superoxide
b. singlet oxygen
c. hydrogen peroxide
d. hydroxyl radical
d. hydroxyl radical
41
How are antioxidants helpful if they also produce radicals?
they produce radicals with lower reactivity, and their radical product can be recycled
42
Which of the following is linked to a ribose sugar?
a. adenine
b. adenosine
b. adenosine
43
Which of the following positively activates PRPP synthase (5-phosphoribosyl-1-pyrophosphate synthase)?
a. AMP
b. purine ribonucleotides
c. phosphate
c. phosphate
| control PRPP= control purine synthesis
44
Which of the following is acted on by ribonucleotide reductase so it can be converted into a deoxynucleotide?
a. ribonucleoside monophosphate
b. ribonucleoside diphosphate
c. ribonucleoside triphosphate
b. ribonucleoside diphosphate
45
Which of the following acts on the "substrate specificity sites" of ribonucleotide reductase?
a. ribonucleoside monophosphate
b. ribonucleoside diphosphate
c. ribonucleoside triphosphate
c. ribonucleoside triphosphate
46
Which best describes pyrimidine biosynthesis?
a. ring first then the sugar
b. sugar first then the ring
a. ring first then the sugar
| purine is the opposite
47
Describe the purine nucleotide cycle
occurs when there's a high demand for energy on skeletal muscle
AMP is made into IMP, then the IMP is used to convert aspartate (which has a high concentration) into fumarate. Fumarate is used make more ATP via the Krebs cycle.
48
Which enzyme is used to make uric acid?
a. xanthine oxidase
b. adenyl kinase
a. xanthine oxidase
49
uric acid has a higher solubility in
a. acidic ph
b. alkaline ph
c. cold environments
b. alkaline ph
50
Which of the following is a bad treatment of gout?
a. inhibit xanthine oxidase
b. stimulate uric acid secretion kidneys
c. eliminate meat from the diet
d. alkalize the blood
d. alkalize the blood
| inhibit xanthine oxidase via allopurinol
51
Which of the following converts triglycerides into diglycerides?
a. monoglyceride lipase (MGL)
b. hormone-sensitive lipase (HSL)
c. adipose triglyceride lipase (ATGL)
c. adipose triglyceride lipase (ATGL)
52
Which of the following converts monoglycerides into glycerol and free fatty acids?
a. monoglyceride lipase (MGL)
b. hormone-sensitive lipase (HSL)
c. adipose triglyceride lipase (ATGL)
a. monoglyceride lipase (MGL)
53
Which of the following is the rate-limiting enzyme?
a. monoglyceride lipase (MGL)
b. hormone-sensitive lipase (HSL)
c. adipose triglyceride lipase (ATGL)
b. hormone-sensitive lipase (HSL)
| diglyceride into monoglyceride
54
Which TWO of the following inhibit hormone-sensitive lipase (HSL)?
a. glucagon
b. insulin
c. perilipin
d. dephosphorylation
b. insulin
&
d. dephosphorylation
(HSL likes phosphorus!)
55
After triglycerides are broken down into glycerol and free fatty acids, where is glycerol broken down?
a. plasma
b. muscle
c. liver
c. liver
| the only place that has glycerol kinase
56
After triglycerides are broken down into glycerol and free fatty acids, where do free fatty acids go?
a. plasma
b. muscle
c. liver
b. muscle
| specifically into the mitochondria
57
Which of the following carnitine shuttle enzymes removes CoA and adds carnitine?
a. Carnitine palmitoyltransferase I (CPT-I)
b. Carnitine palmitoyltransferase II (CPT-II)
c. Carnitine-acylcarnitine translocase
a. Carnitine palmitoyltransferase I (CPT-I)
58
Which of the following carnitine shuttle enzymes removes carnitine and adds CoA?
a. Carnitine palmitoyltransferase I (CPT-I)
b. Carnitine palmitoyltransferase II (CPT-II)
c. Carnitine-acylcarnitine translocase
b. Carnitine palmitoyltransferase II (CPT-II)
59
Which of the following carnitine shuttle enzymes transports the palmitoyl-carnitine complex into the mitochondrial
matrix?
a. Carnitine palmitoyltransferase I (CPT-I)
b. Carnitine palmitoyltransferase II (CPT-II)
c. Carnitine-acylcarnitine translocase
c. Carnitine-acylcarnitine translocase
| brings it in, in exchange for a free carnitine
60
Which of the following can produce the most ATP's?
a. GTP
b. NADH
c. FADH2
b. NADH
```
NADH= 3 ATP's
FADH2= 2 ATP's
GTP= 1 ATP
```
61
What does each FA oxidation cycle produce?
a. 2C + 2NADH + FADH(2)
b. 2C + NADH + FADH(2)
c. 3C + 2NADH + FADH(2)
b. 2C + NADH + FADH(2)
| totals to 17 ATP's
62
What does each Acetyl CoA produce?
a. 1NADH + 2FADH(2) + 1GTP
b. 2NADH + 2FADH(2) + 1GTP
c. 12 ATP's
d. 15 ATP's
c. 12 ATP's
3NADH + 2FADH(2) + 1GTP
63
What does the 3 carboned propionyl CoA produce?
1 NADH + 1 FADH2 + 1 GTP = 6 ATP's
64
What's the rate-limiting enzyme of cholesterol synthesis?
HMG CoA reductase
| makes HMG CoA into mevalonate
65
Which of the following activates HMG CoA reductase?
a. SCAP
b. SREB-2
c. INSIG
d. SRE
b. SREB-2
| INSIG stops it from binding
66
Which of the following activates HMG CoA reductase?
a. glucagon
b. insulin
c. ubiquitin
b. insulin
| insulin dephosphorylates it
67
What enzyme esterifies cholesterol?
Acyl CoA Cholesterol Acyl Transferase (ACAT)
68
Where are bile acids are converted into bile salts?
a. liver
c. intestine
d. kidney
a. liver
conjugating with glycine and taurine
69
Where are bile salts are converted into bile acids?
a. liver
c. intestine
d. kidney
c. intestine
removing glycine and taurine
70
Where are primary bile salts are secreted?
a. duodenum
b. ileum
c. jejunum
a. duodenum
71
Rate-limiting enzyme of bile acid synthesis
Cholesterol-7-α-hydroxylase
72
Which of the following has the highest protein content?
a. Chylomicrons (CM)
b. Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL)
c. Low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
d. High-density lipoproteins (HDL)
d. High-density lipoproteins (HDL)
73
Which of the following has the highest triglyceride content?
a. Chylomicrons (CM)
b. Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL)
c. Low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
d. High-density lipoproteins (HDL)
a. Chylomicrons (CM)
74
Which of the following activates Lipoprotein Lipase (LPL)?
a. ApoA-1
b. Apo B-48
c. Apo B-100
d. Apo C-II
e. Apo E
d. Apo C-II
75
What does Lipoprotein Lipase (LPL) do?
a. converts VLDL into LDL
b. converts LDL into VLDL
c. hydrolyzes the triacylglycerol (TAG) into free fatty acids and glycerol
c. hydrolyzes the triacylglycerol (TAG) into free fatty acids and glycerol
76
Which of the following is important to be for hepatic receptor recognition?
a. ApoA-1
b. Apo B-48
c. Apo B-100
d. Apo C-II
e. Apo E
e. Apo E
77
Which of the following gives Apo C-II & Apo E to Chylomicrons and VLDL's?
a. Chylomicrons (CM)
b. Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL)
c. Low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
d. High-density lipoproteins (HDL)
d. High-density lipoproteins (HDL)
78
What membrane protein aids in endocytosis of LDL?
clathrin
79
Which of the following is responsible for reverse cholesterol transport?
a. Chylomicrons (CM)
b. Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL)
c. Low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
d. High-density lipoproteins (HDL)
d. High-density lipoproteins (HDL)
80
Which of the following is HDL specific?
a. ApoA-1
b. Apo B-48
c. Apo B-100
d. Apo C-II
e. Apo E
a. ApoA-1
| activates LCAT
81
Which type of HDL gives cholesterol esters to VLDL via cholesteryl ester transfer protein (CETP)?
a. HDL 2
b. HDL 3
a. HDL 2
| because it's cholesteryl ester rich
82
LCAT and ACAT both esterify cholesterol. What's the difference?
LCAT uses phosphatidylcholine (PC) to estrify it while ACAT uses acyl-CoA
83
How does HDL 2 (cholesteryl ester rich) become HDL 3 (cholesteryl ester poor)?
a. by giving it's cholesterol esters and lipids to VLDL
b. by giving it's cholesterol esters and lipids to the liver
b. by giving it's cholesterol esters and lipids to the liver
84
Which of the following characterizes cardiolipin?
a. sphingophospholipid
b. glycerophospholipid
b. glycerophospholipid
| cardiolipin= 2 Phosphatic acids + glycerol
85
Where is cardiolipin found?
a. RER
b. outer mitochondrial membrane
c. inner mitochondrial membrane
d. the nucleus
c. inner mitochondrial membrane
86
Which of the following characterizes ceramide?
a. sphingophospholipid
b. glycerophospholipid
a. sphingophospholipid
87
Which of the following is characterized by fatty liver, mental retardation, and neural degeneration?
a. Sphingomyelinase deficiency
b. Ceramidase deficiency
a. Sphingomyelinase deficiency
| Niemann-Pick disease
88
What causes Farber's disease?
a. Sphingomyelinase deficiency
b. Ceramidase deficiency
b. Ceramidase deficiency
| symptoms= joint deformities and granulomas
89
Which of the following has ceramide as a precursor?
a. sphingoglycolipid
b. sphingophospholipid
c. both
d. neither
c. both
| ceramide= sphingo
90
Phosphatidylinositol (PI) is classified as a
a. sphingophospholipid
b. glycerophospholipid
b. glycerophospholipid
91
Which of the following makes Arachidonic acid?
a. Phospholipase A1
b. Phospholipase A2
c. Phospholipase C
d. Phospholipase D
b. Phospholipase A2
92
Which of the following makes DiacylGlycerol (DAG)?
a. Phospholipase A1
b. Phospholipase A2
c. Phospholipase C
d. Phospholipase D
c. Phospholipase C
93
Which of the following makes Stearic acid?
a. Phospholipase A1
b. Phospholipase A2
c. Phospholipase C
d. Phospholipase D
a. Phospholipase A1
94
Which of the following eicosanoids inhibit platelet aggregation?
a. prostacyclin
b. thromboxanes
c. leukotrienes
a. prostacyclin
95
Which of the following eicosanoids promotes platelet aggregation?
a. prostacyclin
b. thromboxanes
c. leukotrienes
b. thromboxanes
96
Which of the following eicosanoids contracts smooth muscle?
a. prostacyclin
b. thromboxanes
c. leukotrienes
c. leukotrienes
97
How do you make a sphingosine?
a. stearic acid + proline
b. stearic acid + serine
c. palmitic acid + serine
d. palmitic acid + proline
c. palmitic acid + serine
98
Which of the following reach the peripheral tissue before the liver?
a. fats
b. carbs
c. protein
a. fats
99
Which TWO of the following amino acids can only be used as fuel in the ketogenic pathway?
a. lysine
b. proline
c. serine
d. leucine
e. alanine
f. arginine
a. lysine
&
d. leucine
100
What does the glucose-alanine cycle do?
a. give amino acids from liver to muscle, to be used for energy
b. give glucose from liver to muscle, to be used for energy
b. give glucose from liver to muscle, to be used for energy
101
Which of the following stimulate insulin release?
a. lysine
b. proline
c. serine
d. leucine
e. alanine
f. arginine
f. arginine
102
Why can't the liver not use ketone bodies?
it doesn't have acetoacetate CoA Transferase (thiaphorase)
103
Which amino acid is most used by the kidney?
a. glutamine
b. leucine
c. alanine
d. arginine
a. glutamine
| the most important donor of NH(3) in kidney
104
Which of the following is FALSE type 1 diabetes?
a. Decreased glucose uptake
b. High ketone body synthesis
c. Hypolipidemia
d. Mobilization of amino acidsfrom muscle
c. Hypolipidemia
105
Which of the following is based on estimates and used when there isn't enough research?
a. adequate intake (AI)
b. estimated average requirement (EAR)
c. recommended dietary allowance (RDA)
d. upper intake level (UL)
a. adequate intake (AI)
106
Which of the following meets the requirement of 50% of healthy individuals?
a. adequate intake (AI)
b. estimated average requirement (EAR)
c. recommended dietary allowance (RDA)
d. upper intake level (UL)
b. estimated average requirement (EAR)
107
Which of the following is more dense?
a. muscle
b. fat
a. muscle
108
A man's BMI is 25, which of the following is his health status?
a. underweight
b. healthy
c. overweight
d. obese
c. overweight
109
Which of the following uses oxygen intake to measure energy input?
a. Direct Calorimetry
b. Indirect Calorimetry
c. Bomb Calorimeter
b. Indirect Calorimetery
110
Which is a more accurate risk predictor?
a. BMI
b. Waist to hip ratio
b. Waist to hip ratio
111
Which of the following induces less thermogenesis after a meal?
a. protein
b. carbs
c. lipids
c. lipids
112
What is TRUE about celiac disease?
a. damaged villi due to celiac can be repaired once gluten is removed from the diet
b. people with latent celiac disease have normal villi
c. the gluten damages the intestine due to celiac disease
b. people with latent celiac disease have normal villi
| celiac disease is when the body attacks itself due to the gluten
113
Which of the following occurs in Ramadan, when people are fasting?
a. nitrogen intake high
b. nitrogen excretion high
b. nitrogen excretion high
114
Which of the following does NOT supply all essential AA?
a. quinoa
b. gelatin
c. soy beans
b. gelatin
| lacks tryptophan
115
Protein deficiency causes
a. Marasmus
b. Kwashiorkor
b. Kwashiorkor
116
Hair and mental changes commonly accompany
a. Marasmus
b. Kwashiorkor
b. Kwashiorkor
117
Which of the following is a monosaccharide?
a. Maltose
b. Fructose
c. Lactose
d. Sucose
b. Fructose
118
Where does Starch Digestion occur?
a. mouth
b. stomach
a. mouth
| and it continues in the duodenum
119
Which of the following has the lowest Glycemic index?
a. monosaccharides
b. disaccharides
c. polysaccharides
c. polysaccharides
120
Which is more abundant in proteins?
a. tryptophan
b. alanine
b. alanine
| it's small and easily incorporated while tryptophan is big and bulky
121
Which of the following helps regulate cholesterol efflux?
a. linoleic acid (18:2N-6)
b. linolenic acid (18:3N-3)
b. linolenic acid (18:3N-3)
122
Which of the following helps regulate gene expression?
a. linoleic acid (18:2N-6)
b. linolenic acid (18:3N-3)
a. linoleic acid (18:2N-6)
123
Which of the following helps regulate skin permeability?
a. linoleic acid (18:2N-6)
b. linolenic acid (18:3N-3)
a. linoleic acid (18:2N-6)
124
Which of the following makes up the plasma membrane of the retina and brain?
a. linoleic acid (18:2N-6)
b. linolenic acid (18:3N-3)
b. linolenic acid (18:3N-3)
125
Stomach acid inactivates which enzyme?
a. amylase
b. lingual lipase
a. amylase
126
chief cells make which enzyme?
a. lingual lipase
b. amylase
c. gastric lipase
d. pancreatic lipase
c. gastric lipase
127
Which of the following makes the intestine more alkaline so pancreatic lipase can work?
a. Cholecystokinin (CCK)
b. Secretin
c. Co-lipase
b. Secretin
128
Which of the following decreases gastric motility and contracts the gall bladder?
a. Cholecystokinin (CCK)
b. Secretin
c. Co-lipase
a. Cholecystokinin (CCK)
129
Where are short chain triglycerides (SCT) absorbed?
a. stomach
b. small intestine
c. large intestine
a. stomach
130
Which of the following decrease HDL?
a. monounsaturated fat
b. saturated fatty acids
c. trans fatty acids
c. trans fatty acids
131
Which of the following gets absorbed less when eaten with egg whites?
a. Vitamin B1
b. Vitamin B2
c. Vitamin B7
d. Niacin
e. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin B7
| biotin's absorption decreases when talen with Avidin- which is found in egg whites
132
Which of the following is the least stable?
a. Vitamin B1
b. Vitamin B2
c. Vitamin B7
d. Niacin
e. Vitamin C
e. Vitamin C
133
Which of the following causes Pellagra when deficient?
a. Vitamin B1
b. Vitamin B2
c. Vitamin B7
d. Niacin
e. Vitamin C
d. Niacin
Pellagra = 4 D’s (dermatitis, diarrhea,dementia, death)
134
Which of the following helps with iron absorption?
a. Vitamin B1
b. Vitamin B2
c. Vitamin B7
d. Niacin
e. Vitamin C
e. Vitamin C
135
```
Which of the following is a key coenzyme for energy
producing reactions?
a. Vitamin B1
b. Vitamin B2
c. Vitamin B7
d. Niacin
e. Vitamin C
```
a. Vitamin B1
| thiamin
136
Which of the following causes Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome and Beriberi?
a. Vitamin B1
b. Vitamin B2
c. Vitamin B7
d. Niacin
e. Vitamin C
a. Vitamin B1
137
Which of the following is light sensitive?
a. Vitamin B1
b. Vitamin B2
c. Vitamin B7
d. Niacin
e. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin B2
138
A deficiency of which of the following can be alcohol induced?
a. Vitamin B1
b. Vitamin B2
c. Vitamin B7
d. Niacin
e. Vitamin C
a. Vitamin B1
139
Which of the following inhibits blood clotting?
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin E
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin K
b. Vitamin E
140
Which of the following is an antioxidant?
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin E
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin K
b. Vitamin E
141
Which of the following causes blindness and kidney stones?
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin E
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin K
a. Vitamin A
142
Which of the following increases with age?
a. total body water
b. intracellular compartment
c. extracellular compartment
b. intracellular compartment
143
Who is more susceptible to dehydration?
infants and the elderly
144
The major cation of EC fluid
a. Na
b. K
c. Ca
a. Na
145
The major cation in the Cell
a. Na
b. K
c. Ca
d. Phosphorus
b. K
146
Which of the following causes headaches, seizures and comas?
a. Hyponatremia
b. Hypernatremia
a. Hyponatremia
147
Which of the following causes osteoporosis?
a. Hyponatremia
b. Hypernatremia
b. Hypernatremia
| high Na stimulates Ca excretion
148
Which of the following is most likely in a person with functioning kidneys?
a. Hypokalemia
b. Hyperkalemia
a. Hypokalemia
| K+ is efficiently removed by kidneys
149
Which of the following is NOT a function of angiotensin II?
a. Na reabsorption
b. aldosterone secretion
c. increased BP
d. ADH inhibition
d. ADH inhibition
| ADH secretion; these all increase volume by retaining water and salt
150
Which of the following acts to reduce calcium in the body?
a. PTH
b. Calcitonin
d. Vitamin D
b. Calcitonin
151
The most abundant intracellular anion
a. Na
b. K
c. Ca
d. Phosphorus
d. Phosphorus
152
What's FLASE about PTH?
a. increases Ca reabsorption
b. Increases Phosphorus excretion
c. increases Ca in the body
d. increases Phosphorus in the body
d. increases Phosphorus in the body
153
Under-reactive parathyroid gland causes
a. Hypophosphatemia
b. Hyperphosphatemia
b. Hyperphosphatemia
| under reactive, meaning it doesn't secrete enough PTH which reduces the Phosphorus
154
Which of the following causes osteomalacia, muscle weakness, and respiratory problems due to bad diaphragm function?
a. Hypophosphatemia
b. Hyperphosphatemia
a. Hypophosphatemia
155
Which of the following reduces iron absorption?
a. oxalates
b. gluten
c. vitamin C
a. oxalates
156
Which of these elements is used to treat Wilson’s disease?
a. Fe
b. Ca
c. Zinc
d. Iodine
c. Zinc
157
Which of the following is more commonly found in the body?
a. T3
b. T4
b. T4
158
Which of the following is more potent?
a. T3
b. T4
a. T3
| T4 becomes T3 a couple of days after secretion
159
Goitrogens function
disrupts the production of thyroid hormones by interfering with iodine uptake
160
Sprecher's shunt is a pathway that aims to make
a. arachidonic acid
b. DPA
c. DHA
c. DHA
| DPA -> DHA
161
Which describes the preference of desaturases?
a. ω3 > ω6 > ω9
b. ω3 > ω9 > ω6
c. ω9 > ω6 > ω3
d. ω9 > ω3 > ω6
a. ω3 > ω6 > ω9
162
When the mead acid to the arachidonic acid ratio is above 0.2, which of the following can you conclude?
a. essential fatty acid deficiency
b. non-essential fatty acid deficiency
a. essential fatty acid deficiency
163
Can humans turn linoleic acid (C:18:3 9,12,15) into eicosatetraenoic acid (C18:4 6,9,12,15)?
Yes, human tissues can express 4,5,6 and -9 desaturases. Use the 6 desaturases to convert it.
164
How is ecosatetraenoic acid (C18:4 6,9,12,15) converted to arachidonic acid (C20:4 8,11,14,17)?
elongase reaction adds a 2-carbon unit to the carboxylic end. It would cause all the double bonds to shift.
165
cis- unsaturated fatty acyl chains bend at double bonds and thus make biomembranes...
a. less fluid
b. more fluid
b. more fluid
166
Which of the following has hydrophobic a-helices or twisted beta sheets?
a. integral membrane proteins
b. peripheral membrane proteins
a. integral membrane proteins
167
Which of the following can be released from the membrane by ph change?
a. integral membrane proteins
b. peripheral membrane proteins
b. peripheral membrane proteins
| a= you need to destroy the membrane to get them out
168
Where is phosphatidylserine found?
a. extracellular side of plasma membrane
b. cytosolic face of plasma membrane
b. cytosolic face of plasma membrane
169
What maintains asymmetric distribution of lipids in the plasma membrane?
a. cytoskeleton
b. phosphatidylserine
c. enzymes
d. caveolae
c. enzymes
| flippases and floppases
170
What are caveolae?
invaginations of the plasma membrane
171
What are microdomains, or membrane rafts?
| What is their function?
caveolae associated regions that have non-fluid lipids which form "rafts" that float on the fluid membrane
important in cell signaling as well as sorting & delivery of proteins
172
Functional Genomics uses which technique?
a. microarray technology
b. genomic hybridization
c. mass spectrometry
a. microarray technology
173
Which omic field can help us silence cancer genes?
a. Proteomics
b. Transcriptomics
c. Metabolomics
b. Transcriptomics
| using RNA
174
Which omic field deals with the last product of gene expression?
a. Proteomics
b. Transcriptomics
c. Metabolomics
c. Metabolomics
175
What occurs to the last residue of the limit dextrin in muscle?
a. hydrolized producing free glucose
b. high hexokinase concentrations phosphorylate it
b. high hexokinase concentrations phosphorylate it
176
Which of the following can use G-6-P for energy?
a. muscle
b. liver
b. liver
| muscle doesn't have G-6-Pase
177
Which state of Glycogen phosphorylase is more active?
a. T state
b. R state
b. R state
178
What activates adenylate cyclase?
a. glucagon
b. glucose
c. insulin
a. glucagon
179
Which enzyme causes more glycogen breakdown?
a. glycogen phosphorylase a
b. glycogen phosphorylase b
a. glycogen phosphorylase a
| it's the modified version
180
Which of the following causes massive cardiomegaly?
a. Type IA Glycogen Storage Disease
b. Type IB Glycogen Storage Disease
c. Type II Glycogen Storage Disease
d. Type III Glycogen Storage Disease
e. Type V Glycogen Storage Disease
c. Type II Glycogen Storage Disease
| AKA Pompe disease, aka Alpha-(1-4) glucosidase deficiency
181
Myophosphorylase deficiency causes
a. Type IA Glycogen Storage Disease
b. Type IB Glycogen Storage Disease
c. Type II Glycogen Storage Disease
d. Type III Glycogen Storage Disease
e. Type V Glycogen Storage Disease
e. Type V Glycogen Storage Disease
| AKA Mcardle syndrome
182
Which of the following is Von Gierke disease, aka glucose 6 phosphatase deficiency?
a. Type IA Glycogen Storage Disease
b. Type IB Glycogen Storage Disease
c. Type II Glycogen Storage Disease
d. Type III Glycogen Storage Disease
e. Type V Glycogen Storage Disease
a. Type IA Glycogen Storage Disease
| characterized by delayed puberty & growth retardation
183
People with __?__ are able to store glucose as glycogen but not able to release it normally
a. Type I Glycogen Storage Disease
b. Type II Glycogen Storage Disease
c. Type III Glycogen Storage Disease
d. Type V Glycogen Storage Disease
a. Type I Glycogen Storage Disease
184
Glucose 6 phosphate translocase deficiency causes
a. Type IA Glycogen Storage Disease
b. Type IB Glycogen Storage Disease
c. Type II Glycogen Storage Disease
d. Type III Glycogen Storage Disease
e. Type V Glycogen Storage Disease
b. Type IB Glycogen Storage Disease
| characterized by growth retardation and neuropenia
185
In which of the following does glycogen have an abnormal structure leading to fasting hypoglycemia?
a. Type IA Glycogen Storage Disease
b. Type IB Glycogen Storage Disease
c. Type II Glycogen Storage Disease
d. Type III Glycogen Storage Disease
e. Type V Glycogen Storage Disease
d. Type III Glycogen Storage Disease
| AKA Cori disease
186
Which of the following is characterized by temporary weakness & muscle cramping after exercize?
a. Type IA Glycogen Storage Disease
b. Type IB Glycogen Storage Disease
c. Type II Glycogen Storage Disease
d. Type III Glycogen Storage Disease
e. Type V Glycogen Storage Disease
e. Type V Glycogen Storage Disease
| AKA Mcardle syndrome
187
What's true about partially hydrogenated vegetable oil?
a. they have a shorter shelf life
b. they taste better
c. they're more expensive
b. they taste better
188
Which of the following helps oils isomerize and become trans fast during hydrogenation?
nickle catalyst
189
Why do beef and milk contain trans-fats?
bacterial fermentation
190
Which is NOT associated with trans fat?
a. cardiovascular disease
b. type 1 diabetes
c. type 2 diabetes
d. cancer risks
b. type 1 diabetes
191
What does trans-palmitoleate do?
a. lower insulin resistance & diabetes risk
b. higher insulin resistance & diabetes risk
a. lower insulin resistance & diabetes risk
192
Which is more sweet?
a. Regular soft drinks
b. Diet or ‘lite’ soft drinks
b. Diet or ‘lite’ soft drinks
193
A regular soft drink is more likely to contain
a. sucrose
b. Sucralose
c. Aspartame
a. sucrose
194
Which of the following is the sweetest?
a. Aspartame
b. Acesulfame-K
c. Sucralose
d. Xylitol
e. Steviol glycosides
c. Sucralose
195
Which of the following do people with phenylketonuria have to avoid more?
a. Regular soft drinks
b. Diet or ‘lite’ soft drinks
b. Diet or ‘lite’ soft drinks
196
Which of the following is suggested to increase insulin sensitivity?
a. Aspartame
b. Acesulfame-K
c. Sucralose
d. Xylitol
e. Steviol glycosides
e. Steviol glycosides
197
Which of the following people have a harder time losing weight?
a. pear-shaped body
b. apple-shaped body
a. pear-shaped body
198
Which of the following people have more dangerous fat deposition?
a. pear-shaped body
b. apple-shaped body
b. apple-shaped body
