Extra Credit 2 Flashcards

(100 cards)

1
Q

true / false

Type II necrotizing fasciitis occurs most commonly after surgical procedure.

A

false

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2
Q

Which is the most effective treatment for dengue fever?

A

supportive care that focuses on fluid replenishment and electrolyte balance

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3
Q

These toxins are released when food is prepared or stored improperly and, when ingested, cause food poisoning.

A

enterotoxins

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4
Q

Who is most at risk to be infected with salmonellosis?

A

anyone is at risk of being infected with salmonellosi

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5
Q

true / false
Impetigo (pyoderma), in which bacteria invade the skin through small cuts and microabrasions is most commonly caused by members of the Clostridium genus.

A

false

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6
Q

Gas gangrene is characterized by all of these signs and symptoms but…

A

intense itchiness

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7
Q

A 32 year old male was traveling in the Rocky Mountains and found himself feeling parched. He has a water bottle that allows for water to be filtered as it is being poured into the water bottle. He didn’t realize that there was a red light flashing on the water bottle, meaning that the filter needs to be changed. Ignoring the flashing red light, he continued to fill the water bottle with water from a stream he encountered during his hike in the Rocky Mountains. After completion of the hike, the 32 year old male started feeling abdominal pain, fatigue, and loss of appetite. He was experiencing watery diarrhea alternating with greasy stools. What is the infection indicated by his symptoms?

A

Giardiasis

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8
Q

true / false
Although impetigo usually resolves with no complications, if it does develop into erysipelas, that may be potentially fatal.

A

true

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9
Q

What is the most common causative agent of the common cold?

A

rhinoviruses

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10
Q

Which of the following is true about Herpes Simplex Virus (Types I & II)

A

Primary infections are usually the most severe

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11
Q

Who is susceptible to Legionnaires disease?

A

all of these are susceptible to Legionnaires’ disease
the elderly
patients with chronic respiratory problems
immunocompromised people
smokers

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12
Q

Where do the staphylococci that cause bacterial endocarditis most commonly arise from?

A

normal flora of the skin

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13
Q

Which of the following people most likely will get bacterial endocarditis if normal flora are inoculated into their blood?

A

A 25 year old female athlete with a heart murmur.

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14
Q

Bacterial endocarditis occurs when bacteria colonize:

A

the membranes surrounding the heart and heart valves

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15
Q

HIV can be transmitted by the following except:

A

kissing

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16
Q

A 50 year old woman presents with vesicular skin eruption alone a dermatome. She complains of pain, itching, numbness and burning. She tells the doctor she had not been keeping up with her vaccines and missed a few of them including her Influenza vaccination and her attenuated ‘shingles’ vaccine (Zostavax). Her medical history shows she had had chickenpox as a young girl. What is her diagnosis?

A

shingles

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17
Q

Most of the time, particularly in children, the infections with Hepatitis A Virus usually results in an asymptomatic infection. People who are symptomatic exhibit all symptoms except?

A

excessive hemorrhaging from eyes, nose, and mouth

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18
Q

Which is a characteristic of people experiencing the first stage of Lyme disease?

A

erythema migrans (bulls eye rash)

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19
Q

How is the agent that causes tuberculosis transmitted?

A

inhalation of droplets from other humans

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20
Q

true / false

The process of digestion and other associated processes eliminate all gastrointestinal pathogens.

A

False

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21
Q

Human African Trypanasomiasis is transmitted by which of the following?

A

from the bite of an infected tsetse fly

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22
Q

What populations are MOST at risk for contracting Lyme disease in the United States?

A

people in New England and the northern mid-Atlantic states

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23
Q

true / false

One of the causative agents for malaria is Plasmodium falciparum.

A

true

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24
Q

The best method to prevent the transmission of most arboviral encephalitides is to?

A

manage and control known vectors (mosquitoes, ticks)

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25
What is the best way to prevent the contraction of amoebic dysentery?
avoid ingesting fecally-contaminated produce or water
26
Which of the following is not a virulence factor of the causative agent of giardiasis?
a potent enteroxin that acts as a superantigen
27
Which of the following is not a symptom of Human African Trypanosomiasis?
bright red skin rash
28
Which of these diseases can be diagnosed through a Gram stain revealing Gram negative diplococci?
gonorrhea
29
Normal dental plaque typically arises from which of the following microorganisms?
a variety of normal flora found in the oral cavity working with Strepotoccus mutans
30
true / false | Giardiasis can be asymptomatic.
true
31
A 22 year old man comes into Urgent Care with complaints of painful urination and a yellow colored discharge. After running tests on the discharge, a gram negative diplococci was identified. What is this disease and the causative agent?
Gonorrhea; Neisseria gonorrhoeae
32
A mother takes her son to the dentist with bloody teeth, gum inflammation, and tooth loss. The dentist that stated her son had periodontal disease. What is a an effective technique to prevent this disease?
Daily brushing and flossing and regular professional cleanings
33
How can the Hepatitis C Virus be transmitted? Select all that apply.
parenterally (introduction of the agent by some means other than by the mouth or digestive tract; i.e., injection of a needle)
34
Bacillary dysentery, also known as shigellosis, causes which of the following symptoms? Select all that apply.
fever bloody diarrhea abdominal cramps
35
Which is not describing trachoma?
thin discharge from the urethra of men
36
Which of the following scenarios accurately depicts the transmission of the causative agent of tetanus:
When building a shed for his garden supplies, Ryan accidently steps on an old nail, which punctures into deep tissue. He then acquires the agent that causes tetanus.
37
true / false | Over use of anti-inflammatory pain medications like aspirin is a risk factor for developing gastric (peptic) ulcers.
true
38
Typhoid fever exclusively affects humans, when bacteria escape the intestine, and are phagocytized, but not degraded. The bacteria travels to the liver, spleen, bone marrow and _____________ where they can reinfect the intestines to produce repeated gastroenteritis.
gall bladder
39
What is the best treatment for a patient who was diagnosed with the plague?
antibiotics
40
true / false | Mycolic acids are the most significant virulence factor of Mycobacterium tuberculosis .
true
41
true / false | The botulism toxin in the most potent microbial toxin known and one ounce could kill the entire US population.
true
42
What are the differences in symptoms between viral pharyngitis and bacterial pharyngitis?
Viral pharyngitis is accompanied by a cough and hoarseness, while bacterial pharyngitis is accompanied by a fever with little to no coughing
43
When is streptococcal pharyngitis most prevalent in the year and in what age group?
winter and spring in children
44
true / false Neisseria gonorrhoeae can infect the birth canal of a pregnant mother suffering from gonorrhea and cause severe eye infections and can lead to long-term health issues and abnormalities of the fetus after delivery.
true
45
Who is most likely to contract bacterial septicemia?
A 65-year-old man who is in the process of undergoing chemotherapy and develops a urinary tract infection from an indwelling catheter
46
Cryptosporidiosis is a rare and opportunistic cause of acute diarrhea that can occur in anyone, but is significantly more severe and prolonged in HIV+ patients. The onset of this intense manifestation in an HIV+ patient may
suggest that the person's HIV infection has now progressed to AIDS
47
What is one obvious sign or symptom of periodontal disease?
gum inflammation and traces of blood in spit while cleaning the teeth
48
true / false | Bacterial enteritis is an intoxication that causes inflammation of the intestine.
false
49
Which of the following are diseases caused by hantaviruses? (select all that apply)
HPS | HFRS
50
true / false | Impetigo most commonly occurs in the warm, moist months in younger children.
true
51
Effective treatments for a tetanus infection includes all of the following except
surgical removal of infected tissue
52
Congenital infections are those in which...
The infection crosses from the mother to the fetus through the placental barrier
53
For bacterial septicemia which of the following is the best treatment?
rapid diagnosis followed by treatment with an effective antibiotic
54
How would one commonly diagnose a peptic ulcer?
detecting urease in a stomach biopsy
55
How is the agent that causes giardiasis transmitted to a host?
drinking water containing Giardia cysts that were released from the feces of infected animals
56
What is the other causative agent of Impetigo (pyoderma) in addition to Staphylococcus aureus ?
Streptococcus pyogenes
57
true / false Type 16 and 18 of Mucosotropic HPV are more likely to integrate into the chromosomes of cervical cells and therefor are considered high risk type of human papillomaviruses.
true
58
The most causative agent of malaria that stimulates the most severe disease is:
Plasmodium falciparum
59
Impetigo is easily spread and highly contagious. If another person is exposed to the contagious human and in contact with the infected area, this person will get it. How else might this infection be transmitted?
via contaminated fomites that had been in contact with the infected individual's lesions
60
A 22 year old woman has just returned from a trip to the Rocky Mountains. After a long and tiring hike, she seemed to have run out of water and decided to go to a nearby stream to hydrate herself. She has now been suffering from diarrhea, extreme abdominalpain, flatulence, nausea, vomiting, and is starting to develop a fever. She has had no underlying medical problems prior to this. What is the patient experiencing?
giardiasis
61
Which route of infection via vertical transmission describes the infection of a fetus and is associated with the highest mortality risk?
congenital
62
What is one of the most effective ways that the bubonic plague can be prevented?
flea control
63
Which form of Chlamydia trachomatis allows the microbe to actually cause the infection?
the elementary body
64
About 90% of the people infected with Entamoeba histolytica have the asymptomatic form. This form is called:
the luminal form
65
A 7 year old child has decided to disobey the dentist and skip brushing and flossing every night. The child begins to develop a dark spot on one of their teeth and complains of extreme sensitivity. The child always is resistant in visiting the dentist, never drinks their fluoride water, and loves eating sugary bubble gum. What is likely causing the sensitivity?
dental caries (cavities) as a result of extrem plaque build-up
66
true / false | Rabies is commonly spread person-to-person.
false
67
An 12 week-old boy comes into the emergency room with a rash. The boy has red, wrinkling skin near the mouth and rest of body. There is large fluid filled blisters all over his body.What is his diagnosis?
scalded skin syndrome caused by S. aureus
68
On October 15th, 2019, The New Haven Register posted an article warning locals to avoid going outside after dusk due to the threat of Eastern Equine Encephalitis —called EEE or “triple E. Nationwide, there has increase prevalence rate of Eastern Equine Encephalitis due to warmer climates. What population is most at risk of experiencing severe disease associated with Eastern Equine Encephalitis?
Children and Elderly individuals
69
true / false | Hantavirus is transmitted by inhalation of rodent excreta
true
70
Which is NOT a risk factor for acquiring mucosatropic human papillomaviruses?
eating a diet of fatty foods
71
What disease is characterized by these signs and symptoms, fever, maculopapular rash, red eyes, Kolpik spots, runny nose, coughing, sneezing?
measles
72
true / false In the African sleeping sickness(Human African Trypanasomiasis), the ability of the protozoa to undergo antigenic variation,allows the infectious agent to change the proteins on its surface, thus, rendering it difficult for the immune response to create effective responsive antibodies rapidly.
true
73
The signs and symptoms of botulism include which of the following? (select all that apply)
respiratory distress progressive muscle weakness blurred vision
74
Vibrio cholerae , a gram-negative rod, causes which of the following diseases in humans?
cholera
75
What is the only SURE way to prevent sexually transmitted infections (STIs)?
abstinence
76
How is bacterial meningitis transmitted?
through droplets of respiratory or throat secretions from carriers
77
Neisseria meningitidis is the causative agent of
meningitis
78
The transmission of denguevirus is from a
Aedes mosquitoes
79
This bacterial cause of a sexually transmitted infection (a discharge disease) is know for rapidly developing antibiotic resistance (to penicillin, fluoroquinolones, and now cephalosporins)?
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
80
true / false The treatment for salmonellosis calls for antibiotics while typhoid fever is self-limiting and requires only supportive care treatment
false
81
The bacteria that cause tetanus or most commonly associated with what environment?
They are commonly found in soil
82
Common symptoms for bacterial septicemia include:
high fever, vomiting, mental confusion
83
Which of the following are symptoms of primary syphilis?
chancre (painless sores on the genitals)
84
How do mosquitoes transmit the parasite that causes malaria?
while feeding, they spit the parasite from their midgut through their proboscis and into the wound they created while feeding
85
How is whooping cough spread from person-to-person?
Spread through the air in the respiratory droplets
86
This enzyme of Staphylococcus aureus protects the bacteria from the host immune system by triggering clot formation around the bacteria.
Coagulase
87
true / false | The population that is most vulnerable to meningococcal meningitis are adults 65 and older.
false
88
true / false | You can get HIV from kissing, sneezing, coughing, sharing a glass, or using a sterile needle.
false
89
Young people under 25 now account for what percentage of individuals living with HIV?
50%
90
What is the role of reverse transcriptase in retroviruses?
creates double-stranded DNA from single-stranded RNA
91
Which of these defenses are common characteristics of a healthy urogenital system? (CHECK ALL THAT APPLY)
flushing action of urine acidic nature of urine lactoferritin (iron-binding protein) found in urine
92
What is the main difference between vaginitis and vaginosis?
vaginitis is associated with a lot of inflammation, whereas vaginosis has little or no inflammation
93
true / false If you have removed a tick that has been on you for only 14 hours, you have virtually no chance of getting Lyme disease from that tick.
true
94
Erysipelas occurs when the pus-filled vesicles of impetigo break open. This then spreads the microbes to the lymph nodes and causes pain. What other main symptom occurs related to erysipelas?
intense pain
95
Which of the following is the most common method of acquisition for botulism in adults?
Ingestion of improperly stored or prepared food contaminated with the botulinum toxin
96
Paryxosmal coughing and inhalatory whooping is associated with which disease?
pertussis
97
true / false Chronic diarrhea lasting longer than 14 days that is caused by an infectious agent can clear on its own and does not need antibiotics.
False
98
true / false | The most widely-available treatment for Ebolavirus is supportive care for signs and symptoms.
true
99
Which of the following is a way a person may contract HIV?
sharing a needle with a person infected with HIV
100
How should chlamydia be treated?
antibiotics