Extra Credit 1 Flashcards

(104 cards)

1
Q

Which of the following is not a considered a common means of transmission of the Herpes Simplex Viruses types 1 &2?

A

contact with blood

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2
Q

True/ False

Bacillary dysentery, or shigellosis, is rarely, if ever, seen in the United States.

A

False

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3
Q

True/ False

All three forms of plague can be treated with antibiotics if diagnosed early enough.

A

True

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4
Q

True / false
Dysentery occurs when stool is bloody in addition to being watery; occurs as a result of the infection spreading to the large intestine and becoming invasive

A

True

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5
Q

Conjunctivitis is most common in which of the following groups?

A

children <8 years old

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6
Q

How does transmission of Streptococcus pneumoniae , the causative agent of pneumococcal pneumonia, most likely occur?

A

respiratory droplets from individuals that carry S. pneumoniae as normal microflora

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7
Q

True / False
Because transmission of the common cold is most likely to happen by self-inoculation after contact with an infected fomite or the hands of an infected person, hand washing is considered one of the best preventative measures to prevent an infection with the viruses that cause the common cold.

A

True

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8
Q

An attendant informs you that there is an individual in the patient room with bacterial conjunctivitis. Which of the following are you most anticipating you will see when you open the door?

A

a 6-year old boy

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9
Q

Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of measles?

A

a pseudomembrane at the back of the throat

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10
Q

Of the common causes of liver disease, this virus is transmitted through the fecal or oral route.

A

hepatitis A virus

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11
Q

true / false
Trachoma is an uncomplicated bacterial infection of the eye that will resolve on its own and requires no further intervention

A

false

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12
Q

How do people transmit streptococcal pharyngitis?

A

via respiratory droplets from a colonized or infected person

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13
Q

The A-B toxin in anthrax has three parts: the protective antigen, the edema factor and the lethal factor. The protective antigen is responsible for_________, the edema factor is responsible for ____________, and the lethal factor is responsible for __________.

A

Binding; swelling; necrosis

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14
Q

True / False

The stomach, small intestines, and large intestines eliminate all pathogens when food is being digested and absorbed.

A

False

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15
Q

Koplik spots are considered diagnostic for which of the following infections?

A

measles

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16
Q

True / False A 60-year old patient goes to the doctor for her yearly physical. While reviewing her file, he sees that she had chickenpox as a child and informs her that she does not need the shingles vaccine because the immunity she developed as a child will protect her.True or false, the doctor is correct in his assesment

A

False

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17
Q

What is the treatment for gonorrhea?

A

antibiotics

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18
Q

true / false

A UTI can resolve on its own without the use of over the counter medication or antibiotics

A

true

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19
Q

Acute diarrhea is best defined as

A

> 3 loose stools within a 24 hour period

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20
Q

A disease which effects menstruating women and post-operative wound infections typically finds its way into a patient through the use of a super-absorbent tampon or by complication of surgery. Symptoms may include sudden-onset fever, chills or mental confusion. This disease could be described as

A

staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome

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21
Q

Which of the following urogenital infections occurs primarily in women?

A

urinary tract infections

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22
Q

Which of the following statements is not true regarding the relationship between acne, impetigo, and folliculitis?

A

All of these are considered superficial diseases of the epidermis and there are no risks of complications with any of them

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23
Q

true / false

After the signs and symptoms of chickenpox resolve, the Varicella-Zoster virus is cleared from your system.

A

false

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24
Q

How is tuberculosis most commonly spread?

A

inhalation of infected respiratory droplets

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25
A baseballplayer cut his hand while trying to prepare dinner. He had a game later that night so he did not have time to clean it as well as he would have liked. After wearing his glove over the cut for the duration of the game he noticed that the cut seemed irritated. A few days later he developed pain, tenderness, swelling and warmth in the area of the cut, followed by a high fever. Upon examination, the doctor found that the infection had spread from the cut into the soft tissue of the dermis, but hand not penetrated the superficial fascia. What is most likely occurring on his hand?
cellulitis
26
true / false A diagnostic sign of diphtheria, particularly in young children, is the presence of a pseudomembrane a the back of the throat.
true
27
true / false | The only way for rabies to be transmitted from the an infected animals is through a bite.
false
28
Which of the following is not a common symptom of an uncomplicated UTI?
grossly bloody urine
29
true / false Syphilis is considered a 'stealth' pathogen, because unlike almost all other pathogens, this bacterium has few, if any, proteins on its outer surface.
true
30
true / false | Enteritis is an inflammation of the intestine that is an infection not an intoxication.
true
31
true / false Upper respiratory infections are most common in winter, in part because people are crowded indoors with little ventilation
true
32
true / false The key to preventing death due to an arboviral encephalitis is to catch it early enough to treat it with one of several effective antiviral medications that are available.
false
33
Which of the following are considered likely signs and symptoms of a bacterial urinary tract infection?
painful urination (dysuria) cloudy or bloody urine slight fever Correct all of the above
34
true / false | Cystic acne almost always arises as an opportunistic infection caused by normal flora of humans.
true
35
Who is most at risk to develop otitis media?
Children <6 years old
36
What is not a primary sign or symptom of tuberculosis in its active form?
a bright red flash
37
true / false Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome first presents in infants as red wrinkling skin near the mouth and then progresses to large blisters filled with fluid.
true
38
Which of the following is a symptom of an uncomplicated urinary tract infection?
frequent urination
39
true / false | Pathogens that cross the placental and infect the fetus cause perinatal diseases.
false
40
What is the best way to prevent an infection with a virus that causes the common cold?
hand antisepsis
41
Which of these is NOT caused by Streptococcus pyogenes ?
uncomplicated folliculitis
42
Effusive diarrhea characterized by “rice water stool” is characteristic of
cholera
43
The manifestation of this bacterial disease depend upon the pathogen's production of a protective antigen (PA), edema factor (EF) and lethal factor (LF). The EF is responsible for the swelling and the LF is responsible for the necrosis associated with this infection. Pathogenesis of this disease depends on the site of acquisition of the pathogen's endospores and is treated with antibiotics. What is this disease?
anthrax
44
true / false | One of the hallmark signs of streptococcal pharyngitis is a persistent cough.
False
45
This is an infection of an accessory structure of the GI tract, the liver. Signs of this infection include jaundice, hepatomegaly, and clay colored stool.
acute viral hepatitis
46
Who is at most risk for contracting diphtheria?
unvaccinated childern <6
47
All of the following are true of the measles except :
the infection is usually symptomatic only if the virus is contracted later in life
48
Which bacteria is the most common cause of community-acquired urinary tract infections?
E. coli
49
Which of the following antibiotics is not used in the treatment for tuberculosis?
penicillin
50
Which of the following is an infection of the eyelash follicle?
sty
51
true / false The diarrhea that occurs during cholera causes the body to lose most of its electrolytes, which results in dehydration and potentially death.
true
52
true / false | Otitis media occurs mostly in children.
true
53
17-year-old Madison went to the doctors in which it was confirmed that she was suffering from toxic shock syndrome, a focal infection. Which of the following could best confirm the presence of this syndrome?
detection of the presence of S. aureus in a location within the body with elevated oxygen and neutral pH
54
The occurence or severity of rheumatic fever, a diseased caused by an infection due to S. pyogenes is dependent on which virulence factor(s)?
Streptolysin S
55
Who are at risk for getting whooping cough? (select all that apply)
immunocompromised adults unvaccinated adults unvaccinated children
56
Abrupt onset, intense wound pain, marked swelling, destruction of muscle tissue, and severe toxicity manifested by mental confusion are the main clinical characteristics of which of the following
clostridial myonecrosis
57
true / false | Non-cystic acne is characterized by a widespread number of infected sebaceous glands and significant scarring.
false
58
true / false | You can best prevent seasonal influenza A and B viruses by getting an annual injectable inactivated vaccine.
True
59
This specific disease typically occurs in children and is one of the leading causes of non-traumatic blindness in humans. Some symptoms involve irritated eyelids and scarred cornea which is the cause of the blindness in patients who contract this. Based on the characteristics described, which of the following diseases fit the description?
trachoma
60
What is the main virulence factor of Mycobacterium tuberculosis ?
mycolic acid in the cell wall
61
true / false | There currently is no vaccine for syphilis
true
62
Which of the following is considered the best way to prevent salmonellosis?
Good personal hygiene and good kitchen practices with effective disinfectants
63
What is the most common causative agent of the common cold?
rhinoviruses
64
true / false | Both men and women are susceptible to developing a bacterial urinary tract iInfection.
true
65
All of the following are risk factors for developing peptic ulcers except
use of birth control pills
66
What age group is most at risk for otitis media?
children
67
Enteritis is best described as:
Inflammation of the small or large intestine
68
true / false | Viral pharyngitis is rarely accompanied by a cough.
false
69
In infants and young children that experience the worst signs and symptoms, diphtheria can be diagnosed by visible presence of?
a pseudomembrane at the back of the throat
70
All of the following conditions occur predominantly or exclusively because of an exotoxin activity of Staphylococcus aureus , except which one?
folliculitis
71
true / false Even though cutaneous anthrax infections cause a visible and unsightly eschar at the site of infection rapidly after exposure, is it the manifestation of the disease that is least likely to be fatal.
true
72
This specific disease can occur in anyone who is suffering a wound and usually the endospores of this pathogen can be transmitted from soil. The occurence of this disease requires that the endospores by inoculated into anaerobic tissue (usually deep within the muscle). People who contract this disease may suffer symptoms of intense disproportionate pain at the site of the wound. One of the hallmark signs of this infection is crepitus, which is defined as crackling or popping sensations experienced under the skin and joints due to the presence of air in the subcutaneous tissue. Even with treatment, 40% of people who contract this disease may die. What disease is being described?
clostridial myonecrosis
73
true / false | Meningococcal meningitis can be fatal within 24-48 hours.
true
74
true / false Bacterial conjunctivitis, more commonly known as “Pink Eye,” is most often transmitted indirectly through air or food, or through biological vectors.
false
75
true / false | Inflammation of the cornea is known as keratitis.
true
76
Which of the following is not considered a typical sign or symptom of staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome?
hemorrhaging from the eyes
77
How is the measles virus most commonly transmitted?
direct transmission via aerosol droplets
78
What is a primary virulence factor of the agent that caused lobar pneumonia?
a protective capsule
79
Who is most likely to develop whooping cough after exposure to the infectious agent?
children under the age of 5
80
Staphylococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome occurs primarily in what populations? (select all that apply)
individuals with post-operative wound infections | menstrating women
81
In the US, approximately what percentage of the population is affected annually by Influenza A&B viruses?
5-20%
82
true / false | Shingles typically occurs in children under 10 years old.
false
83
Which of the rash manifestations below is not seen in chickenpox?
``` all of these rash manifestations can occur with chickenpox macules papules vesicles pustules ```
84
A child is home sick from school following Christmas break because they aren’t feeling well. Over the holidays the whole family had been diagnosed with a cold. Now, two weeks later he has additionally, been diagnosed with a community-acquired pneumonia . Which form is the most likely?
lobar pneumonia
85
Which of the following is not considered an effective preventative for contracting chlamydia?
vaccination
86
Which of the following is considered the primary symptom of cholera?
large volumes of watery diarrhea
87
Which of the following diseases is NOT potetntially caused by Staphylococcus aureus ?
antrax
88
true / false | To prevent developing botulism, children should not be fed honey until they are at least 10 years old.
false
89
How can anthrax best be prevented in at-risk people?
vaccination
90
All of the following are symptoms for whooping cough in infants except?
painful pharyngitis
91
Human African trypanasomiasis is transmitted via :
the bite of a tsetse fly
92
true / false | Men are the only ones at risk of contracting gonorrhoea.
false
93
true / false Because they are often inhabitants of the skin and have easy access should the opportunity invade arise, Gram positive bacteria are the usual causative agents of skin and soft tissue infection.
true
94
true / false | One of the earliest signs of necrotizing fasciitis is severe pain disproportionate to the appearance of the wound.
true
95
Which of the following is a way that the Hepatitis B virus is transmitted?
via blood or blood products
96
true / false | Chickenpox and shingles present with the same signs and symptoms, but shingles is milder because of prior immunity.
false
97
Which of the following is NOT a typical symptom of a peptic ulcer?
fever
98
Helicobacter pylori is the causative agent of
Correct gastric (peptic) ulcers
99
As flu season approaches, the scientists at the CDC are mapping what they think the flu will look like in order to create a vaccine. Unfortunately, two strains swap whole parts of their genomes resulting in a new strain. This is results in a______ caused by ______ ?
Correct Pandemic influenza, antigenic shift
100
What sign or symptom is diagnostic for someone who has measles?
Koplik spots
101
If the eardrum is intact, where do most infections of the middle ear arise from?
microorganisms that ascend the auditory tube from the nasopharynx
102
Type I (polymicrobial) necrotizing fasciitis normally occurs following what?
surgical procedures
103
What are the causative agent(s) of impetigo (pyoderma)? Select all that apply.
Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus pygoenes
104
true / false | Having good personal hygiene is one important way to prevent impetigo (pyoderma).
true