Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

unit 1 psychology > extra bits pack > Flashcards

extra bits pack Flashcards

(68 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

express 6.3621 to two decimal figures

A

6.36

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

express 6.3621 to two significant figures

A

6.4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

represent 71897.04 in standard form

A

7.189704 times 10 to the power of 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How do you calculate frequency density for a histogram

A

divide frequency by the class width

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

how do you obtain the frequency from a histogram

A

Find the area of the box will give you te frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the three criteria that have to be met to use a parametric inferential statistic test

A

-interval level data
-normal distribution of results
-all groups in the research have a similair variance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is a type 1 error

A

occurs when in research when we reject the null hypothesis and erroneously state that the study found significant differences when there indeed was no difference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is a type 2 error

A

This is where researchers may think that the have not found a significant result when they have False negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

which error type 1 or type 2 is most common

A

The error that is most common is a type 1 error because research that is reporting an effect has been much more likely to be published than research that acceots the null hypothesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how does having normal distribution link to parametric tests

A

having normally distributed data is one of the three conditions that needs to be met for a reader to use a parametric inferential test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what does this sign mean =

A

equal to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what does this sign mean <

A

less than

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what does this sign mean «

A

much less than

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what does this sign mean >

A

more than

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what does this sign mean&raquo_space;

A

much more than

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what does this sign mean ~

A

approximately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the definition of internal reliability

A

the consistency pf a measuring device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the defininiton of external reliability

A

the consistency of a studies findings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the three methods of checking the reliability of a test or study

A

split half method
test retest method
inter rater reliability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the definnition of split half method

A

-measures the extent to which all parts of the test contribute equally to what is being measured
-compare one half of the questions to scores from the other half of the questions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the definition of testretest method

A

-measures stability of atest over time
-giving the participants the same test at a different point in time and check whether their scores are consistent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the definition of inter rater reliability

A

the degree to which different raters five consistent estimates of the same behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are all the types of internal validity

A

face
concurrent
construct
criterion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the definition of face validity

A

Whether a test appears to be measuring what it intends to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what is the definition of concurrent validity
Where a test or study measure gives the same result as another test or study studying the same concept
26
what is the definition of criterion validity
refers to how much one test or measure predicts future performance on another test or measure
27
what is the definition of construct validity
refers to whethe a test or study actually measures the concept it sets out to measure and extraneou svariables are controlled
28
what are the types of external validity
population ecological
29
what is the definition of population validity
refers to the degree to which the sample used in the research is representative of a diverse group of people
30
what is the definition of ecological validity
refers to how accurately a piece of reserach reflects real life si uatuoins
31
what is the difference between representiveness and generelisebility
representativeness -refers to the sample in the research. If the sample is diverse and includes people from different ages, genders and occupations etc genereliseable -Refers to the results of the research if the sample used is biased, it cannot be generelised
32
what is the difference between demand charecteristics and social desireability
demand charecteristics -occur when participants work out what the aim of the research is beccause it is obvious or as a rsult of repeated measures design. They may then change their behaviour and act in a way that they think the researchers want them to act social desireability -refers to when participants change their behaviour to present an image of being a good member of society or to fit in th social norm
33
what is the difference between researchier bias and researcher effects
researcher bias -Refers to the way which the researcher collects and interprets the results of the research. They may interpret the behaviour based on their prior expectations and therefore this would lower the validity of the findings. researcher effects -refers to the way that participants behaviour is influences by the presence of the researcher
34
what are the four ethical guidelines
respect competence responsibility integrity
35
what comes under the ethical guideline respect
-informed consent right to withdraw confidentiality
36
what comes under the ethical guideline competence
researchers need to operate within their capabilities and not give advice beyond that which they are qualified to give
37
what comes under the ethical guideline responsibility
-protection from harm -debrief
38
what comes under the ethical guideline integrity
-deception
39
what are the 7 sections of a practical report
Abstract introduction method results discussion references appendices
40
What is the abstract of a report
summarises research and report
41
what is the introduction of a report
discussess previous research/ reports
42
what is the method of the report
procedure
43
what is the results of the report
contains raw data
44
what is the discussion of a report
look at what was found
45
what are the references of a report
any work from authors used
46
what is the appendices from a report
any relevant materials used from the study
47
what are the 7 things you should include while you are citing academic references
author or authors surname followed by initials of the first name year of publication (in brckets) article title (in brackets) journal titile (in italics) volume of journal issue number of journal (in brackets) page range of article
48
what is meant by peer review
the process of evaluating research before it is published to ensure its quality and validity. This process is carried out by experts in the field of psychology
49
what are the benefits of peer review
Can be used to check that research will be useful before it is funded. ● Ensures only the most relevant and robust research is published. ● It ensures that only valid results are published so the journals retain their reputation.
50
what are the negatives of peer review
Can take a long time. ● Some reviewers may not pass research that contradicts their own. ● May not be possible to detect research that has used false data.
51
what is the definition of the study of cause and effect
when a researcher can show that one variable is causing a change in another variable
52
what is the definition of falsifiability
the ability to prove a claim wrong
53
what is the definition of replicability
the ability to repeat and therefore test to see if a piece of research is reliable
54
what is the definition of induction
empirical research is carried out and THEN a theory is developed to make a sense of things
54
what is the definition of objective
when a claim is a matter of fact and not opinion
55
what is the definition of deduction
A theory is developed and THEN empirical research is carried out to see if the theory is correct
56
what is the definition of hypothesis testing
based on psychological theory, a predicition is made about how participants would be expected to behave which can be tested through reserach
57
what is the definition of controls
this is imposed on experiments to make sure that the results are due to the independant variable rather than extraneous variables
58
what is the definition of standardisation
the test consitions are kept the same for all particpants
59
what is interval level data
This is any data that involves the use of a universal scale e.g time in seconds
60
what is ordinal level data
This is data that can be ranked e.g score out of 10 on memory test
61
what is nominal data
This is the lwest level of dta usually to closed questions
62
what are the strengths of nominal level data
Quick and easy to obtain because it is just a headcount Can be displayed in pie charts (which can be easily made sense of)
63
what are the weaknesses of nominal level data
Can only analyse the mode of data and cannot calculate the mean or median Cannot analyse measures of dispersion (such as range and standard deviation) Less precise as data is grouped into categories (we don’t know how individual participants scored)
64
what are the positives of ordinal level data
Can calculate mean, median and mode as measures of central tendency (so more detailed) Can also calculate measures of dispersion Can calculate individual scores of participants and see how they differ
65
what are the negatives of ordinal level data
Ordinal data can be subjective (as people may interpret rating scales differently) Although we can work out the rank order of participants, we don’t always know the exact difference between individual scores Worse than nominal because: More time consuming and complex to analyse
66
what are the positives of interval level data
Can calculate mean, median and mode as measures of central tendency Can also calculate measures of dispersion Can calculate individual scores of participants and see how they differ Better than ordinal because: Scores can be compared directly as precise values are recorded (i.e. you can see the actual difference between scores rather than just the rank position) The scores are more consistent as the same universal scale is used (e.g. a cm is always measured in the same way)
67
what are the negatives of interval level data
Can only be used with concepts that are measurable through universal scales (can’t be used with attitudes, opinions, etc.) Worse than nominal because: More time consuming and complex to analyse

unit 1 psychology (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions