Extra Credit 3 Flashcards

(100 cards)

1
Q

What is the most common form of disease caused by Entamoeba histolytica ?

A

luminal invasive (dysentery)

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2
Q

During what seasons is Legionnaire’s disease the most prevalent?

A

summer and fall

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3
Q

Which of the following vaccinations is used to prevent chlamydia?

A

none of these

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4
Q

Which coagulase negative staphylococci are more likely to create a biofilm on artificial surfaces which can lead to infections.

A

S. epidermidis

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5
Q

true / false
Hypotension, shock, necrotic skin plaques that can cause gangrene are all potential symptoms of the severe forms (pneumonic or septicemic) of plague

A

true

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6
Q

Urine is acidic and contains lysozyme, which we know destroys the cell wall of unwanted bacterial cells, however, urine also contains lactoferrin. What is the role of lactoferrin?

A

Scavenges iron from our blood to reduce useful iron available for microbes.

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7
Q

true / false

The primary reservoir for toxoplasmosis, a disease of the central nervous system, is cats.

A

true

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8
Q

In which of the following geographical regions in the US is Lyme disease more likely to be found?

A

the atlantic coast

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9
Q

Oral herpes is most commonly caused by…

A

herpes simplex virus 1

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10
Q

true / false

Dengue fever can cause a type of hemorrhagic fever.

A

true

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11
Q

Which of the following are true of intoxications? (Check all that apply)

A

Are self-limiting, resolving even in the absence of medical intervention Are caused by exotoxins
Are associated with food poisoning

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12
Q

Which treatment option is one that is not recommended when a patient has amoebicdysentery (because it disrupts the body’s attempt to eliminate the pathogen?

A

anti-diarrheals

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13
Q

What is the primary means by which infectious mononucleosis is spread?

A

Contact with infected saliva

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14
Q

Which of the following is a way to prevent botulism?

A

ensure that any endospores in food are destroyed

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15
Q

What part of our population does otitis media commonly infect and how?

A

Children; spread from normal flora in the oropharynx to the sinus or middle ear

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16
Q

Globally, which animal is the biggest concern as a carrier of the rabies virus and its role in transmission to humans?

A

feral dogs

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17
Q

How do bacteria that cause meningitis most often get into the CSF?

A

Spread from the lungs, sinuses or inner ear via the blood

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18
Q

Which botulinum AB toxin is used clinically as botox?

A

A

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19
Q

Which of the following is not a common route of entry for Type II necrotizing fasciitis:

A

as a condition of poststreptococcal pharyngitis

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20
Q

true / false

A pregnant mother with chlamydia is able to pass the bacteria onto her child during birth, resulting in eye infections.

A

true

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21
Q

true / false

Uncomplicated cases of bacterial conjunctivitis may result in blindness.

A

false

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22
Q

All of the following are symptoms of tetanus except:

A

Diarrhea

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23
Q

Which are not symptoms of streptococcal pharyngitis? (select all that apply)

A

coughing

pseudomembrane

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24
Q

A 20 year old man came in complaining of inflammation around what appears to be a bite mark. He has a fever and is experiencing cardiac pain, shortness of breath, anemia, blurred vision, and increasingly severe weakness. He just got back from a safari trip and has been experiencing these symptoms since. What disease has he been exposed to?

A

Human African trypanasomiasis

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25
Which region has the largest number of reported cases of HIV+ people?
Sub-Saharan Africa
26
How is malaria most commonly transmitted?
bite of female Anopheles mosquito
27
How can bacterial meningitis be diagnosed?
ALL OF THESE Culture of CSF Spinal tap signs and symptoms of the patient
28
The virulence of the causative agent of malaria is most associated with which one of the following?
the ability to infect and live within human red blood cells
29
How is cholera spread?
ingestion of fecally-contaminated water
30
Other than Intravenous drug use, what is the most common route of entry for bacteria to cause bacterial endocarditis?
through cuts in the mucous membranes of the oral cavity
31
true / false | Two people both with AIDS can present to a doctor with dramatically different symptoms.
true
32
From what lifestage of tick does transmission of Borrelia burgdorferi typically occur in humans?
bite of an infected nymphal tick
33
The human papillomavirus can lead to the development of different types of warts such as cutaneous warts and anogenital warts. Which group of people is most at risk for developing cancer as a result of anogenital warts?
women
34
true / false | Worldwide, men infected wtih HIV outnumber women almost 2:1.
false
35
Which of the following is a bacterial infection of the endothelial surface of the inner lining of the heart chambers and valves that leads to the formation of vegetations?
bacterial endocarditis
36
The part of the gastrointestinal tract with the largest natural microbiota, mainly Bacteroides and other anerobic bacteria, is the
large intestine
37
Which of the following is not considered a risk factor that raises the chance for peptic ulcers?
Eating spicy food
38
Encephalitis can be defined as...
inflammation of the brain
39
true / false | Many microbes can penetrate intact skin.
false
40
Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome occurs in infants due to:
the production of an exotoxin
41
In the US, what is the most common way that HIV is transmitted?
homosexual contact between men
42
The way to treat typhoid fever is
antibiotics
43
How does Helicobacter pylori cause peptic ulcers?
Thins the mucus layer, exposing epithelial cells to gastric juice
44
Which of the following is not a characteristic used to define AIDS?
a history of unprotected sex
45
Place the following in the correct order for the pathogenesis of rabies starting after the virus enters via an animal bite:
1. Virus replicates in muscle at site of bite 2. Virus infects nerve in PNS, moves by retrograde transport 3. Virus replicates in dorsal root and travels up spinal cord to brain 4. Virus travels from brain via nerves to other tissues such as eye, kidneys, and salivary glands 5. Severe neurological symptoms begin and death will almost invariably result
46
HIV is found in high enough concentration to theoretically cause disease in all of the following liquids, except:
tears
47
Which virulence factor in bacterial food poisoning causes inflamed tissue and stimulates the vomit centers in the brain?
heat-stable enterotoxins
48
This type of infection is a result of pathogens infecting the mother crossing the placenta and infecting the fetus.
postnatal infection
49
true / false | Bacterial enteritis is an intoxication of the intestine.
false
50
Which are risk factors of bacterial endocarditis? (check all that apply)
Implanted medical device Damaged heart valves History of illegal drug use
51
A young man presents at his ear, nose and throat doctor with Kaposi's sarcoma, a rare vascular tumor that is associated with infection by herpesvirus 8. This condition is rarely seen in immunocompetent individuals. A blood test taken at the doctor's office comes back with a high titer of antibodies to HIV. What other piece of information would you need to know to determine if this patient had AIDS?
the level of helper T cells in his blood
52
Which of the following protiens is responsible for activating newly-released HIV in order to make them virulent?
protease
53
How can most causes of arboviral encephalitis, like Eastern Equine Encephalitis (EEE) be prevented?
avoid mosquitoes
54
What population is whooping cough, pertussis, the most common in?
children
55
The virus that causes hantavirus pulmonary syndrome (HPS) is most commonly transmitted how?
Breathing in the contaminated agent on dried animal feces
56
Which of the following animals are considered to be the likeliest reservoir for the bacterial agent that causes gonorrhea?
none of the above | monkeys, birds, pigs
57
Which of the following cell types is not infected by HIV?
B cells
58
What is the most common bacterial STI in the United States?
chlamydia
59
true / false Streptococcal pharyngitis is treated so aggressively because of the risk of post-infection complications, such as scarlet fever and rheumatic fever.
true
60
What is the leading infectious cause of preventable and treatable blindness in the world?
trachoma
61
true / false Although both types will result in AIDS, HIV-1 causes a more rapid progression to acquiring the immunodeficiency syndrome than HIV-2 does.
true
62
At what stage of the disease is repetitive cough with whoops, vomiting, and leukocytosis present in patients suffering from whooping cough?
Paroxysmal (2-4 weeks)
63
What are the most well-characterized virulence factors of Mycobacterium tuberculosis ? (Select all that apply)
mycolic acids | cord factor
64
true / false | The rabies virus can be transmitted through mucosal exposure to infectedtissue (CNS) or fluids (saliva).
true
65
Which is agent causes African sleeping sickness?
Trypanasoma brucei
66
Who is among the greatest risk for the arboviral encephalitis virus?
Elderly adults >65
67
What is the difference between the pH of prepubescent women and postpubescent/premenopausal women? Why?
The pH in premenopausal women is more acidic because the primary bacteria found in the vaginal canal at that stage are lactobacilli. Lactobacillus produces lactic acid making the pH acidic.
68
Measles, rubella, and fifth disease all must have which lesions: (Select all that apply)
macules | papules
69
All of the following are true about arboviral encephalitis except:
viruses in the peripheral nervous system cause the most serious infections
70
Antibiotic-associated colitis is characterized by:
systemic symptoms (fever, chills, confusion) associated with enteric fevers
71
What is the most likely way that HIV-1 arose in humans?
Chimpanzee hunters likely acquired the virus from blood of an infected chimpanzee
72
Which of these statements about cellulitis is false:
It is most commonly caused by Staphylococcus epidermidis
73
Which of the following best characterizes the reason for the immunodeficiency seen in AIDS?
HIV infects and destroys helper T cells, thus eliminating the ability of the body to direct B cells to produce antibodies and cytotoxic T cells to recognize and remove virally infected cells.
74
Patient X has been infected with a certain strain of denguevirus and their body has responded by making antibodies to that strain and fought it off. Patient X then flies to South Africa where they are infected with a different strain of denguevirus. What will most likely be the patient’s response to this new virus?
It will most likely lead to hemorrhagic fever because they will have a hyperaggressive immune response to the second strain.
75
What is the most common cause of gastroenteritis leading to hospitalization?
Salmonella enterica
76
What is the primary determinant of the severity of an infection with the Epstein-Barr virus?
State of cell-mediated immunity of the host
77
How does the botulinim toxin affect your body function?
blocks the release of acetylcholine neurotransmitters from motor neurons, resulting in flaccid paralysis
78
Which is true regarding necrotizing fasciitis?
may be difficult to prevent in some cases because normal skin flora can cause it
79
true / false | Globally, homosexual males still account for more than 75% of all HIV+ cases.
false
80
Globally, how are most new cases of HIV acquired?
Sex between a man and a woman
81
Signs or symptoms of giardiasis can include which of the following:
grossly bloody diarrhea
82
This cause of a soft tissue infection following a deep penetrating wound, requires devitalized (dead, anaerobic) tissue to spread; this organism replicates about every 8 minutes and early diagnosis and treatment is critical to a successful outcome
Clostridium perfringens
83
What is almost always the ultimate cause of death of AIDS patients?
secondary infections due to an absent immune system
84
Which of the following diseases can not be prevented by properly preparing food and practicing good hygiene?
cholera
85
What organism(s) causes antibiotic-associated colitis?
Clostridiodes (formerly Clostridium) difficile
86
All of the following are potential signs or symptoms of the tertiary phase of syphilis except
chronic debilitating arthritis
87
All of the following are ways of acquiring HIV, except
contact with a contaminated toilet seat or sharing a glass
88
Which is a known risk factor in experiencing disease caused by Clostridium difficile ?
Exposure to additional antibiotics
89
The performance of which procedure is important for the diagnosis of bacterial meningitis?
spinal tap
90
Which viral protein mediates the insertion of the HIV DNA into the host genome?
integrase
91
These proteins are associated with streptococcal pharyngitis and are the reason that certain strains cause rheumatic fever.
M proteins
92
All are signs and symptoms of cholera, except :
high persistent fever
93
Which of the following is the causative agent of Lyme disease in the United States?
Borrelia burgdorferi
94
Tuberculosis is a disease of the lower respiratory tract and is caused by a bacterial agent that encodes which of the following virulence factors?
mycolic acids
95
The lethal factor of cutaneous anthrax is responsible for:
the necrosis associated with the disease
96
Which of the follow is the identifying lesion of cutaneous anthrax?
the black eschar
97
Which microbe(s) are of MOST concern with bacterial septicemia, because of the risk of antibiotic resistance and the potential for endotoxic shock upon treatment?
Gram negative rods
98
true / false | HSV-2 infections are more common than HSV-1 infections.
false
99
A furuncle is:
Painful infection that forms around a hair follicle and extends into the deeper tissue; a boil
100
What gastrointestinal disease is associated with the consumption of heat-stable toxins?
food poisoning