fd_subjects_recovered Flashcards

2
Q

What four factors will increase the number of burning building collapses?

A
  1. The age of the buildings. Average life span = 75-100 years2. Abandonment3. Use of lightweight construction materials: lightweight wood trusses, sheet metal C Beams, wooden I beams, open bar steel joist4. Faulty renovations, illegal and improper.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define: Structural Collapse.

A

Any portion of a structure that fails as a result of fire, no matter how small.Glass falling from a window because the window frame was heated by fire and fell out or glass cracks from heat and fails.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define: Falling Object

A

Any object, other than the structure, that fails, is thrown or knocked loose from a burning building.Glass broken by a FF venting is a falling object.Broken glass from window being vented is the most common falling object at a structural fire.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which part of a building is more likely to collapse and kill FF’s?

A

Floors collapsing kill the most FF’sRoof collapse is the next most dangerous collapse.Then wall collapse.Then ceiling collapse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the secret of life?

A

Comfortable shoes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Older type truss roof buildings may be spaced how many feet apart?

A

10-20 ft.source: 2008 BC txpr notes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The stability of masonry walls is very much dependent on?

A

The integrity of the roof and on the load being concentrated in a vertical direction thru the wall.source: 2008 BC txpr notes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cast iron columns will fail on average in how many minutes

A

They are unpredictable and will fail in 30 minutes.source: 2008 BC txpr notes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define: Pilaster

A
  1. A masonry column bonded and built as part of an interior wall. 2. Sometimes called a wall column.3. It can carry the load of a girder or timber or provide lateral support to a wall.Dunn 2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define: Buttress

A

1, A wall reinforcement built on the outside of a wall.2. A column of bricks built into a wall.3. The presence of a buttress can indicate where roof trusses or girders are supported by a bearing wall. Dunn 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When assessing collapse what three factors should be considered?

A
  1. Type of construction.2. Intensity of the fire.3. Time structural member have been burning.T I Tsource: 2008 BC txpr notes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Discovery of Firearms, Ammunition and/or Incendiary devices; General actions to be taken.

A

Members shall not attempt to handle or move ANY firearm, ammunition or incendiary device.  The item shall not be disturbed. Prompt notification shall be given to the IC upon discovery of firearms, ammunition, or possible incendiary devices at any operation. Members shall establish an isolation area and evacuate civilians as necessary. Firearms shall be considered loaded, dangerous and possibly “booby trapped”. Do not permit anyone to stand in line with the muzzle or breech of any firearm. Notifications shall be made to the NYPD and BFI. When consistent with safety, the IC shall assign members to safeguard evidence from a safe distance until the arrival of NYPD or BFI. Evidence should only be handled by NYPD or BFI and the disposal of dangerous articles shall only be performed by law enforcement. ERP Add 3, 6.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When requested by the NYPD for a standby at a suspicious device, what FD units Standby?

A

1 Engine, 1 Ladder, 1 BC, 1 EMS Conditions Officer, 1 BLS ambulance. ERP Add 3,7.3.2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What units make up a Rescue Task Force?

A

1 Rescue Company1 Collapse Rescue1 Squad Company w/ second piece1 SOC Support Ladder1 Rescue Paramedic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define a Biological Exposures

A

A member exposed to bloodborne, airborne, or other infectious pathogens (e.g., bodily fluids). Medical officer notification is requiredwith or without symptoms. SB 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Non-Biological Exposures

A

A member exposed to a non-biological hazardous substance, or possible hazardous substance. Medical officer notification isrequired only for symptoms. SB 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Additional EMS resources assigned on signal 10-66 include:

A

 EMS Division Captain. 1 EMS Haz-Tac Officer. 1 Rescue Paramedic ALS Ambulance 1 BLS Ambulance. 1 ALS Ambulance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Sweep tide occurs on what tide?

A

Outgoing. Sweep out.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Definitions:A) A beam is a horizontal structural member subject to compression, tension and shear.B) A beam can be supported in three ways; Cantilever support, Simple Support, andContinuous Support.

A

Definitions:C) Cantilever support is when a beam is supported at one end only, the least stable type of beam.D) Simple support is when a beam is supported at both ends, more stable than cantilever.E) Continuous support is when a beam is supported at both ends and at the center, the most stable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Advantages and Disadvantages of a fire cut beam?

A

C) An unintended, indirect advantage of the fire cut beam, is the safety of firefightersoperating outside the building near the enclosing walls. A floor collapse will not topple thebearing walls outward on top of them.D) The disadvantage to firefighters operating inside where fire cut beams are found is earlyfloor collapse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Inward / Outward Collapse of Exterior Walls

A

D) Wooden braced-frame buildings collapse in this manner.E) Timber truss roof collapse can cause a 2nd collapse of the front or rear walls in this manner.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Define External forces and internal forces?

A

External forces are loads, internal forces are stresses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How does a non-bearing wall collapse?

A

at a 90 degree angle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Safety Officer Assignment-

A

Assigned on 2nd or greater alarms10-60 – 3rd due BC10-76 – 5th due BC10-77 – 4th due BC10-80-2 – 3rd due BCCannot be an ABC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Resources Unit Leader Assignment

A

Assigned on 2nd or greater alarms10-60 – 6th BC10-76 – 3rd BC on 2nd Alarm10-77 – 1st BC on 2nd Alarmcan be an ABC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

10-80-1 BC Assignments

A

1st BC – Operations Section Chief2nd BC – Site Access Control Leader

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

10-80-2

A

3rd BC – Safety Officer 4th BC – Planning Sections Chief5th BC – Haz-Mat Branch Staging Manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

10-80-3 No more BC’s assigned10-80-4

A

No more BC’s assigned1 BC as part of a Mass Decon Task Force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

10-80-1 BC Assignments

A

1st BC – Operations Section Chief2nd BC – Site Access Control Leader

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

10-80-2

A

3rd BC – Safety Officer 4th BC – Planning Sections Chief5th BC – Haz-Mat Branch Staging Manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

10-80-3 No more BC’s assigned10-80-4

A

No more BC’s assigned1 BC as part of a Mass Decon Task Force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

10-66 BC Assignment First and second BC positions may already be filled. The 2 BC’s that came with the 10-66 are available to be reassigned.

A

1st BC –Fast Group Supervisor2nd BC – FF Locator OfficerIf the next higher alarm is a 2nd than – 3rd BC – Staging Area Manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

When is a BC special called by the dispatcher to perform the duties of Resources Unit Leader?

A

At 2nd and greater alarms and 10-60 incidents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the primary consideration at PCB incidents

A

the safety of civilians and fire personnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

If any of the names appearing in section 4 are shown, the “PCB level(PPM)” column will be …

A

blank since these dielectric fluids contains PCB inamounts in the hundreds of thousands PPM PCB.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Regarding PCB what is the Proper extinguishing methods to be used according to the properties of theinvolved materials?

A

A. Fog or foam for flammable liquids.B. Water for structural members.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Members exposed or possibly exposed To PCB’s shall

A

A. Shall be confined to a designated area until decontaminated.B. Shall be decontaminated along with their equipment as outlined in HMO2.C. Shall be examined by a Medical Officer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The best way to identify M2 cars is

A

the orange stripe on each side of the car and pantograph on the roof of the “A” car. there will be a PCB containingtransformer in every car which will have attached to it the EPA approved label.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Brownstone two floors of fire

A

extra engine and ladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Brownstone heavy fire in the cellar and basement

A

second alarm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

When two handlines are operating on an advanced fire in a store, (taxpayer)

A

special call an extra engine and ladder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Regarding Taxpayers, extension to the cockloft, adjoining occupancy or for an advanced fire in the cellar

A

Transmit a second alarm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Regarding Non fireproof MD’s, If two floors are involved, or at extensive cockloft fires,

A

it will generally be necessary to transmit a 2nd alarm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

For a fire on two floors in a OLT or NLT …

A

Special call extra engine and truck progress not made on at least one floor, transmit a second alarm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

When would a second Post Radio be located at the Fire Sector Supervisior location on a 10-76.

A

When an Attach Chief is assigned to the Fire Sector. The 2nd Post Radio is set to channel 1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The major firefighting problem in Fire-Resistive Construction is …

A

The Central Air Conditioning System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What do Fire Dampers stop …

A

flame spread but does not stop the spread of smoke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

During any fire in a modern building the IC should order the bldg management to …

A

shut the off the central air system serving the living spaces and public hallways.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

FF cannot extinguish fires over how many square feet?

A

5000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the major firefighting problem in Non-Combustible/Limited Combustible Construction?

A

the flat, steel deck roof covering hat can ignite during a fire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Regarding non-combustible/limited combustible construction, as soon as the fire is darkened down what should a FF do

A

check the roof covering above the the fluted metal deck for fire extension. As heat may have conducted thru the metal and ignited the combustible roof covering.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Regarding non-combustible/limited combustible construction, as soon as the fire is extinguished what should a FF do?

A

The IC should order a company to the roof to check the the combustible asphalt roof covering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the major collapse problem in non-Combustible/Limited Combustible Construction?

A

roof cave in from the use of open web steel bar joist. The collapsing material is the UNprotected open web bar joist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the main advantage of the lightweight steel roof support

A

the non combustibility, the bar joist does not add fuel to the fire.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Metal roofs are not designed to support FF’s during a fire, what type of bldg prohibits open bar joist construction?

A

Hi Rise commercial bldgs since 9/11.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the major fire problem in Ordinary “Brick & Joist” Construction?

A

the fire and smoke spread throughout concealed spaces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Regarding Brick and Joist bldgs what two tactics does Dunn suggest?

A
  1. As soon as possible after a fire is extinguished, a FF must be directed to open the ceiling above the fire & nearby wall to examine for fire spread within concealed spaces.2. If fire is discovered in a concealed space, the cockloft space above the top floor must be checked for fire before leaving the scene.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is The major fire problem in Heavy Timber Construction

A

The large wooden interior timber framework.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

The major firefighting problem in Wood-Frame Construction is

A

the combustible outside wooden walls.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The major collapse hazard in Wood-Frame Construction is

A

the combustible bearing walls composed of 2 x 4 inch studs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

There are three ways a masonry exterior building wall can collapse:the most common type of masonry wall failure at fires is

A

90-degree angle, curtain fall, inward-outward 90-degree angle is the most common.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the priority order for the use of PPV:

A

Pressurizing he attack stairwell Pressurizing the evacuation stairwell Venting the Public hallways for smoke and CO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Timber is wood construction larger than

A

2x4 but not large enough to be considered heavy time or mill construction. Dunn Brkdwn pg 41

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Mill lofts construction feature, wooden columns are how large?

A

6 – 10 inches in diameter and topped with iron caps. Lofts 5.3.2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Square columns in lofts are used where?

A

On lower floors and are 20% stronger than round ones of equal dimension. Lofts 5.3.2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Some Mill “hybrid” buildings have what type of columns?

A

Protected cast-iron columns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Timber Truss Roof can be built in what shapes?

A

Inclined Plan truss (Gable shape)Parallel Chord Truss (Flat)Bowstring Truss – most common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

When is the command channel implemented?

A

10-60 10-66 10-763rd alarm or greater10-77 and more than one sector is established. {On a regular 77, only one sector is established, the Fire Sector.}Complex Operations as per the ICComm Man 11 7.3.2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

When are Command Channel training drills held?

A

May and November. At 2nd alarms, all large scale drills and discussed at Division Conferences.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Tactical Supervisors that operate on the Tactical Channel are: Comm. Man 11 7.3.5.B

A

Sector Supervisors and or Branch Director (DC) Fire Floor, Floor Above, Roof Sector, Exposure Sectors, Group Supervisors, Search and Rescue Group Supervisor, Collapse Group SupervisorSafety Officer, Resource Unit Leader

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Which Chiefs operate on the Command Channel?

A

Officers assigned to Planning Chief, Staging Area Manager, Air Recon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

No member shall operate on other than the primary Tactical Channel with authorization of?

A

The IC or the Resource Unit Leader.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

When does the Hi Rise Unit respond?

A

Any second alarm in conjunction with a 10-77.10-76 and greaterAny underground subway incident that is a 7-5 or greater.Special called

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Who authorizes Agency data code 9111?

A

The Chief of Operations, Used for preparedness work, or emergency response.4Q Update, AUC 159, Add 5, 1.11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

When the Fire Saftey Director is not present, and there is less than 100 above/below and less than 500 people in entire bldg, who is that person?

A

Building Evacuation Supervisor (Glossary)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Regarding plenums, core construction and fire towers for pre 1945 Hi-Rise:

A

Plenums generally not foundCore construction NOT used38 – 68 All bldgs required to have fire tower.Some prior to 38 have fire tower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Regarding fire towers and Hi-Rise 45 – 68

A

Fire towers were required in all of these bldgs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Regarding fire towers and core construction for Hi-Rise after 1968:

A

NO fire towers and core construction used extensively.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Fusible links have a temperature rating of ___ above the maximum temperature that would normally be found with the system

A

50 F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Activation of any detector installed in an HVAC system shall stop the air supply?

A

Into and the return from the affected floor only. Manual pull station sounds alarm on fire floor and floor above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Third Stage pumping what gpm at what psi

A

3rd stage 500 gpm @ 700 psi 357

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Where is the CFRD engine and FAST unit assigned to on a 10-76?

A

They are both assigned to the Fire Sector Supervisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Where does the CFRD engine and FAST unit report into on a 10-77?

A

They will report into the Incident Commander. The FAST Unit and CFR Engine shall beASSIGNED to the Fire Sector when the fire is above the sixth floor. They can be staged on the floor below the fire floor, ready for rapid deployment. At lower floor fires (sixth floor or below) the position of the FAST Unit and the CFR Engine will be determined by the IC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What channel does the Forward Staging Area Manager operate on?

A

The command channel, aide monitors the primary tac.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Who does the Fwd Staging area provide support to?

A

The Fire Sector/Branch and the SAE Group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Regarding the 10-77 signal the terms “due” and “arrives” are used. Which Chief is referred to as being “due” rather than “arrives”?

A

The 4th due Chief is the safety Chief. An ABC cannot be a Safety Chief. All other Chiefs are assigned as they arrive.The 5th due Chief on a 10-76 is the Safety Coordinator.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

The Lobby Control Unit will operate on what channel?

A

The Tactical Channel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Who will notify theFAST Truck when additional communication channels are use?

A

The IC must notify the FAST Truck. Not the Dispatcher.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What other special unit shall the IC special call, when the ARCS is activiated?

A

The Field Comm Satellite Unit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

If the height of the fire floor requires pressure in excess of 250 psi,whomust ensure safety zones are marked off and controlled?

A

The High Pressure Pumping Group Supervisor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

The Lobby Control Unit will operate on what channel?

A

The Tactical Channel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

The operation, shut down or change of any building system shall not be done without the permission of?

A

The IC or Operation Section Chief. The operation of bldg systems must be done with the assistance of bldg personnel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

When is a post fire analysis conducted?

A

A member is killed An explosion, back draft or BLEVE occurs A structural failure occurs where a FF was injured A large loss caused by fire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is a dwarf partition wall? Dunn ch. 21

A

These walls extend only to the underside of the ceiling and do not stop or limit fire spread above the ceiling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

According to Dunn what is the most important strategy and tactical consideration at a fire?

A

Water supply and pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

According to Brannigan, what are two examples of Cold Drawn Steel and what temp does it fail?

A

Cables used to brace failing buildings or tendons used in tensioned concrete. 800 F.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

According to Brannigan, what happens as the length of a beam increases?

A

The beams load carrying capacity decreases proportionately. A 12’ beam can carry ½ the load of a 6’ beam.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

According to Brannigan, regarding width, when another 2x4 is laid alongside a similar 2x4 what happens to the carrying capacity?

A

It is increased by a factor of 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

According to Branningan, regarding depth, what is the difference between a 2x8 beam and a 2x4 beam?

A

A 2x8 beam is twice as deep as a 2x4 beam. The 2x8 has a carrying capacity increased by the square of two or 4 times the carrying capacity of the 2x4.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

FACT: A report missing a member’s signature and/or narrative is not a reason to return for clarification. Completed reports may be missing a member’s signature and/or narrative.

A

FACT: Reports listed as “Not Completed” are those reports that have been initiated by the Supervisor, but are lacking complete information. No action by the Reviewer is required at this time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Regarding Hybrid vehicles most, highvoltage cables are color-coded … and SOME are color coded …

A

most orange some blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Many hybrid vehicles use a keyless start system. Make sure the ignition is OFF and the key or key fob is at least

A

15 feet away from the vehicle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

As a BC with a reserve apparatus in your battalion, a Report documenting the loss of equipment on the reserve would come from the … and the lost property report would come from ….

A

Report to Chief of Department would come from the Officer housing the reserve documenting the missing items and circumstances of the loss. The lost property report would come from the officer of the reserve apparatus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Deactivation of transformers shall be performed only by AUC 266 6.4.2

A

Con Edison Personnel orEngineering Personnel of the .premises familiar with procedure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

When two handlines are operating on an advanced fire in a store, Taxpayers 5.7.4

A

special call an extra engine and ladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Extension to the cockloft, adjoiningoccupancy or for an advanced fire in the cellar of a taxpayer ..

A

Transmit a second alarm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What are the most common types of wood construction used for sloping roofs?

A

Timber Truss, Plank and beam and rafter construction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Which wooden roof construction has the largest unsupported roof deck?

A

The truss roof, followed by the plank and beam.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Hip roofs have how many primary structural members?

A

9 total. 4 Bearing walls (NEW INFO) one ridge rafter and 4 hip rafters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

A canopy is _________ dangerous than a marquee?

A

More. The most dangerous type of canopy is a metal or wood shed suspended over a truck loading area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

At each elevator landing, the activation of smoke detector, temperature this device AND a sprinkler water flow alarm shall:

A
  1. Recall the elevators.2. Sound the fire alarm signal on the FIRE FLOOR AND FLOOR ABOVE.3. Cause a fire alarm signal to be transmitted to the Fire Department via a central station.4. Cause a fire alarm signal to be sounded at the fire command station, the mechanical control center and the regularly assignedlocation of the fire safety director.5. Stop the air supply into and the RETURN air from the floor where activated.6. Activate the air exhaust fans and dampers in the smoke shaft or the pressurizing fans in the stair enclosure.7. Unlock the doors on the locked fail safe system.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Greater alarm (engines or ladder) or special called (engines or ladder companies after the fourth arriving ladder company shall report to the

A

ICP in the lobby or if staffed, the Lobby Control Unit. Upon the establishment of a Staging Area outside the building, units will report into the Staging Area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Units without specific orders to the contrary shall bring SCBAs, rolled up lengthsand spare SCBA cylinders to

A

the lobby area. If not required for their specific use, such equipment will be added to Forward Staging Area supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Who will activate the Building ARCS? How?

A

1st arriving Ladder Company. At fire command station with 1620 key or on off switch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

If the FDNY vehicle cross band repeater fails to operate or is not available, theIncident Commander should attempt

A

Post Radio to Post Radio communications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

If post radio to post radio communication fail after the repeater has failed what is the next step?

A

Direct a member to a Battalion vehicle in order to contact the Fire Sector/Branch on the 40 watt FDNY mobile UHF radio to relay messages.Designate a member with a Post radio to take a position outside the building to relay messages.If all Post radio options fail to provide a viable communications link, then utilize the ARCS as follows to establish a Command Channel:1. If building is equipped with a duplex UHF radio repeater system,designate a member to contact all established Posts (Fire Sector/Branch,SAE Group, Forward SA) to set a HT to Channels 11 or 12 and use thebuilding duplex UHF radio repeater system as the Command Channel or2. Use the in-house proprietary radio channel as the Command Channel.If Post to Post radio communication is viable, the ARCS should still be established asa backup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

The operation, shut down or change of any building system shall not be done without the permission of?

A

The IC or Operation Section Chief. The operation of bldg systems must be done with the assistance of bldg personnel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

When is the Air Support Plan activated?

A

Air Support Plan is for the ARC.Doubtful second alarm 10-76 0r 7710 – 60All doubtful third alarms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

When is the Air Rescue Plan for Hi-Rise structures put into Alert Phase?

A

Doubtful third alarm associated with a 10 – 76 or 77. No movement of HRRC or HRRT at this time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

HRRC obtains what info from the IC thru the dispatcher while responding to the mobilization point?

A

Progress ReportId attack and evacuation stairsId stairs that lead to the roof

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Who operates on the TAC U channel, ch 13?

A

The HRRC, HRRT’s and PD ESU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What is a dwarf partition wall? Dunn ch. 21

A

These walls extend only to the underside of the ceiling and do not stop or limit fire spread above the ceiling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

When is a post fire analysis conducted?

A

A member is killedAn explosion, back draft or BLEVE occursA structural failure occurs where a FF was injuredA large loss caused by fire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

According to Dunn what is the most important strategy and tactical consideration at a fire?

A

Water supply and pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

According to Brannigan, what are two examples of Cold Drawn Steel and what temp does it fail?

A

Cables used to brace failing buildings or tendons used in tensioned concrete. 800 F.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

According to Brannigan, what happens as the length of a beam increases?

A

The beams load carrying capacity decreases proportionately. A 12’ beam can carry ½ the load of a 6’ beam.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

According to Brannigan, regarding width, when another 2x4 is laid alongside a similar 2x4 what happens to the carrying capacity?

A

It is increased by a factor of 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

According to Branningan, regarding depth, what is the difference between a 2x8 beam and a 2x4 beam?

A

A 2x8 beam is twice as deep as a 2x4 beam. The 2x8 has a carrying capacity increased by the square of two or 4 times the carrying capacity of the 2x4.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Can the HT recorder system record all HT channel?

A

NO, Channel 9 is not recorded. It is a digital channel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Can a Battalion vehicle be left unattended and still running?

A

Yes, All battalion vehicles are equipped with a “Secure Idle System.” Battalion vehicles must be left running at fire and emergency operations to ensure Battalion Recorders continue to function for the duration of the incident.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Is the Cross Band Repeater installed in all Battalion vehicles?

A

NO, Some Battalion vehicles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Where is the RCO during an Emergency Roll Call?

A

The RCO and the member assisting and filling out the pre-printed form, should be in an area away from the Command Post.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

According to Dunn, the light weight metal grid system with removalable panels of a suspended ceiling presents what type of hazard?

A

An entanglement hazard.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

According to Branningan, in a brick bearing wall, headers can be seen usually every _____ row.

A

7th row.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

When is a 2 1/2 used at a PD?

A

Consider stretching a 2½ inch hoseline for a faster knock down, greater reach of stream, increased volume of water and increased exposure protection. Note: A 2½ inch hoseline shall also be considered when encountering a wind impacted fire.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

DUTIES OF FIRST ALARM UNITS AT A BUILDING Collapse Engine Company Responsibilities In order of highest to least priority, first alarm engine companies are to:

A

 Extinguish active fire in the affected building and surrounding debris.  Protect exposures.  Extinguish burning vehicles within the vicinity of the collapse.  At scenes where there is no active fire, stretch and charge precautionary 2½” lines in sufficient number and length to cover the entire operation. In addition, a 3½” line shall be stretched and charged to supply the first arriving tower ladder.  At a suspected terrorist event, 2½” hoselines should be located between two apparatus, or other substantial shielding, to protect personnel from secondary blasts set to injure emergency responders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Which Engine Company arriving on the first alarm at a collapse should ensure a 3 1/2 supply line is stretched to the 1st TL?

A

2nd Engine Same as fire in Cellar at a Taxpayer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

At bldg collapse, who would you expect to be Assisting in the removal of lightly buried victims.

A

7.4 Third and Subsequent Arriving Engines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Bldg Collapse 1st Ladder, does what type of void search?

A

Visually search accessible voids - DO NOT cut, lift or remove load bearing members. Call and listen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Building Collapse 10-60 8.3 The first arriving Deputy Chief becomes the Incident Commander and the first arriving Battalion Chief can be reassigned …

A

as the Planning Section Chief.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Regarding building collapse At construction or demolition sites, seek out the _______ for information about previous conditions. Regarding the use of wood forms for support of concrete - buildings under construction, who could state when concrete was exactly poured? SB 66 According to Dunn, who is consulted to determine the structural stability of the formwork?

A

FFP Collpase = the Site Safety Manager or Construction Manager SB 66 = a construction engineer, building superintendent or concrete foreman he states exactly the time that the concrete was poured, arriving unitsshould assume that it was sometime within the prior 24 hours. Dunn = The construction shoring foreman.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

According to Dunn, where should an observer be positioned at a building collapse?

A

At the point of the shoring to monitor the structural member continuously for further movement. pg 98 breakdown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Notebooks are kept for ONE year. Reading list is continued for THREE years. Notebook is reviewed by member weekly, OOD each tour member works, Co Cmdr monthly, Chiefs during drill visits. notebook in company office. lost / destroyed notebook = letterhead to Division.

A

Reading Schedule when member reads = initial and date OOD when member drills on Co Cmdr once a month Chiefs = no mention of reading schedule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Foam Stretch largest available hose to the cannon. Under no condition should hose less than ___” be used to supply the Foam Cannon. Stretch _____ hose from the Foam Carrier to the Portable Reservoir. Secure the hose to the top of the reservoir. The _____________ shall order the delivery of foam concentrate to the Portable Reservoir and _____ will order water started. The Cannon on an eductor setting of 3 will use 35 gallons of concentrate to produce 970 gallons of solution per minute. A 1000-gallon booster tank will last about 30 minutes educting at an approximate 3% solution.

A

2 1/2 to suppy foam cannon 1 3/4 foam carrier to portable reservoir Chief in Command, Chief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

An MV-104 shall be prepared for which situations?

A

It is completed within 10 days. It is the express responsiblility of the vehicle operator. An Accident resulting in a death or personal injury. Total of $1000 or more to the property of any one person. Value of damage cannont be estimated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Regarding entering the tracks from the Light Train, who will notify FD Units that the power is confirmed off?

A

The Transit Authority will notify the FD Unit on the Light Train directly and the Chief thru FD Dispatcher. Add 7, 2.3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Regarding fire in the track area, where should other members acting as safety people be stationed?

A

onthe platform where the benchwall is located, and also on the opposite platform. 5.4.2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Regaring contact shoes of subway cars, if any contact shoe is on the third rai, what is energized?

A

All the contact shoes of THAT CAR will be energized. 8.2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Regarding energized electrical equipment is water applied to equipement that has been involved in fire?

A

The purpose of applying water streams to exposed electrical components is to prevent collateral damage to the surrounding equipment. Electrical equipment that is or has been involved in fire has no useful value and is replaced by Con Edison. Handlines shall never be used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Who can authorize the use of water streams at a Con Ed Generating facilities?

A

This decision can only be made by aChief Officer above the rank of Deputy Chief (or a Deputy Chief operating as Car 421 orCar 422) in consultation with the Con Edison White Hat at the scene.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

What are the minimum safe operating distances for applying water on energized or de-energized electrical components: __ feet on live 138 kV electrical components for 30° or greater FOG streams. __ feet on live 138 kV electrical components for 30° or greater fog feet on live 138 kV electrical components for all STRAIGHT or SOLID streams and streams less than 30° fog. This distance is equal to approximately (1½) lengths of hose. __feet on live 345 kV electrical components for 30° or greater fog streams __ feet on live 345 kV electrical components for all straight or solid streams and streams less than 30° fog.

A

15 feet on live 138 kV FOG stream 75 feet on 138 kV solid stream 25 feet on 345 kV FOG stream 125 feet on 345 kC solid stream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Can the AquaStream fog nozzle be used for Con Ed energized electrical equipment?

A

NO,The Aquastream Master Stream Nozzle carried by all Aerial Ladder and EngineCompanies is factory pre-set to a fog stream pattern of 130 degrees. This nozzle shall notbe used because it does not provide enough stream penetration to allow for maintainingsafe operating distances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

At least one tower ladder shall be special called to EVERY major collapse.

A

Not every collapse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

According to Dunn, the light weight metal grid system with removalable panels of a suspended ceiling presents what type of hazard?

A

An entanglement hazard.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

According to Branningan, in a brick bearing wall, headers can be seen usually every _____ row.

A

7th row.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

When is a 2 1/2 used at a PD?

A

Consider stretching a 2½ inch hoseline for a faster knock down, greater reach of stream, increased volume of water and increased exposure protection. Note: A 2½ inch hoseline shall also be considered when encountering a wind impacted fire.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

DUTIES OF FIRST ALARM UNITS AT A BUILDING Collapse Engine Company Responsibilities In order of highest to least priority, first alarm engine companies are to:

A

 Extinguish active fire in the affected building and surrounding debris.  Protect exposures.  Extinguish burning vehicles within the vicinity of the collapse.  At scenes where there is no active fire, stretch and charge precautionary 2½” lines in sufficient number and length to cover the entire operation. In addition, a 3½” line shall be stretched and charged to supply the first arriving tower ladder.  At a suspected terrorist event, 2½” hoselines should be located between two apparatus, or other substantial shielding, to protect personnel from secondary blasts set to injure emergency responders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Which Engine Company arriving on the first alarm at a collapse should ensure a 3 1/2 supply line is stretched to the 1st TL?

A

2nd Engine Same as fire in Cellar at a Taxpayer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

At bldg collapse, who would you expect to be Assisting in the removal of lightly buried victims.

A

7.4 Third and Subsequent Arriving Engines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Bldg Collapse 1st Ladder, does what type of void search?

A

Visually search accessible voids - DO NOT cut, lift or remove load bearing members. Call and listen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Building Collapse 10-60 8.3 The first arriving Deputy Chief becomes the Incident Commander and the first arriving Battalion Chief can be reassigned …

A

as the Planning Section Chief.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Regarding building collapse At construction or demolition sites, seek out the _______ for information about previous conditions. Regarding the use of wood forms for support of concrete - buildings under construction, who could state when concrete was exactly poured? SB 66 According to Dunn, who is consulted to determine the structural stability of the formwork?

A

FFP Collpase = the Site Safety Manager or Construction Manager SB 66 = a construction engineer, building superintendent or concrete foreman he states exactly the time that the concrete was poured, arriving unitsshould assume that it was sometime within the prior 24 hours. Dunn = The construction shoring foreman.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

According to Dunn, where should an observer be positioned at a building collapse?

A

At the point of the shoring to monitor the structural member continuously for further movement. pg 98 breakdown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Notebooks are kept for ONE year. Reading list is continued for THREE years. Notebook is reviewed by member weekly, OOD each tour member works, Co Cmdr monthly, Chiefs during drill visits. notebook in company office. lost / destroyed notebook = letterhead to Division.

A

Reading Schedule when member reads = initial and date OOD when member drills on Co Cmdr once a month Chiefs = no mention of reading schedule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Foam Stretch largest available hose to the cannon. Under no condition should hose less than ___” be used to supply the Foam Cannon. Stretch _____ hose from the Foam Carrier to the Portable Reservoir. Secure the hose to the top of the reservoir. The _____________ shall order the delivery of foam concentrate to the Portable Reservoir and _____ will order water started. The Cannon on an eductor setting of 3 will use 35 gallons of concentrate to produce 970 gallons of solution per minute. A 1000-gallon booster tank will last about 30 minutes educting at an approximate 3% solution.

A

2 1/2 to suppy foam cannon 1 3/4 foam carrier to portable reservoir Chief in Command, Chief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

An MV-104 shall be prepared for which situations?

A

It is completed within 10 days. It is the express responsiblility of the vehicle operator. An Accident resulting in a death or personal injury. Total of $1000 or more to the property of any one person. Value of damage cannont be estimated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Regarding entering the tracks from the Light Train, who will notify FD Units that the power is confirmed off?

A

The Transit Authority will notify the FD Unit on the Light Train directly and the Chief thru FD Dispatcher. Add 7, 2.3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Regarding fire in the track area, where should other members acting as safety people be stationed?

A

onthe platform where the benchwall is located, and also on the opposite platform. 5.4.2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Regaring contact shoes of subway cars, if any contact shoe is on the third rai, what is energized?

A

All the contact shoes of THAT CAR will be energized. 8.2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Regarding energized electrical equipment is water applied to equipement that has been involved in fire?

A

The purpose of applying water streams to exposed electrical components is to prevent collateral damage to the surrounding equipment. Electrical equipment that is or has been involved in fire has no useful value and is replaced by Con Edison. Handlines shall never be used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Who can authorize the use of water streams at a Con Ed Generating facilities?

A

This decision can only be made by aChief Officer above the rank of Deputy Chief (or a Deputy Chief operating as Car 421 orCar 422) in consultation with the Con Edison White Hat at the scene.

187
Q

What are the minimum safe operating distances for applying water on energized or de-energized electrical components: __ feet on live 138 kV electrical components for 30° or greater FOG streams. __ feet on live 138 kV electrical components for 30° or greater fog feet on live 138 kV electrical components for all STRAIGHT or SOLID streams and streams less than 30° fog. This distance is equal to approximately (1½) lengths of hose. __feet on live 345 kV electrical components for 30° or greater fog streams __ feet on live 345 kV electrical components for all straight or solid streams and streams less than 30° fog.

A

15 feet on live 138 kV FOG stream 75 feet on 138 kV solid stream 25 feet on 345 kV FOG stream 125 feet on 345 kC solid stream

188
Q

Can the AquaStream fog nozzle be used for Con Ed energized electrical equipment?

A

NO,The Aquastream Master Stream Nozzle carried by all Aerial Ladder and EngineCompanies is factory pre-set to a fog stream pattern of 130 degrees. This nozzle shall notbe used because it does not provide enough stream penetration to allow for maintainingsafe operating distances.

189
Q

The possibility of run-off water from a Con Edison facility being charged with electrical current is

A

extremely remote. 7.11

191
Q

The possibility of run-off water from a Con Edison facility being charged with electrical current is

A

extremely remote. 7.11

197
Q

When operating on a roof of questionable stability with hands tools or power saw, full use of the personal harness & LSR shall be used to limit travel of the operator of tool to a radius of no more than ______ ft from the basket.

A

10 feet. Create a bowline with a 15 ft loop.

198
Q

Operating on peaked roofs can be difficult. To reach the ridge you would place the basket at a contact point on the roof and use a _________ to get to the ridge.

A

A hook ladder.

199
Q

When pushing down ceilings from a roof of a taxpayer from the TL basket, you would consider using which 2 tools?

A

10 foot hooks or a portable ladder.

200
Q

Venting a peaked roof with a power saw is done in 4 steps. There is a knockout cut, a cut perpendicular to the ridge pole, one parallel to the ridge pole and one running on an angle from the ridge pole down towards the gutter line. Put these cuts in the correct order.

A
  1. parallel to ridge pole 2. angular cut from cut #1 down towards gutter line 3. perpendicular to ridge pole 4. knockout cut. NOTE: make cut on the leeward side of the roof.
201
Q

Power Saw usage on a brick.block wall. this is made in 3 cuts. Describe the procedure.

A

1st and 2nd cuts downward on an angle. 3rd cut (if necessary) will be made along the mortar line. Blade will be worn down and mortar lines are easier to cut. Or remove brick by hand. NOTE: if wall is 2 courses thick, make outer hole larger to ensure getting the saw in to cut 2nd hole.

202
Q

Victim removal via TL Basket. Fire in front of building. 1 ambulatory and 1 non-ambulatory. Give priority order and basket position.

A

Tip: Fat, Front, First. Fire in front, take the more complicated victim 1st. Set top railing level with sill. For an ambulatory victim, middle railing level with sill. Fire in the rear, make the easy grab 1st, then go back for the harder one.

203
Q

Stokes basket removal via TL basket. Indicate the 3 ways to do this and which way is the preferred method? (5.2.1.D)

A

Vertical, diagonal (in basket), or horizontally lashed across the railings. Diagonal placement is easier and safer.

204
Q

Fire building is heavily involved on several floors when the IC calls for a TL stream to be employed. How shall the stream be operated? (6.2.2)

A

Begin at the lowest level, working upward to the top floor or cockloft. NOTE: this is for a quick knockdown, not final extinguishment.

205
Q

Heavy fire in the cockloft. How will the TL basket be positioned to operate? (6.2.3)

A

Position close to, and low in the window using stream to open up ceiling and expose the cockloft.

206
Q

TRUE or FALSE The stream shaper on the Stang nozzle shall be used for all water applications at fires and/or emergencies. (6.2.7)

A

False: stream shaper is used only for straight stream nozzles. Remove the stream shaper for fog nozzles. Attach it directly to the looped barrel.

207
Q

When operating a TL, how far shall the basket be kept from the building? (6.2.3.F)

A

Keep basket at least the same distance horizontally from building as it will be vertically below the top of the wall.

208
Q

Water Delivery to TL:Best Source_______Supply base of TL with ______psiRelief Valve set at ______psiHow many water sources? _____Where is the pumper located? _______

A

Satellite Water Unit 200-250 psi250 psiGenerally only 1 source of waterPlace pumper as close as possible to TL

209
Q

A relay pumper adjacent to TL should have in excess of _____ psi intake pressure with water flowing in order to operate in volume and deliver close to 250 psi.

A

In excess of 80 psi.

210
Q

Which threads are stretched to the TL inlets? Male or female? (6.6.1.K)

A

Male threads

211
Q

After heavy caliber streams have operated in a building, who’s responsibility is it to survey the building for run-off, structural damage or any other dangerous condition? (6.7.1)

A

The tower ladder officer will conduct the inspection.

212
Q

Nozzle pressures should not generally exceed _____ psi.

A

100 psi.

213
Q

TRUE or FALSE When a TL is supplied thru its 4 1/2” inlet, supplying additional lines thru the 3 1/2’ gated siamese shall be prohibited. (6.7.6)

A

True. It can rupture the waterway or possibly flip the basket. The relief valve cannot handle excessive pressures.

214
Q

TRUE or FALSE: The TL Basket is not to be used as a lowering device for structural debris. (7.2.2)

A

False: sections of cornice (or other “materials”) may be removed to the street providing it doesn’t extend beyond the railing of the basket.

215
Q

If live overhead wires make contact with the TL, what must be done? (8.1.1)

A

The TL is placed out of service. Consider the supply pumper and supply lines as well.

216
Q

TL’s are drained at a ____ degree angle. (9.1.1)

A

60 degree

217
Q

Once the boom has been bedded, you should……….. (9.1.2, 9.1.4)

A

Open drain plugs at basket base to insure complete drainage, and open hydraulic pressure relief valve once boom is bedded and jacks & outriggers seated.

218
Q

The Tower Ladder is inspected _______. (10.1.1)

A

Daily

221
Q

The placement of aerial ladder is dependent on what four conditions?

A
  • Weather immediate Resque is apparent- Where No immediate resque is required, the size and frontage of the building to be covered in case of future needs- Smoke, heat or fire causing an exposure that would endanger a vitmin, a member or the Ladder- Area or street conditons that might hamper optimum positioning.2.1 GS
222
Q

A–For an A/L what is the recommened distanceof the tip from the objective ?B–In case of resque what is distance?C– What is the exception to this recommended minimum distance?

A

A– 2” to 6” inchesB– in case resque use the 2 “ position so ladder resr against window sill after weight is put on it.C– exception is at a very extreme angle allow the ladder to barley touch the building to prevent excessive movement when a FF cllimbs to a high elevation.3.1.5 GS

223
Q

A–When placing A/L at a window how should it be positioned?B– (cross referance P/L) When placing a P/L at a window how should it be positioned?

A

A–A/L placement must allow for unimpeded acess and egress at the window, the tip shouls be less then 6 inches over the window sill.3.1.6 GSB– P/L at window tip shall be even with the window sillP/L 8.5.1

224
Q

A– How position A/L for resque for a fire escape?B– (cross referance P/L) How place P/L at a fire escape?

A

A– A/L places alongside the fire escape and against the building ( 2” out from FE) with the tip about one to three ft above the FE balcoy railing. if possible place A/L on the least exposed side of buildingNote- remenber loss in height due to ladder locks.L2 3.3 GSB- P/L place alongside FE on the building wall tip shall be 1 to 3 feet above FE railing.– place P/L against a FE tip shall be slightly above FE railing8.5.1

225
Q

A–How position A/L for severe fire at narrow frontage building (30 feet or less) no people showing on arrival?B– when can use P/L operation be used instead od A/L?

A

A– position A/L turntable in center of building and ready for raising the aerial.B– when all ladder operatiopn can be performed effciently w P/L ex. involved and EXPOSED stuctures are 3 stories or less in height ( building not what fl fire is on) OR street conditions allow for apparatus to pass another piece of apparatus.3.4 GS(cross refeance Auc 200 5.3.10 D4)where Building (not fire Fl) involved is higher than 3 stories. perference shall be given to ladder co. app entering block first . wgere building involved is 3 stories or less preference shall be gigen to eng co app entering block first and ladder co carrying portable laddders.- ladder before eng co app if building located at end of narrow dead end block

226
Q

A–how positon A/L fisrt due at Severe fie large frontage building (over 30 feet) no people showing?B- How position same building if conditions require possible aerial ladder operations or possible use of ladder pipe?

A

A- if no condition exist in front of building requiring a definite position, plcae center TURNTABLE appox. 15 feet from the side wall passed on your approach. when taking this position do not set up for aerial ladder operations UNLESS fire is at the end of the building you have approached and far end seems relatively safe . this diff then position for small frontage 30 feet or less3.5.1 GSB– if at same building there is a condition requiring possible aerial ladder operations or possible use of laddr pipe (esp. large commercial or public occupanies) then position A/L for MAXIMUM coverage3.5.3 GS

227
Q

A–When can an A/L be moved when there is a FF and victim position on it?

A

Only in an extreme emergency such as direct exposure to flame or great heat will movement of ladder with FF and the victim on it be justified. 5.6 GSFYI- can move A/L horzitional or angle up and down but cant move sections /rungs if FF on it.8.9 and 8.10

228
Q

A– At Vacant buildings fires Off of A/L shall consider need for access and positioning of Tower ladders in order utilize their extingusihing capabilities. however what vacant building fires where A/L have precedence to the positioning of the A/L?

A

A- - A building not completely vacant- Off receives information or has pior knowledge that part of this building is used by vagrants or squatters- the reach of his his 100 foot aerial is required to expedite or execute certain tasks or assignments6.6.1 GS

229
Q

Generally What is the preferential order for removal of people ?

A
  1. Interior stairs2. Horizontal exits3. Fire escapes4. Laddrs5. Life saving rope resque
230
Q

A. what is proper positioningof an A/L to roof ?B-( Cross referance) what is proper positioning P/L to roof?

A

a– A/L to roof extend ladder so that that tip is at least 5 feet(can be more) above the piont where ladder comes in contact with the building.7.13 GSB– Pace P/L to roof so Tip shall be at least 2 feet(can be more) above roof or parapetP/L 8.5.1 GS

231
Q

What are the reasons for using A/L to ladder the roof?

A
  1. fire building is isolated and roof ventilation is required2. other means of acess to roof of fire building are unavailable or cut off and roof operations are evident whether for ventilation or resque.3. as means of escape for operating forces or civilians guided by FFs4. any other situation where its use would significantly improve operationsNote: when fire conditions might endanger FFs, civilians, or the apparatus, consideration should be given to laddering the roof of an adjoining structure for access and egress.7.14 GS
232
Q

If A/L becomes coated with ice, try to avoid movement before defrosting. what is order to remove ice from A/L?

A
  1. free rungs2. ladder locks3. trussing4. main beams
233
Q

A–Roof access to an isolated building office should consider safe operation of an aerial ladder in a cantilever positon. whats the maximum safe distance for aerial measured from horizintally from tip of aerial to center of the turntable?B- (cross refance Regs 11) Using A/L as a Ladder pipe. With water flowing and a man climbig the ladder, the correct angle of the ladder will be that when the horizontal distance between the tip of the ladder and center of the turntable is between?

A

A– 40 ft maximumB– 15 to 25 feet (70 to 80 degree angle)(cross refence Evolution 21 A/L used as a water tower) -Ladder 70 angle from ground-Maximum extension of fly ladder(tip to ground) with 1 1/2 tip, and under extreme conditions, is 80’.

236
Q

What leaves of absence shall be deducted from annual leave allowance?

A
  1. Emergency leave extensions( not first tour if it was approved )2. special leaves with pay3. leaves for legal apperances NOT involving CITY business17.1.7 GS
237
Q

In order verify validity of emergency leave granted, what must the BC of the FF assigned unit do?

A

BC does an investigation by making a phone investigation to confirm facts and also order the FF requesting emergency leave to procure a written statement form the attending Doctor.then BC telephone all pertinent information to the DC granting such leave.17.4.2 GS

238
Q

True or Flase? postponed vacation shall NOT be granted beyound succeeding year wheater on Full or light duty

A

True. 17.7.10 GS

239
Q

FF right to carry over any vacation leave to succeeding year can be exercised how many times for same LODI or illness?

A

only once17.7.10 GS

240
Q

FF may make mutual exchanges of partial or full vacation periods with approval of thier commanding officer. exchanges shall be permitted between ffs of same compines in same or adjoining quaters or for FF of companties or units which have been paired or grouped by the Dept for this purpose.who shall ne notified of permitted exchanges so that manpoer imbalances due to the exchanges may be corrected?

A

Adm Batt17.7.11 H GS

241
Q

If you are on vacation and have death inn immediate family, how does this affect your vacation leave?

A

Vacation leave not interrupted, delayed or extented by notifiaction of death in FFs immediate family17.7.15 GS

242
Q

A-Incomplete MXs NOT repaided witn in how many days will be charged to vacation leave?B–If there is no remaining Vacation leave for present year , the deduction will be made from where?

A

A– with in 30 daysB– from following years leave17.10.4 F GS

243
Q

what are the proceedures if FF awol have not reported for DUTY or communicated with officer of unit.

A

Adm BC of that ff unit shall AFTER a period of 30 minutes notify the BC of the Adm district wherein such FF resides or located. This BC shall promply visit the residence of FF to determine reason for absence and the condition of the FF. If FF unable or refuses to report for duty, the BC shall notify the medical officer on emergency leave duty, and order FF remain at the location intil arrival of such medical officer, unless immediate hospitalzation is required.The investigation Officer shall phone the results to the BC who caused the investigation, followed by reports to such officer and to the bureau of personnel,including full particulars : orders issuedand condition of the FF17.11.3 GS

246
Q

If the apparatus is not level then how should the jacks and tormentors be lowered?

A

Lower the jacks on the low side first and then the high side until the rig is level, lowering on the high side first will damage the suspension system

247
Q

Tower Ladders have indentations in the turntable to accept outriggers, this necessitates what?

A
  • outriggers must be moved clear of the turntable before operating the boom- boom must be returned to its original position before outriggers are bedded
248
Q

What controls can be found at the pedestal?

A

-3 control levers for the operation of the boom, -Master power switch- this supplies power for the master control valve, Master control console panel lights, engine start, deadman control and platform controls.engine start button in case the engine stalls- platform control (basket) activates basket control station,- deadman control- accesories- controls light oon master control- pressure gauge- communication switch- only controled at this position not in the basket

249
Q

What are the two last resort ways of escaping from the basket?

A

-fixed telescoping ladder mounted on top of the boom sections.- lifesaving rope in conjunction with the personal harness.use which ever is most appropriate for the situation.

250
Q

A BC that wanted to converse with the members in the basket operating would know the best method of communicating with them would be how?

A

The intercom

251
Q

Because models of TLs vary, the postion relation from the pedistal member to the basket will differ, for this reason the direction of movement of the boom will be dictated from the position of which member?

A

Pedestal

252
Q

Smother operation of the boom is performed from which postiton, for this reason delicate movements should be performed from this position except when?

A

Pedistal, except when there is poor visibility then these movements will be from the basket

253
Q

What are two times that the basket firfighter would use the HT to communicate with either the pedestal man or anyone else?

A

If when testing the intercom it is OOS or if the basket firefighter leaves the basket for any reason such as venting or search

254
Q

In the event both forms of communication are not operable then what should be in place?

A

a set of hand signals, taps of a tool against the boom or movements of the boom to get the basket firefighters attention.

255
Q

If the safety belt in the pedestal is to confineing for the member what can be done?

A

Form a loop one foot in diameter, in a lifesaving rope around a substantial part of the basket using a bowline to secure the loop, then hook the life belt or personal harness onto this loop.

256
Q

The placement of the TL depends on what conditions, and who should evaluate these condition prior to placement?

A

overhead wires-Location of pumper and hydrants-Condition and stability of bldg-Ground stability

257
Q

The scrub area is defined how? and how should you position the apparatus to maximize this?

A

By the area that the TL basket can touch, this area can be maximized by positioning the apparatus with the front end at a 15 degree angle from the bldg line.

258
Q

This positioning can vary based on what?

A

Stability of the ground, such as in a vacant lot where the stability of the the ground is questonable and plank pading under the tormentors is not deemed substantial then positioning the rig perpendicular will reduce lateral force on the rig reducing the possibility of the rig pole vaulting, this will reduce the scrub area considerably. backing the apparatus into position will insure lower floor coverage.

259
Q

What is one of the best way to position the TL at a fire in a private dwelling, what will be an important fact that will dictate this positioning?

A

Positioning the TL with the turnable in line with the alley will afford coverage of the front and exposure protection, this positioning will be dictated by two thing primarily, If there are obstructions like utiility pole or wires and where the life hazard is if it is evident.

260
Q

Just like all Engine FFs should know how to plase the engine in pump, connect to a hydrant, and supply and maintain adequate pressure on a hand line, the same is true in a TL, the Company Commander should ensure that all members of the company are trained to do what?

A

-Place apparatus in PTO-Be adept in operation of the basket, pedestal and console-Be adept in control of stang nozzle-Be familiar with basic emergencies in the event there is a malfunction-Be capable to assume position of the pedestal man with regard to operations of the app and maintaining communication-Stretch supply lines to unit and procedure to enable. efficient and rapid repositioning of the apparatus.

261
Q

A properly positioned TL provides wall coverage from grade level or below, up to a max basket floor elevation of what and at what max degree of angle?

A

70’ (approx) elevation and a 75 degree max angle

262
Q

The basket while touching a point____feet horizontally from center of the turntable can reach a basket floor elevation of _____

A

32 feet away and 65 feet in elevation

263
Q

TL scrub area covers what demension and what is the square footage? how does the rig have to be positioned inorder to attain this coverage?

A

60 feet high by 50 feet wide or 100 ft frontage on the lower three floors,The rig needs to be 32 ft from the building with the at a 15 degree angle away from the bldg

264
Q

how far away from the bldg does the rig have to be to attain a position below horizontal

A

25ft

265
Q

When operating the TL on a hill it is recommended to operate facing in which direction.at what % of slope is it still considered to be level ground and what is the max slope that can be operated on?

A

It is recommended to operate in the up hill quaderant, 4% is considered to be le el with 15% being max slope.

266
Q

When a TL is special called by the IC, that IC should have what in place before the its arrival?

A

HThe IC shall have clear access to the fire bldg, hose lines shall be in position and a designated water source shall be in place.

269
Q

A–Is Anthrax contagious?B– If so How?

A

A– Anthrax is NOT contagiousB— There must be a substantail contact through an opening in the skin and/or inhaled/ingested in sufficient quantity to begin the infection.person to person anthrax has NEVER been reported 1.2 GS

270
Q

If responding to suspicious package that is OPEN, its contents will assume to be hazardous. What should FDNY unit do?

A
  1. Isolate the package2. move any person believed to be contaminated to another isolated area3. Notify the bureau of communications and request of an SOD team and a Squad Comapany for Hazzard Assessment. The SOD team shall overpack the package and migigate teh incident.NOTE: decision to decontaminate civilians or FDNY FF will be made by the IC in consultation with the NYC DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH2.1.6 GS
273
Q

–AT A SAFETY INVESTIGATION WHAT IMMEDIATE ACTIONS MUST THE IC TAKE WHILE AWAITING THE SAFETY CHIEF?–what are the two exceptions?

A

–Isolate the scene. record all facts in a log. Two exceptions not isolate scene. 1. control of the fire. 2. providing medical treatment– Secure evidence secured by the IC or his designee.2.0 GS

274
Q

When FF are transported to hospital the IC shall obtain info from EMS and have the borough Disp send a BC designated as MEMBER-TRACKING CHIEF to the hosp.-what are the responsibilites of the BC designated as MEMBER-TRACKING CHIEF??

A

-Ensure proper care of the FF-provide updated on FF condition-securing all clothing and protective equipment that was transported with FF.3.0 GS

275
Q

Whenever a FF suffers an injury as a reslut of using a tool or piece of equipment, safety command must recover the item in the same condition as when the injury occurred.In certain situations it may be necessary to handle equip or components in order tp preserve “as is”, these specific instructions will usually come from the investigating Chief Officer on scene.If investigating Chief Officer not on scene what actions must be performed for HT and SCBA?

A

HT- Leave on teh channel and volume level as found and disconnect the battery to preserve the battery condition.SCBA- leave cylinder and purge valves in position found. if necessary to close a cylinder, the pressure readings of both the cylinder and remote gauges should be noted and recorded, as well as exactly how many turns were required to colse the valve. also note position of the purge valve prior to turning it.4.4 GS

278
Q

How and who can submit near miss events?

A

Submission of a near miss event will be anonymous and will not be tracked back to member.-Fdny near-miss webpage on intranet used-sharing helps prevent injury and save lives-Not used to embrass or judge anyone1.0 GS

281
Q

What are the four types of Chemical Agents

A

Nerve, Blister, Blood Agent, Choking

282
Q

What odors are associated with Nerve, Blister, Blood Agent and Choking

A

Nerve = FruitBlister = GarlicBlood Agent = Burnt Almonds, BA BAChoking = Chlorine, Grass

283
Q

Chemical Agent is what Chemical name:

A

Nerve = Tabun, Sarin and VX no odor. Sarin and Soman.Blister Agent = Vesicant = Mustard and LewisiteBlood Agent = Hydrogen Cyanide, Cyanogen ChlorideChoking = Phosgene, Chlorine, Ammonia

284
Q

T/F: All Chemical Agents, except hydrogen cyanide are heavier than air.

A

True. Last Page

285
Q

T/F: Exposure to chemical agents will result in immediate signs & symptoms (seconds to minutes) except Mustard and Phosgene.

A

True. Last Page

286
Q

Prior to estabishing a command post/staging area what is a top priority?

A

Protection from a secondary device. 4.2.3

287
Q

T/F Chemical Agents have flammable/explosive potential.

A

True. If possible use intrinsically safe equipment. 4.2.4

288
Q

What is NOT intrinsically safe equipment?

A

TIC, Rebar Cutter, Non FDNY Flashlights

289
Q

Where is the Safe Refuge Area and where is it located?

A

In the contamination reduction zone (CRZ) outside the hot line, to evaluate the need for decon of those evacuating the hot zone. 4.3.2

290
Q

Regarding HVAC and determining train and station status, is the HVAC on or off?

A

Shut down the HVAC system of all trains in the vicinity of the contaminated area to prevent air intake of contaminate. 4.5.3.G

291
Q

Regarding Chemical Release on a train between stations, HVAC on or off?

A

HVAC ON while in transit to dilute the contaminant in the rail car. Receiving station will be evacuated prior to arrival. No trains enter or pass the now contaminated stations. 4.5.3, Note.

292
Q

What does the IC “ensure”?

A

initial scene safety, members avoid contact with puddles, liquids, vapors and mists; ensure evac of station and trains, means of egress are enlarged by force entry or removal, ensure medical branch is established, crime scene preservation.

293
Q

Regarding self evacuating civilians, how should members assist?

A

Use bunker gear and SCBA, to direct evacuees to Safe Refuge Area for decon. 4.5.4.B

294
Q

When would one expect a company to immediately retreat at a chemical release in subway?

A

If a dispersal device is still operational proceed to gross decon. 5.2If members come across an area with no responsive victims. 6.1

295
Q

Who would triage and treat contaminated patients?

A

Haz Tac EMS 8.3.1

296
Q

Who will assist with ambulatory and non-ambulatory victims?

A

HMTU

297
Q

Who will assist with non-ambulatory victims?

A

Rescue

298
Q

Do SSL monitor activities at Chemical Attack Underground incidents?

A

Yes, SSL use instruments to support visual assessments of 1st and 2nd Ladder Companies.

299
Q

At large incidents with multiple victims, who is addressed first?

A

Ambulatory victims they are generally furthest from the release. All ambulatory, then non ambulatory. black tag last

302
Q

Construction sites at which a building more than35 feet in height or with a footprint of more than 7,500 square feet is being constructed ordemolished will be inspected by the Department …

A

at least once every 30 days whenconstruction or demolition operations are in progress, pg 1

303
Q

When may the Fire Commissioner issue anorder to discontinue work?

A

any work regulated by the Fire Code being performed in an unsafe manner. pg 2, A

304
Q

The Fire Department’s enforcement authority under this section is limited to

A

ordering work to stop with respect to specific materials, operations and facilitiesregulated by the Fire Code or Fire Department rules.Upon issuance of a violation, all related activity identified in the notice mustimmediately cease, except as expressly permitted to correct the violation. pg 2

305
Q

Can a discontinue work order be given verbally?

A

Yes. Where an emergency exists, the commissioner shall not be required to give written notice prior to ordering the work discontinued. verbal followed by written.pg 2 D

306
Q

When a hazardous operation is performed, what is the method of enforcement

A

both an Immediate Summons and a VO containingan order to discontinue work should be issued. Both enforcement tools should cite theappropriate section of law and be properly served. If the VO is not complied with within anappropriate time frame, additional summonses should be issued for non-compliance with theVO. pg 3 note

307
Q

Construction activities normally are limited to what days and times?What is the variance?

A

Monday through Friday, from 7 a.m. to 6 p.m.DOB will issue a permit variance for after hours or weekend work, 9 a.m. to 5 p.m. The permit for after-hours or weekend work must be displayed. no permit = a High Priority Referral Report. pg 3

308
Q

At a height of no more than 12 feet above the ground on each perimeter of a construction ordemolition site fronting a public thoroughfare, a sign shall be erected containing thefollowing information:

A

The name, address and telephone number of the owner of the property, of the general contractor and to report complaints. pg 4 A

309
Q

No street or sidewalk shall be closed either in whole or in part without a permit from the

A

Department of Transportation.

310
Q

Regarding Storage of materials during construction or demolition. When exterior walls are not in place, stored material shall be kept

A

at least 10 feet back from the perimeter of the building. However, when the floor area isless than 1,000 square feet, stored material may be kept not less than 5 feet back from the perimeter of the building and weigh less than 750 lbs.

311
Q

Storage of materials at top working floors shall comply with the following:

A

Material may be stored within 2 feet of the edge of a building provided that such material is stored not more than two stories below the stripping operation on concrete structures, or the uppermost concrete floor on steel frame structures.

312
Q

Combustible waste material in excess of ______ cubic yards shall be removed _____ before the close of the day’s work

A

15, daily

313
Q

Storage shall be maintained _____or more below the ceiling in non-sprinklered areas ofbuildings and a minimum of ______ below sprinkler head deflectors in sprinklered areas ofbuildings.

A

2 feet non sprinklered, 18 inches sprinklered

314
Q

Regarding concrete construction, where the floor being poured is the 10th floor, define the 9th floor, 8th floor and 7th floor

A

9 = Frame work8 = Stripping floor7 = Standpipe maintained capped

315
Q

Regarding steel construction, where is the walking floor?

A

This could be considered tacked Q-Decking. pg 14 noteStandpipe maintained and capped on floor below the walking floor.

318
Q

What is the single most important action associated with effective decontaminiation?

A

Rapid physical removal of the material from the victims.1.1 GS-prevents any additional exposure-protects us from cross contamination-psycholgical comfort to victim

319
Q

A- At a incident with contaminated vicitims, who will assess the situation and determine the number of civilians and responders that require decontamination.B-If the assessment calls for a large number of people to be rapidly decontamiated what procedure should be implemented?C-Who should be designated a Decontamination Control Office?

A

A- The ICB- Mass Decontamination ProcedureC- Preferably a Battalion Chief (if available) Haz mat operations, SOC decon, soc Battalion, HMC1 or a squad company may assist the Decon Officer2.2 GS

320
Q

After the removal of clothing, the victims should be moved through a “gross Decontamiation Corridor” which utilizes water spray to remove the remaining contamination.There are several options available to the decontamination Officer for delivering the water spray. -What are the several factors that will affect the choice of the decontamiation procedures?

A

-type of material that has been released-Number of victims involved-impact of weather conditions on the use of water sprays for deconatimation.-personal protective equipment available to members preforming the decontamination process.2.4.2 GS

321
Q

There are several options for setting up a mass decon. How do you set it up with use of handlines? what type handlines? what recommended operating presuure range for handlines? how far apart? what type nozzle used?

A

Stretch 2 1/2 in handlines equipped with an Aquastream Fog Nozzle. Consideration can be given to the use of Two 2 1/2 in HL’S operating oppisite each other, approximately 25’ to 30 ft apart, to form a large shower area that multiple victims can move through at the same time. The nozzle team should operate in the fog position. The recommended operating pressure range is between 50 to 80 PSI. Addition handlines can be deployed as necesssary. (care taken to avoid pushing the contamination across to the opposing nozzle team.2.4.3 GS

322
Q

Another option involves the use of two pumpers and greatly increases our decontamination capabilities. Describe it?

A

Position two pumpers parallel to each other appox. 25 feet apart with the control panels facing the outside.-place aquastream nozzle on each pumper on a selected inside discharge gate. (additional discharges and nozzles can be use if available)-operate nozzles in Fog position.-the recommended operating pressure is 50 to 80 PSI2.4.4 GS

323
Q

Another option for mass decon involves T/L or A/L? how is this set up?

A

positioning a tower ladder with a Turbomaster fog nozzle or an aerial ladder with a ladder pipe and Aquastream fog nozzle at the edge of the water spray formed from the pumpers. If a tower ladder or aerial ladder is not available or will be delayed, a 3rd pumper with an Aquastream fog nozzle attached to the apparatus mounted multiversal nozzle can be positioned parallel to and in line with one of the first two pumpers. This configuration should produce a water spray shower area approximately 20 feet wide by 30 feet long, which the victims can now be directed to pass through.The T/L w/ turbomaster fog noz or A/L with aquastream fog noz will be aimed down on the spray area.-after victims go thru spray area they are directed to Casualty collection area.2.4.5 GS

324
Q

In immediately life threatening exposures where emergency decontamination is necessary what can be done?

A

fog nozzles can be attached to the multiversal on an engine, or to a tower ladder outlet, for a very quick gross Decon setup.2.4.6 GSFYI-If the Decon officer deems it necessary, the operation may be staffed by members wearing chemical protective clothing (CPC), as they become available. Incident Commanders and Decon officers shall be cognizant of these issues and be sure adequate Squad and Rescue personnel, who are qualified to wear CPC, are available.

327
Q

How is the Hazardous Material technician unit (HMTU) staffed?(CR) how are Decon Engine staffed?How are SOC LAD staffed?How are CPC staffed?

A

HMTU Staffed with one Officer and five firefighters.Decon engine staffed with One Officer and three FF.Soc Ladder staffed with one officer and three FFCPC unit staffed with one officer and five FF.2.1 GS

328
Q

When HMC1 responds to an alarm , the hmtu assigned to that reponse area, or nearest available HMTU,shall also be assigned.What happened if HMTU arrives before HMC1 or HMC1 is not available?What if entry is needed to be made and there is only one HMTU on scene?

A

the HMTU will report to the IC and make an assessment of the incident.The HMTU would then advise the IC of their ability to handle the incident or there need for HMC1 to continue in.-If any entry into a contaminated area is involved, the IC shall request the response of an additional HMTU for assistance.5.1 GS

329
Q

At Haz-Mat mass casualty incidents,the HMTUs may be assigned to victim removal, first aid, and/or decontamination.-At Incidents involving an unusually large number of victims, What will be HTMU primary EMPHASIS?

A

-primary emphasis will be on DECONTAMIANATION (PART OF MASS DECON)5.2 , 5.3 GS

330
Q

Of the following which Units are capable of mitigation at a haz mat incident? (more then one correct)HMTUDecon Engine with 3 trained FF and OfficerSoc Ladder Unit with 3 trained FF and OfficerHMC1 all trained CPC unit with 5 trained FF and Officer

A
  • Only HMC1 and HMTU can mitigate at a hazmat incident1.1 GS
331
Q

What positions must be filled and what must be established before entry into a contaminated area can be made?

A

positions as follows:OfficerEntry 1Entry 2Backup 1Backup 2Deconalso must have DECONTAMINATION station established.6.0 GS

334
Q

The FDNY has Two containment Vessel units for use with leaking containers of hazardous materials. These vessels are designed for use for what?

A

These vessels are designed for use in the compressed gas industry to contain toxic compressed gas cylinders that have been damaged or compromised. They are also available when needed to secure small devices that have been used to hold or disseminate chemical or biological agents. 1.1 , 1.2 GS

335
Q

One vessel is made from stainless steel the other is made from carbon steel. Which is the primary response unit and why?

A

The stainless steel vessels are less reactive to many chemicals and therefore more effective than the carbon steel. Because we deal with many unknowns, the stainless steel vessel is the primary response unit. 2.2 , 2.3 GS

336
Q

Once delivered, there is set-up required and the operation of the vessels will be tasked to?

A

Tasked to the mebers of HMC1 5.3 GS

339
Q

The Battalion Chief will be designated the Technical Task Force leader. which consist of a SOC Support ladder , its associated Decon Engine and the Administrative Battalion Chief.Once 10-84 who shall the Task Force Leader report to?

A

Upon arrival, the Task Force Leader shall report to the FDNY Incident Commander or Operations Chief, then obtain a briefing from the Hazardous Materials Director/Group Supervisor.3.5 GS

340
Q

when Task Force leader reports in he will be briefed on which of the following? (more than one correct? The contaminant(s) involved and hazards, if known. The type of decontamination procedures to employ. The type of CPC and Respiratory protection required in the Decon Corridor. The approximate number of patients, and their signs and symptoms. The location of EMS (ALS, BLS or Haz-Tac) resources, triage & treatment sectors, and safe refuge areas (SRA). The over packing & disposition of waste water and disposable waste. Weather information and anticipated changes (temperature, rain, wind direction, etc.). Work zone boundaries including entry and egress points. A dedicated water source.

A

All are correct3.5 GS

341
Q

The task Force commander shall supervise the following actions taken by units under his command:(more than one correct) Ensure Units are wearing the proper level of protection for the appropriate type of hazard. Manage control zones and access points ensuring that they are well defined. Ensure appropriate actions are taken to prevent the spread of contaminants. Maintain communications with the Haz-Mat Branch Director/Group Supervisor Maintain communication with the units under their command. Evaluate the need for additional units for augmentation or relief of personnel.

A

All Are correct3.6 GS

342
Q

One decon Engine is limited to preform how many procedures at an incident?A-1B-2C-3D-4

A

A.one Decon Engine Company can only perform one type of procedure at an incident. Additional resources will have to be special called to augment the Decon Engine Company when an incident requires several different technical decontamination procedures.4.4.6 GS

343
Q

True/False?Technical Decon Task Forces shall only respond to special calls?

A

TrueTechnical Decon Task Forces shall only respond to special calls. Incident Commanders shall assess the potential need for Technical Decon Task Forces and notify the dispatcher to special call the number of Task Forces required,4.4.1

344
Q

True/False?A Technical Decon Task Firce Leader (BC)can supervise two differant technical decon stations at the same incident?

A

True6.3 GS

345
Q

Routine Haz-Mat responses with or without patients can be handled with one Technical Decon Task Force. The optimal staffing of a non-ambulatory decon station for numerous patients requires How many Technical Decon Task Forces?

A

The optimal staffing of a non-ambulatory decon station for numerous patients requires two Technical Decon Task Forces.Responder decon can be initially satisfied with an emergency fog line; however, a Technical CPC Decon must be established as soon as resources become available to properly limit cross contamination of our responders.

346
Q

As a IC at a chemical attack in a subway that produces numerous ambulatory and non-ambulatory patients, you should special call a least how many Decon task forces Immediately?

A

At least four Decon Task Forces should be called immediately for a chemical attack in a subway that produces numerous ambulatory and non-ambulatory patients., one to perform ambulatory patient decon, one to perform responder decon, and two to perform non-ambulatory patient decon. Additional CPC units or SOC Support Ladders will be required to perform patient care including antidote administration, and patient removal to decon areas. Still more companies will be required to assist EMS with treatment and transportation of patients after they have undergone decontamination. These units do not have to use CPC, since the patients have been decontaminated.6.6 7.1 GS

347
Q

At a incident that the IC needs a decon engine to preform techical decontamination task, can IC have the decon eng on the initial alarm preform these task? If so what must IC do?

A

If the Incident Commander finds it feasible, a Decon Engine Company assigned on the initial alarm, can be relieved by a special called Engine company in order to allow the Decon Engine Company to perform technical decontamination tasks. This would require that the necessary resources and equipment are at the scene, specifically a SOC Support Ladder with its support vehicle. This scenario would be feasible if the incident did not require emergency decontamination procedures upon arrival and/or extensive scene control procedures. 4.4.3 GS

350
Q

An ineligible firefighter cannot be hired for Minimum Staffing Overtime. Firefighters who are ineligible to work MMOT:PAID 5-74

A

FF exceeds the Battalion average of MMOT for the same period by 75 hours of MMOT.Any firefighter who is on, Accrued or Terminal Leaves, or who has been grantedtime off (e.g. compensatory time, self-mutual).Any firefighter 6th Grade with less than 9 months service; however … all reasonable efforts have been exhausted.outstanding self-mutual/off within the 90 dayAn Incomplete Mutual exceeding thirty (30) days

351
Q

Firefighters whose eligibility to work MSOT is limited: PAID 5-74

A

FF exceeds the Battalion average of MMOT by 60 hours or more, but less than 75 hours of MSOT , shall not be permitted to work more than 1 tour.FF exceeds the Battalion average of MSOT by 45 hours or more, but less than 60 hours of MMOT, shall not be permitted to work more than 24 hours

352
Q

For purposes of computing the Battalion Average of members in the MSOT poolon the MSOT Printout, the following employees shall be excluded. PAID 5-74

A

a. All Probationary firefighters.b. All members who have $0.00 MSOT earnings during the preceding52-week period.

353
Q

If all eligible firefighters offered MSOT decline, the Battalion shall order

A

the junior,eligible members on duty to work.PAID 5-74

354
Q

Any firefighter whose cumulative total of hours worked falls 45 or more hours below theBattalion Average shall not

A

be permitted to make any 24 hour mutuals until such total is within 45 hours of the Battalion Average unless they voluntarily make themselvesavailable for overtime during their off-tours.PAID 5-74

355
Q

When will DSCO provide an advance staffing report to all Battalions

A

48 hours prior to the start of the tour. PAID 5-74

356
Q

After all units have been brought up to minimum staffing level, the Battalion shallnotify who?

A

the next three members in the priority column that they are designated asstandbys for MSOT. These standby members will be used to cover last minute vacancies. Early relief is not to be granted to members on standby. PAID 5-74

357
Q

Firefighters 6th Grade, after completion of Probationary Firefighter Training at theBureau of Training, shall be assigned the Battalion average number of MSOT hours forFirefighters in their assigned Battalion. 7.1

A

conflict with?For purposes of computing the Battalion Average of members in the MSOT poolon the MMOT Printout, the following employees shall be excluded.a. All Probationary firefighters PAID 5-74

358
Q

No repayment of tours owed will be permitted on

A

Memorial Day and Veterans Day. PAID 3-94

359
Q

Any tours not repaid by December 31 of each year will be

A

carried over to the next calendar year and counted as a self-mutual for that next calendar year. PAID 3-94

360
Q

Annual Education Day Restrictions

A

3.1 Members shall not be permitted to work the 6x before or after Education Day.3.2 Mxs on the day of Education Day are prohibited.3.3 Reimbursement leaves or school attendance variances will not be granted to members of a unit scheduled for Education Day without the approval of the Executive Officer of the BoT.3.4 FF’s 6th grade shall attend Education Day with their company when scheduled.3.5 Officers, and FF’s OTHER THAN 6TH GRADE who attended a periodic Education Day within six months of their scheduled date, shall not report with their company. Thesemembers are in the manpower.

361
Q

Annual Medical Examinations

A

Firefighters, INCLUDING 6TH GRADE FF’S, who have attended a medical within sixmonths of their scheduled date, shall not report with their company. These firefightersshall be included in the Battalion manpower and detailed for the 9x6 tour.Note: For the purpose of this document, 5th grade medicals shall NOT be consideredannual medicals.

362
Q

Annual Medical Examinations Restrictions.

A

NO Mx’s before or after Annual Medicals.Reimbursement leaves or school attendance variances shall not be granted to members ofa unit scheduled for examination after the promulgation of the examination scheduleexcept with the approval of the Executive Officer of Health Services.

363
Q

Workplace Violence PAID 1-11Employees may submit reports directly to the Workplace Violence PreventionCoordinator if the incident being reported presents privacy concerns.

A

Every supervisor who has received a Workplace Violence Report (or a verbalreport) shall ensure that it is forwarded via the chain of command to theWorkplace Violence Prevention Coordinator. All supervisors within the chain ofcommand shall ensure that the report is forwarded on an expedited basis.

366
Q

True/False?The SOC Support Ladder Companies assist in detecting and identifiying the presence of hazardous materials, including chemical warfare agents and radioactive materials.

A

False they can detect but SOC Ladder Co. are not capable of identifying many materials, which will require the advanced skills and equipment of a Hazardous Materials Technician Unit (HMTU) or Haz-Mat Company 1 (HMC1).1.2 1.3 GS

367
Q

True/FalseA–SOC Support Ladder Companies shall not be special called to fires in lieu of calling a Rescue or Squad company.B– SOC Support Ladder Companies shall not be special called to a haz-mat incident in lieu of a Hazardous Material Technician Unit or Hazardous Materials Company 1.

A

A– TrueB–TrueSOC Support Ladder Companies may be special called by an Incident Commander to emergencies to assist a Rescue, Squad or Haz-Mat Company.SOC Support Ladder Companies will respond to weapons of mass destruction event to assist the Rescue, Squad or Haz-Mat Company operating as part of the Emergency Response Plan. SOC Support Ladder Companies shall not be special called to fires in lieu of calling a Rescue or Squad company. SOC Support Ladder Companies shall not be special called to a haz-mat incident in lieu of a Hazardous Material Technician Unit or Hazardous Materials Company 1.2.3, 2.4,2.5, 2.6 GS

368
Q

True/FalseSOC Support Ladders are NEVER to perform mitigation?

A

False can if assist.-members are not trained or equipped to perform mitigation activities such as leak stopping, neutralizing or overpacking a product unless requested to assist an HMTU or HMC1, or as part of a “Hammer Team”. When assisting an HMTU or HMC1, they will function only under the direct supervision of the HMTU or HMC1 officers. -(All members are trained and expected to be able to perform certain specific mitigation efforts as part of their duties e.g., control of natural gas leaks from service systems and appliances, fuel leaks at oil burner incidents or gasoline/diesel fuel leaks at transportation incidents.)3.1 GS

369
Q

True/FalseAre SOC Support Ladder Company FF allow to preform confine space rescue if squad and rescue not on scene yet?

A

True, but have limits-SOC Support Ladder Company personnel have received training in Confined Space Rescue, High Angle Operation, Collapse Rescue Operations and Trench Rescue. This training, in addition to the special equipment provided, will allow the units to conduct initial rescue operations within specific limitations. The training will not allow them to conduct complex entries into confined spaces. Their training is compatible with that received by the members of Rescue and Squad companies so that when these units arrive on the scene, they will be able to build on the work already begun by the SOC Support Ladder personnel.3.2 GS

370
Q

what is SOC support Ladder prime consideration while operating at a trench cave-in ?

A

They shall immediately begin scene evaluation, and hazard identification through the use of their air monitoring equipment. They shall establish a safe zone around the perimeter of the site, with the prevention of a secondary cave-in as the prime consideration.7.4 GS

371
Q

The following is a list of responses that Rapid Response Units will respond to:which are incorrect.(more than one incorrect) Ceiling Collapse CFR-D Responses Class 3 Alarms CO Detector Activation Electrical Emergencies Flooded Basements Minor Auto accidents Lockouts w/ Food on Stove Occupied Stuck Elevators Structural Fires Oil Burner Emergencies Gas Emergencies Scaffold Emergencies Steam Leaks Water Leaks Wires Down

A

-doesnt not mention Gas emergencies-They are not to respond to structural fires unless they have been assigned along with other units.1.4, 8.2 GS

374
Q

True/false?At UNITED STATES POSTAL SERVICE (USPS) BIO-DETECTION SYSTEM OPERATIONS The Department’s mission will be to perform triage, treatment, decontaminationand identification of material of anyone that may have been exposed (USPS employees/visitors/customers).

A

False-The FDNY at BIO-dettection system at Post Office do not identify haz material.U.S. Postal Inspectors will retrieve the PCR sample canister, which will then be transported to the DOH for confirmation of an anthrax event. The NYPD/PAPD will provide decontamination and back-up for the USPS Inspectors.The Department’s mission will be to perform triage, treatment and decontamination of anyone that may have been exposed (USPS employees/visitors/customers).3.1 5.0 GS

375
Q

First units arriving shall report to the Initial Emergency Response Meeting Point as per the Individual Facility Plan and make contact with the USPS Liaison.What must FDNY verify and what code must be trasmited?What information must be ascertained from the USPS Liaison?

A

a. Verify activation of BDS alarm.b. Transmit 10-80 Code 3 for confirmed BDS activation (See individual USPS Facility plan for additional units required above 10-80 Code 3).c. Ascertain the following information from the USPS Liaison:• Are there any immediate life safety concerns? (e.g., life threatening medical emergency, fire).• Are all employees out of building or in a Safe Refuge Area (SRA) within the facility?• Are all employees accounted for?• Verify number of patients in each Exposure Group 1, 2, 3.-. Any additional units above the initial alarm assignment shall proceed to the pre- designated Fire Department Staging Area (see USPS Individual Facility Plan).- Coordinate with USPS and law enforcement (NYPD/PAPD) in establishingperimeters.-. The facility will be designated as a crime scene. Fire Department units shalloperate as per AUC 317.6.0 GS_Note: The PAPD will be the IC at the USPS JFK Facility. All FDNY units will respond to the pre-designated staging areas.

376
Q

as per Core competency the FDNY units will Primarily operate within what branch?

A

The haz Mat Branch and Medical Branch4.0 GS

377
Q

A- When is only time FDNY Units responding on the initial alarm shall enter the facility during the initial stages of the operation ?B- Who will be responsible for accounting for all employees, visitors and /or customers and responsible to conduct a primary and secondary search if necessary.

A

A-Life HazardUnits responding on the initial alarm shall not enter the facility during the initial stages of the operation unless there is a life hazard that needs to be addressed immediately (e.g., life threatening medical emergency, fire).If entry is needed for life safety following must be done:- Any members making entry shall wear full PPE (bunker gear & SCBA are acceptable for life safety if a higher level of PPE is not available).- Prior to entry, an Emergency Decon shall be established and a Fast Team designated.- Proceed to Contamination Reduction Zone for decontamination.- Maintain respiratory protection throughout the decontamination process.8.1 GSB-USPS will be responsible for accounting for all employees, visitors and /or customers and they are responsible to conduct a primary and secondary search if necessary.8.1 NOTE GS

378
Q

FDNY BDS INITIAL OPERATIONS at JFK airport mail Facility shall do the following.-Units equipped with a PAPD radio shall contact the PAPD while responding and request a preliminary report.-All units shall report to Building 269 and establish contact with the PAPD at the staging area. PAPD will make contact with the USPS Liaison and verify that a BDS alarm has been activated.-A Staging Area Manager shall be designatedAlso What code must be transmited if confirmed activation of the USPS BDS alarm?where does the first arriving BC and DC go?

A

• Transmit 10-80 Code 3 for confirmed activation of the USPS BDS Alarm• 1st arriving BC and DC will be escorted to the Unified Operations Post3.0 add 1 GS

379
Q

For USPS BIO-Detection in the Queens or Bklyn Facility, who are the only FDNY personnel permitted in the building?

A

The only Fire Department personnel permitted in the building will be Haz Mat Technicians wearing the appropriate PPE. Monitor Environment to determine if any other hazards exist (monitor for radiological, flammable and oxygen levels at a minimum). If any readings are outside of normal range, notify Haz-Mat Branch.4.0 NOTE GS

382
Q

FDNY Decontamination Shower Apparatus (DSA) are designed to be used for the decontamination of firefighters or civilians that are ambulatory and are not displaying life threatening symptoms of exposure. Patients displaying extreme or life threatening exposures require emergency decontamination The DSA responds on what signal? Also when can IC request them?

A

The DSA responds on signal 10-80 code 3 and code 4 and whenever the IC deems its response is necessary based on the circumstances of the emergency. The IC shall consult with the Haz-Mat Battalion, Rescue Operating Battalion or Safety Battalion to determine if its response is required.1.3 GSA Hazardous Materials Technician Unit (HMTU) must be present to ensure proper precautions are taken such as hazard assessment, isolation zones, and PPE used.1.4FYI-10-80 Code3 Decon Support Unit  Tactical Support Unit Chemical Protective Clothing Unit (CPC) 1 ALS Haz-Tac Ambulance  1 BLS Ambulance 1 ALS Ambulance 1 EMS Conditions Officer  1 EMS Division Captain 1 EMS Deputy Chief On-Call Medical Director  Planning Section ChiefA Mass Decontamination incident where 5 or more civilians or responders are contaminated and additional Department resources are needed above the Code 2 level.Units dispatched on a 10-80 Code 3 include: 10-80 Code 2 assignment Command Chief 1 Deputy Chief 3 Haz-Tac Ambulances (1 ALS, 2 BLS)  Decon Shower Unit Haz-Mat Technician Unit (HMTU)  3 CPC Units RAC Unit Mask Service Unit (MSU) 1 BLS Ambulance 2 ALS Ambulances 1 Logistical Support Unit 1 Major Emergency Response Vehicle  Mobile Respiratory Treatment UnitNote: Additional EMS units may be called as needed based on patient count and additional resources may be special called as needed.-10-80 Code4A Mass Decontamination Response requiring Mass Decon Task Forces (MDTF) to decontaminate a large number of victims as quickly as possible.Units dispatched on a 10-80 Code 4 include:A. 10-80 Code 3 assignmentB. Mass Decon Task Force:  1 Battalion Chief 2 Engine Companies 1 Tower Ladder (CPC)  1 Haz-Tac Ambulance 2 SSL or HMTU to monitor victims to determine the need for additional Technical DeconAdditional Mass Decon Task Forces (MDTF) may be special called for numerous victims. For every 250 victims, an additional Mass Decon Task Force will be called.NotificationsThe following notifications shall be made upon transmission of Signal 10-80, Codes 1, 2, 3 and 4: FDOC EMS Operations Bureau of Health Services Office of Medical Affairs Office of Emergency Management (OEM) Department of Environmental Protection (DEP)Department of Health (DOH) for Biological or RadiologicalNYPD Operations

383
Q

Who shall say where the location of the DSA should be position and where is the posistion ?

A

At the scene of an operation, the Incident Commander will give a location where the DSA should be positioned.The DSA will be positioned at the end of the “contamination reduction corridor.”( between warm Zone and cold zone )4.3 GSIt is recommended that the DSA be positioned in the middle of the street or intersection. This will assist in leveling the unit (due to the crown in the street) and provide adequate space on both sides of the apparatus for privacy tent placement (if necessary).4.4

384
Q

The Decon Support Unit (DSU) is a support unit quartered at SOC on Roosevelt Island. The DSU is responsible for transporting the DSU apparatus and providing for firefighter contaminated equipment, (PPE) collection and tracking. The DSU also carries additional equipment including CPC, APRs and privacy coveralls. When does the DSU respond?

A

The DSU responds to all responses where a DSA is assigned and on signal 10-80 code 2. The unit is staffed with two firefighters. Due to daily responsibilities, the unit’s arrival at the emergency can be delayed.2.3 GSFYI-10-80 Code2An incident that involves a spill or release with 4 or less contaminated civilians or responders and requires Haz-Mat resources for possible rescue, mitigation and decontamination.Units dispatched on a 10-80 Code 2 include: 10-80 Code 1 assignment Safety Operating Battalion Rescue Operations Battalion 3 Battalion Chiefs:Safety Officer (3rd BC)Planning Section Chief (4th BC)Haz-Mat Branch Staging Manager (5th BC) Field Communications Unit Public Information Officer (PIO) Haz-Mat Technician Unit (HMTU)  RAC Unit Decon Support Unit  Tactical Support Unit Chemical Protective Clothing Unit (CPC) 1 ALS Haz-Tac Ambulance  1 BLS Ambulance 1 ALS Ambulance 1 EMS Conditions Officer  1 EMS Division Captain 1 EMS Deputy Chief On-Call Medical Director  Planning Section Chief

387
Q

The determination to administer WMD antidote will be made by the Incident Commander based on the recommendation of who?

A

The determination to administer antidote is made by the Incident Commander based on the recommendation of the Medical Branch Director in conjunction with the OMA Response Physician.6.3 GS

388
Q

The antidote is administrated in what Zone(s) and what patients will it be primarily directed to?

A

Antidote administration in the Exclusion and Contamination Reduction Zones will be directed primarily to, but not limited to, critical (Red Tag) patients.6.4 GS(FYI)1. Black Tag (Deceased): patients have no ventilations present after one attempt is made to reposition the airway2. Red Tag (Immediate): patients have ventilations present after repositioning the airway, have a respiratory rate greater than 30 breaths per minute, have an absent radial pulse or are unable to follow simple commands.3. Yellow Tag (Delayed): patients have a respiratory rate less than 30 breaths per minute, radial pulse is present, is able to follow simple commands, but the patient has an injury that does not fit into either the Immediate or Minor categories.4. Green Tag (Minor): patients are “walking wounded”ERP page 28 GS

391
Q

1 Who should be special called to stage at the stations and the emergency exits nearest to the under river tubes? 4.1

A

BC, at least 1 engine, 1 lad, and a unit with monitoring capabilities

392
Q

What should be requested as soon as possible due to the time it takes to setup? 4.2

A

Rebreather system (SOC)

393
Q

Members shall not be committed to far into a dangerous area until what is done? 4.3

A

A Hazard assesment is completed

394
Q

The best place for a command post may not be evident until the situation is more defined, when the position has been determined this location should provide what? 4.4

A

Communication between the comd post and the under river tubeProtection from smoke, haz-mat and excessive noise (upwind and a safe distance from ventilation system exhaust fans)Sufficent room for representatives from numerious agencies.And in most cases, the initial CP will be located at the station closest to the tunnel in the borough of the first assigned DC

395
Q

When it comes to power removal, the IC should first consider what? 4.5

A

That the TA will be attempting to move any operable trains out of the affected tube, this could save lives and lessen the rescue problem.

396
Q

If passengers can shelter in place then it would be a good idea to try and do what in regards to removing them in a safer way then the track bed?

A

Leave power on and ask the TA trainmaster to provide a rescue train.

397
Q

When will a decision need to be made when adjacent tube power is to be removed?

A

When there is a crossover in the area ( usually where there is an emergency exit) once all passengers and FF are clear of the tracks then a determination can be made to restore power to have a rescure train enter the area to completed the evacuation process.

398
Q

Ventilation will be one of the highest priorities for what chief? 4.6

A

TA Liaison BC at the TA Command Center

399
Q

Auc 207 states that evacuation should take place in what direction from a fan operating in exhaust mode?

A

Away from the direction of the fan.

400
Q

What condition in the tube would make passengers evacuate in both directions making it had to properly utilize the exhaust fans?

A

When a explosion happens in the middle of the train causing the passengers to flee in both directions.

401
Q

What are some problems with the train that could hamper fan usage for vent? 4.6

A

The train itself could block the movement of air in the tube due to a derailment or and explosion, a good assesment of the situation will have to be made before activation of the fans can be completed, if the TA has already activated the fans then an assesment has to be made before any change that can affect the overall operation has to be completed.

402
Q

If SCBA will be needed at the incident location, how must the ventilation system be operated? 4.6

A

To create a clear area near the point of operation to store and replace SCBA cylindersw (concider the use of 1 hour cylinders)

403
Q

According to AUC 207 add 13 the Transit Liaison officer shall be assigned to that position at what 3 times?

A

All 10-75s or greaterAny incident the IC deems necessaryAny incident in which the NYC Transit RCC requests their response.

404
Q

Preparations for operations in under-river tubes have 3 main elements, What are they? 6.0

A

RPLR-ReconnaissanceP-PlanningL- Logistics

405
Q

When it comes to comitting a recon unit, what 3 areas should be determined first? 6.1.2

A

Establish a communication link.Attempt to determine the best borough to approach from.Check status of TA ventilation equipment, make sure that fan operation is compatable with entry of the recon team.

406
Q

At the starting point of the tube, the recon unit shall operate their meters to detect what levels?6.3.6

A

Levels of, chemical,biological,radiological,O2 and Co

407
Q

If you are the BC assigned as the Logistics Officer, what requirements will be needed for a safe and efficent operation? 6.3.6

A

Respiratory and face protectionCommunicationsLightingPatient care supplies and equipmentTransportationRAC

408
Q

Victim removal requires removing as many victims as possible in the shortest amount of time, this can be accomplished if done in the following order, What is it? 7.

A

Ambulatory firstNonambulatory redtagged (immediate trans) yellow tagged (delayed trans)Victims requiring disentanglement/ extrication red tag- (immediate trans) yellow tag (delayed trans)Black tagged (deceased victims)

409
Q

What should be done to a potential rescue train before deployment? 7.2.2 note

A

It should be swept for secondary devices by lawenforcement personnel

410
Q

What is the primary method of moving patients and/or equipment? 7.3.3

A

Rail carts

411
Q

One of the most important duties of SOC units will be what? 8.3.1

A

Atmospheric monitoring

412
Q

For extended operations into a tunnel with a distance of up to how many feet should SOC units considered using their AIr cart and hose? 8.3.2

A

300ft

413
Q

There is another potential hazard at the ceiling level in the tubs, what is it and how may it be a problem? 9.1.1

A

1000 volt line, these lines are not deactivated by routine request for power removal, an explosion or train derailment may cause these high voltage lines to come into contact with the metal skin of the car causing a fire.

414
Q

If you as a BC are assigned to be the safety coordinator, you should include the following elements into your safety plan, what are they 9.2.4

A

Hazard assesmentRisk vs. benefits analysisMin commitment of personel with max supervision.appropriate PPE

415
Q

T/FIf the TLO has been told by the TA Desk Superintendant, the Acting General Super or the General Super then the TLO can give this confirmation straight to the IC at the incident as confirmation to operate.

A

False, the confirmation still has to go through the FD borough communication office

418
Q

Purple K Dry Chem capacity is _____lbs, has a discharge range of ____ftDischarge time of ____Covers approx ____ sq ftand has a temp restriction of between ____ and ______ fegrees2.1,2.2

A

27lbs19-20ft11 sec discharge timecovers approx 30 sq fttemp diff of minus 40 to 120 degrees

419
Q

Purple K has a superior extinguishing capabilityn in combating what kind of fires and is also effective on what other fires? 1.

A

Superior on Methanoland cam be used on gasoline, diesel and compressed gas fires

420
Q

T/F if all of the hose weather it is on a truck mounted or a wheeled mounted has to be stretched before the system is charge and why? 3.2 note

A

true if you dont the hose when charged may bind on the reel

421
Q

The nozzle of the Purple K extinguisher shall be held at what angle to the ground?4.1,4.2,4.3,4.4,4.5,4.6

A

45 degree

422
Q

For all but what type of flammable fuel fire do you hold the nozzle at a 45 degree angle and stop walking 10-12 ft from the front edge of the fire? 4.7-4.8

A

At a a flammable liquid pressure fire, you stop approx 15 ft from the front edge and there is no nozzle angle stated.At a flammable gas pressure fire there is no stopping distance or nozzle angle specified.

423
Q

Normally you do not raise the nozzle to chase the fire ball except at what type of fire? 4.8

A

Flammable gas pressure fire

424
Q

T/F The combination of water and dry chem provides the means for rapid extinguishment. 4.9 note

A

false, it states while the water acts as a coolant, the dry chem provides the means for rapid extinguishment.

425
Q

The truck mounted system has 100 ft of hose connected, is it possible to connect more line and if so what negitive impact could this have on the operation? add 1 1.1.6

A

yes but you may loose discharge pressure.

426
Q

The truck mounted system has ____lbs of dry chem, the discharge range is approx ___ to ___ft, you should start your attack approx ____to____ft from the fire, The angle of the extinguisher should be no more than how many degrees_____ add 1 1.3

A

300lbsDischarge rang of approx 30-40ftStart attack 20-30ft awayno more than a 90 dgree angle

429
Q

SB 45 A recurring tiller type accidentThe most frequent type accident with a tiller is what? page 1 top

A

It occurs when the truck competes that turn and the tiller stikes a car.

430
Q

The point of contact comes between ____ and ____ ft from the corner and usually involves the _____ or ______ car. page 1

A

50 to 80 ft from the cornerinvolving the 2nd or 3rd car

431
Q

What is the most important contributory cause of this? page 2 top

A

The chauffeur accelerates as the tillerman still has the tiller wheels are still cut slightly to the outside of the turn

432
Q

What are control measures that the Chauffeur, tillerman and officer can take to reduce the chance of this happening? page 2

A

Chauffeur- Do not accelerate until you are three ladder truck lengths into the street.Negotiate the tractor turn so that the tiller wheels require a min amount of steering.Give the tillerman room on the far side of the turn when you straighten out.TillermanDonot over steerDo not expect the tiller wheels to automatically return to center you have to manually steer through the turnOfficer Donot misled when the trailer section comes in line directly behind the tractor.

435
Q

Pior to any life saving rope rescue attempt who must notification be given too?

A

Communications with the Inside Team of the ladder company(s) is vital prior to any life saving rope rescue attempt. It is also critical that notification be given directly to the Incident Commander or Sector Supervisor prior to commencing a life saving rope rescue attempt. The IC must coordinate all interior operations and the life saving rope rescue attempt. The IC must determine if units are unable to place an operational hoseline between the victim and the fire in a timely manner, and if members are prevented from reaching the victim via the interior of the apartment, an adjoining apartment, a balcony or fire escape, or exterior ladders.2.5 GS

436
Q

The life saving rope evolution shall only be attempted as a last resort when all other avenues have been eliminated.Upon determining that a life saving rope rescue is the only available option, the Incident Commander may dispatch additional resources to where?

A

the Incident Commander may dispatch additional resources to the descent point as well as adjoining apartments and/or apartments on the floor(s) below to provide the greatest chance of a successful rescue. A life saving rope rescue must be a coordinated team effort with support coming from inside, above the victim, adjacent to the victim, and below the victim.2.6 GS

437
Q

Under no circumstances should a life saving rope evolution be attempted if what?

A

• a viable substantial object is not available• the effectiveness of the anti-chafing device would be compromised due to building construction (protruding facades, exposure of the life saving rope to sharp surfaces)• there are not enough members at the lowering point and at the adjoining windows or floors below to ensure a successful pick-up and retrieval of the firefighter and victim.2.7 GS

438
Q

When should a LSR be placed out of service?

A

Deupty Tony Hit A Home Run Far AwayD- DoubtT- Two people weightH-Heat exposed to highly heated surfaceA-Abrasion one primary causes LSR losing strengthH-Hockle reduces strength by 40 -50 %R- rust persistentF- FrozenA- acids/fumes contact w/ LSR4.0 GS

439
Q

Whenever the Life Saving Rope is placed out of service, the officer on duty shall notify whoby telephone and fax to have it immediately replaced?A- DivisionB- BattalionC- SafetyD-R and D

A

A- Administrative Divisionsame for -LSR carring case -Anti-chafing device -life belt5.1 GS

440
Q

The officer must complete an Out of Service Life Safety Equipment Report (SCF-2) and forward it through the Chain of Command to the Chief of Safety. What must BC do when he receives this report?

A

Investigation of the circumstances as stated in the report is required by the Battalion Chief on duty. A statement to this effect is required as part of the chief’s endorsement.5.3 GSFYI- also for-training rope -Life Belt-personal harness-PSS systemDS 3 5.6

441
Q

When Ladding Mat is placed OOS the damaged equipment shall be sent to the Technical Services Division.Who shall be notified of the full particulars.?

A

The administrative Battalion and Division shall be notified of the full particulars.DS4 7.5.2 GS

444
Q

True/FalseIn extreme emergency the Life Belt can be used to make a rescue pick-up via a single slide?

A

FalseNote: The life belt shall not be used to make a rescue pick-up via a single slide.DS 1 2.4 GSIntended use:2.1 It shall be worn by the member lowering a firefighter or another person from a roof or upper floor to a place of safety. The bowline on a bight and the slippery hitch shall be tied on the individual being lowered.2.2 It shall be worn by the member lowering another firefighter for a rescue pick-up using the knots described in 2.1 above.2.3 It shall be worn by firefighters removing themselves from an untenable position by means of a single slide.2.4 It shall be worn by members during portable and aerial ladder operations as directed.

447
Q

Add. 1 FAST-PAKAgree or DisagreeThe Fast Pak and riding position SCBA facepiece, regulator, and vibra alert/Pass Alarm are identical.

A

Disagree- the Fast Pak facepiece/regulator does not have a heads up display indicator, nor does it come equipped with a vibra alert function.

448
Q

When a distressed member in an IDLH, who is breathing thru his SCBA needs air, what method is most appropriate to provide air? (5, 6.4.4)

A

High Pressure coupling using the UAC, only by using the Schrader fitting (for use only by SOC via their air cart)

449
Q

When delivering air using the low pressure hose, you would know that this hose is ______ feet long. (6.1)

A

20 feet long.

450
Q

When using the low pressure line, it can be used in any one of 4 methods. Name them. (6.4.1-4)

A
  1. Replace the member’s regulator2. Replace the member’s Hansen Fitting3. Replace the member’s facepiece4. Use the Schrader Connection
451
Q

Agree or DisagreeA Fast-Pak may be used to provide air to non-FDNY members. (7.1)

A

Agree- The Fast Pak assigned to the FAST unit shall not be used. Additional FAST PAK’s shall be deployed if needed. A Fast Pak may be used if a victim is trapped in an IDLH atmosphere and immediate removal is not possible, or during a Confined Space Operation.

452
Q

Who will provide a replacement Fast Pak if a company places their OOS? (9.12.2)

A

The administrative Battalion.

453
Q

What does the company officer do with the OOS Fast Pak? (9.12.3)

A

The Company Officer shall forward the OOS Fast Pak to MSU via the Division Messenger.

454
Q

You are the I.C. at an operation requiring the use of the Fast Truck’s Fast Pak. What must you do? (10.4)

A

Once a Fast Pak is put into operation, the I.C. shall ensure that a second Fast Pak is readily available at the scene to be used as required.

455
Q

Add. 2 Facepiece APR’s & Single Scott CBRN Cap 1 CanisterWho shall give the approval to use an APR?a. I.C.b. D.C.c. Command Chiefd. Staff Chiefe. Haz Mat 1

A

Incident Commander as per sec 1. Sec 4 goes on to say use of an APR should be “after consultation with the Haz Mat group Supervisor, and all the risks have been properly evaluated.”

456
Q

Where would the use of an APR be prohibited? (4)a. Asbestos incidentb. Bio incident where continuous atmospheric monitoring is necessaryc. Radiological incident where the isotope poses no chemical hazard or the chemical can be filtered by the canisterd. decon ops for a known contaminante. Confined Space Operations

A

E. Confined Space Ops

457
Q

The protection of an APR will be dependant upon which of the following factors? (3)a. quality of the facepiece fitb. operating time with APRc. level of activity (increased respiration)d. humidity- high relative humidity shortens the life of organic vapor canisters

A

All are correct

458
Q

Scott CBRN Cap 1 Canisters are inspected __________ and/or ____________. (5.2)

A

At least every 30 days and/or the 1st day of the month.

459
Q

You are working a day tour in Battalion 1 when you receive a call from a Captain asking if you have filter cartridges and adaptors in stock. You would be correct to tell him ______________. (5.7)

A

To forward a 23-BS-2 form to the Mask Service Unit.

460
Q

Where are the Scoot CBRN Cap 1 canisters & adaptors kept on the apparatus? (8.5)

A

In the infectious control compartment (CFR-D Manual Ch. 3)

461
Q

If a Scott CBRN Cap 1 Canister is properly stored, it would have a shelf life of _____ years. (8.6)a. 2b. 3c. 5d. 75. 10

A

D. 7 years

462
Q

The Scott CBRN has usage time based on the physical state of the contaminant. If it is a liquid exposure it will last _______. If it is exposed to vapors only, dispose of it in _______. 9.5)

A

Liquid exposure- dispose within 2 hoursVapors Only- dispose of within 8 hours

463
Q

Battalion vehicles shall carry ___________. Engines, trucks, rescues and squad shall carry ____________. (10.2.3)

A

Battalions carry 2 adaptors and 4 cartidgesEngines, Ladders, Rescues & Squads carry 6 adaptors and 12 canisters.

464
Q

Add. 4 Draeger BG-4 Rebreather (EDSCBA)The EDSCBA will provide _____ hours of operating time. (1.3)

A

Up to 4 hours of breathable air.

465
Q

For operations in under river tunnels, provided you don’t have to proceed more than 300 feet into the tunnel, what might be another alternative to an EDSCBA? (1.4)

A

SOC can deploy Supplied Air Respirators fed by hoselines from an Airsource Cart.

466
Q

Describe the operation of an EDSCBA. How does it work? (2.2)

A

Exhaled air is scrubbed thru a filter to remove Carbon Dioxide. A small amount of pure oxygen is added to replace the oxygen the wearer consumes. A block of dry ice cools the recycled air.

467
Q

Under what conditions would you not require the use of the dry ice block in an EDSCBA? (2.3)

A

When the ambient temperature is below 32 degrees. You need it if the temp is above 32 degrees. But what if the temp IS 32 degrees???

468
Q

Who may request the response of the Rebreather Unit? (4.1)

A

The Incident Commander or Rescue Operating Battalion

469
Q

a Rebreather Response assignment will consist of ………….. (4.2)

A

Nearest available RRVNearest available RescueNearest available Squad2 additional EDSCBA trained units (Rescue, Squad, HMTU Engine or SSL)Rescue Operating Battalion (or another trained BC if R.O.B. is unavailable)Safety Operating Battalion

470
Q

If an operation appears the entry will involve a deep penetration and require a large logistical support system, what should you maintain as your Outside Standby Team? (4.4)

A

2 additional EDSCBA trained companies should be maintained in reserve at the entry point equipped with EDSCBA’s.

471
Q

Operating Procedures For EDSCBA:Who makes up the Entry Team Leader? (5.1)

A

An EDSCBA trained Battalion Chief and the Battalion Firefighter, preferably the Rescue Operations Battalion.See sec. 5.1 for responsibilities of Entry Team Leader.

472
Q

Describe the duties of the Support Unit. (5.3.1)

A

Accompany the operational units to the vicinity of the operation, provide them with needed equipment, then withdraw to a location that provides an area free from the immediate hazards, provides adequate communication with the operational units and the Safety Management Team or Command Post. Note: The Support Unit may assist the Fast Unit during a Mayday, but 1 member must remain at their position in the communications relay.

473
Q

What equipment will a Support Unit transport to the location of the operation? (more than 1 correct) (5.3.3)a. Spare batteries for HT’s, TIC’s, and any battery operated tools in use.b. Lights and light sticksc. Cooler of ice containers for each EDSCBA in used. Post Radio from an on scene Battalione. Nolan Cart

A

Answer: A,B,C,DAcronym: BLIPBatteries, Lights/Light Sticks, Ice Containers, Post Radio

474
Q

The Safety Operating Battalion or Safety Coordinator if SOB isn’t available, plus one (non-entry) member from each EDSCBA unit operating, plus additional personnel as needed, would be labeled the ____________. (6.1)

A

The Safety Management Teamsee sec 6.1.2 for duties of the Safety Management Team

475
Q

What is the responsibility of the non-entry team member from each EDSCBA unit? (6.1.2)

A

He shall be responsible for the masks used by members of his unit.

476
Q

An EDSCBA has an operating time of 4 hours. However, operational plans shall not exceed __________ to allow for sufficient exit time. (6.1.4)

A

3 hours 30 minutes

477
Q

True or False:An entire Entry Team will enter and leave together when ordered by the Safety Management Team. The only exception will be if members leave the scene is pairs (buddy system). (6.1.4)

A

False.There are no exceptions. The entire team shall enter and leave together.

478
Q

The warning alarm on an EDSCBA will operate when _______ of operating time remains. (6.1.4)

A

60 minutes

479
Q

Describe the operations of the Fast Unit at an EDSCBA incident. (6.2.1)

A

Fast Unit will accompany the operational units to the scene to obtain a size up of conditions, then withdraw to a safe location identified by the Support Unit.

480
Q

Add. 5 Cleaning/Disinfecting the SCBA RegulatorDescribe the process of cleaning the SCBA regulator. (1.5)

A

Depress the manual shut off, close the purge knob, spray a minimum of 6 full pumps of 70% isopropyl alcohol into the regulator opening, Swirl around to cover all interior components. Turn regulator opening face down and shake excess liquid. Allow for 10 minutes of contact time before rinsing. Use drinking water in a spray bottle or slowly running water. Shaking and opening the purge is the only acceptable way to dry the regulator. . NOTE: do not get alcohol or water into the spray bar holes.

481
Q

Add. 7 Corrective Lenses for FacepieceBreakdown:Member will submit a prescription that is less than 1 year old (bi-focal is okay) and form MSU-1, via fax, to MSU and the Dept authorized vendor. If this new lens relaces an old one, forward the old one to MSU. Damged? Return it to MSULost/Stolen? Lost Property Report

A

see other side

482
Q

Add. 8 Pak TrackerThe maximum range of the personal transmitter to the Pak Tracker receiver is approximately ______ ft. (3.1)

A

950 feet, light of sight.

483
Q

Agree or DisagreeThe Pak Tracker receiver is not suitable for use in potentially flammable or explosive atmospheres. Always check for the presence of a flammable or explosive atmosphere before entering an unknown environment with the Pak Tracker. (4.1)

A

Agree.This is not intrinsically safe.

484
Q

How many SCBA’s can the Pak Tracker store? (5.3)

A

36Note: Once a Pak Tracker is locked on a particular SCBA it cannot track receive any other Pass Alarm signals.

487
Q

When is personal harness inspected?

A

Harness shall be inspected by the member when issued, replaced or returned, at the start of each tour and after each use.4.1 GS

488
Q

when is personal harness placed OOS?

A

-If any abnormality of harness or rappel hook exists place it out of service.-If persistent or unknown stains are discovered place the harness out of service.-Whenever a personal harness is subjected to an impact load it shall be placed out of service. A member free falling three feet or more is considered a sufficient impact load to warrant placing the personal harness out of service.-doubt exists regarding the serviceability of a personal harness, it shall be placed out of service.-When a personal harness becomes grossly contaminated, it shall be placed out of service.4.4, 4.5, 4.7, 4.8, 5.4.2 GS

489
Q

When a member is responding without a Personal Harness,and the unit notifies the dispatcher that the Company is responding “Under Staffed”. Upon arrival, the Company Officer shall inform the Incident Commander (IC) of the unit status, what must the IC do ?

A

the IC shall adjust his strategy accordingly. The unit shall only operate if the IC at the scene determines that the members will not be endangered by the reduced manpower. At an incident where members will be operating in an IDLH (Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health) area, the member(s) not equipped with a Personal Harness shall not enter/operate in that area.6.10 GS

490
Q

what happens if Comapany officer or BC is need of replacement harness?

A

When a Battalion Chief or Company Officer is in need of a loaner Personal Harness, the unit where that member is working shall inform the borough dispatcher that the unit is Out of Service until a loaner Personal Harness is obtained from the Division Depot.6.11 GS

493
Q

When can the PSS be used?how many are correct?A- Rescue pickupB- VentingC- remove THEMSELVES from an untenable position above grade to a place of safetyD- remove another FF to Safety

A

C-Used only by members to remove THEMSELVES from an untenable position above grade to a place of safety. The PSS is a ONE TIME use system and is only to be used as a last resort. After use, the PSS will be placed out of service.2.1, 2.2 GS

494
Q

When the harness and the PSS are properly donned, the gate should be facing how?

A

When the harness and the PSS are properly donned, the gate should be facing down and away from the body4.7 GS

495
Q

When Is PSS inspected?

A

The PSS shall be inspected at the following times: 5.1.1 At the start of each tour.5.1.2 Semi-annually.5.5.1 After concluding operations, members shall inspect the outside of the bag for any signs of exposure to heat, defects and/or contamination.GS

496
Q

When is PSS placed OOS?

A

-After use 2.2-If the bag (or any component of PSS) shows signs of heat exposure (discoloration, degradation, melting, charring, etc.) the entire system (PSS bag, rope, EXO, and harness) should be placed out of service 5.3.4- Doubt any 5.3.4- The entire length of the rope, including sewn eye, shall be checked for fraying, cut fibers, abrasions or other signs that might indicate possible degradation. If any defects are noted, the PSS is to be placed out of service. 5.3.4–The anchor hook, EXO and carabiner shall be checked for any deformities or sharp edges. If any defects are noted the PSS is to be placed out of service. 5.4.4NOTE: The inside liner of the rope bag is dyed black. Over time, the rope can be discolored in spots by contact with the liner indicated by dark shading to the rope. The discoloration of the rope due to the dye does not affect the load bearing capacities of the rope.GS

497
Q

at what inspection does the entire PSS get repacked?

A

PSS shall be repacked semi-annually as part of the Semi-Annual Safety Equipment Inspection, and as needed. The semi-annual inspection shall cover the entire PSS.5.4.1, 5.4.2 GS

500
Q

what knot/Hitch is used in the hoisting and lowering of tools and equipment, in the hoisting of hose lines, when drafting water and various other operations?

A

The clove hitch is formed by making two half hitches. It is used in the hoisting and lowering of tools and equipment, in the hoisting of hose lines, when drafting water and various other operations. Unless otherwise specified, a binder shall always be tied in conjunction with a clove hitch, except where it is tied away from the working end of the rope (slip-over clove hitch).Page 2 GS