A term that describes the type of drug that could kill or inhibit bacteria, viruses, fungi, or protozoa.
A term that describes the type of drug that kills microbes but specifically is used to describe a drug that kills primarily bacteria.
A term applied to any drug that “kills bacteria”.
A term applied to any drug that “inhibits the growth of bacteria”.
A term applied to any drug that inhibits the growth of fungi.
A term applied to any drug that kills viruses.
The term that describes the types of microbes killed or inhibited by the drug.
SPECTRUM OF ACTIVITY
A term that means “without oxygen”.
The term used to describe an antibacterial drug that is effective against bacteria in 2 or more quadrants of the spectrum of activity quadrants.
BROAD SPECTRUM ANTIBACTERIAL
The term used to describe an antibacterial drug that only affects 1 or 2 quadrants.
NARROW SPECTRUM ANTIBACTERIAL
Lowest drug concentration at which bacteria are inhibited.
MINIMUM INHIBITORY CONCENTRATION (MIC)
Lowest drug concentration at which bacteria are killed.
MINIMUM BATERICIDAL CONCENTRATION (MBC)
The dose that gives the highest drug concentration before toxicity or side effects become unacceptable.
MAXIMUM TOLERATED DOSE (MTD) by host
This term means the bacteria can survive in the presence of antibiotics designed to kill or inhibit them.
This is the phenomenon in which the presence of an antibiotic in the environment of the bacteria causes resistant bacteria to proliferate and cause disease.
These are trace amounts of drugs, chemicals, or their metabolites left in tissues.
This is the amount of time between when the last dose of the drug was given until the animal can be harvested for human food or its milk and eggs sold for human food.
Part of the bacteria that holds bacteria together against osmotic forces.
Part of the bacteria that regulates the flow of electrolytes and essential molecules in and out of the cell.
Structure inside bacterial cell that produces proteins.
Strand that carries a copy of the DNA code for protein formation to the ribosome.
messsenger-RNA => m-RNA
Added to sulfonamides to inhibit folic acid synthesis and make sulfonamide drugs bactericidal.
The group of penicillins to which penicillin G belongs.
The group of penicillins to which amoxicillin and ampicillin belong.
The group of penicillins to which dicloxacillin belongs.
The group of penicillins to which carbenicillin belongs.
EXTENDED SPECTRUM PENICILLINS
The strands that form the backbone of the bacterial cell wall.
The enzyme that links peptides to the backbone of the bacterial cell wall.
Penicillin readily destroyed by stomach acid.
Enzyme produced by Staphylococci bacteria that destroys penicillins or cephalosporins.
Beta lactamase that specifically attacks penicillins.
Two compounds added to penicillins to prevent them from being digested by bacteria’s beta-lactamase enzyme.
CLAVULANIC ACID AND SULBACTAM
Describes the infection that occurs when orally administered antibiotic kills beneficial GI tract bacteria allowing more pathogenic disease causing bacteria to proliferate producing severe diarrhea and possibly death.
SUPERINFECTION OR SUPRAINFECTION
Four species in which penicillin should not be given by mouth because it can produce severe or fatal diarrhea.
GUINEA PIGS, FERRETS, HAMSTERS, AND RABBITS
Form of penicillin G that can be given IV.
AQUEOUS SOLUTION, I.E. PENCILLIN G COMPLEXED WITH SODIUM OR POTASSIUM
Added to penicillin G to be absorbed over 24 hours.
Added to penicillin G to be absorbed over 3-5 days.
AMOXICILLIN AND AMPICILLIN
Added to ampicillin to slow absorption.
Target site of action for cephalosporins.
CELL WALL FORMATION
4 first generation cephalosporins.
CEFADROXIL, CEPHAPIRIN, CEPHALEXIN (KEFLEX), CEFAZOLIN (KEFZOL)
3 third generation cephalosporins.
CEFOVECIN (CONVENIA), CEFPODOXIME (SIMPLICEF), CEFTIOFUR (NAXCEL)
Describes the type of treatment that is based upon what bacteria should be present in the infection site and what drugs historically have worked against
such bacteria; usually done prior to getting results back from culture and susceptibility tests.
Specific beta lactamases that work against cephalosporins but not penicillins.
Location where cephalosporins and penicillins can achieve much higher concentrations that that found in the rest of the body.
RENAL TUBULES (URINE)
4 food animal species cephalosporins may NOT be given in an extra label manner.
CATTLE, SWINE, CHICKENS, TURKEYS
The spectrum of activity for which aminoglycosides are usually used.
GRAM NEGATIVE AEROBES
The type of environments in which aminoglycosides are NOT used.
The bacterial organelle that is the target for aminoglycoside actions.
Proteins are made up of these.
These transport amino acids to the ribosome.
TRANSFER RNA = tRNA
This carries the code for protein formation from the nucleus to the ribosome.
MESSENGER RNA = mRNA
This is the term that describes the ability of aminoglycosides to continue to kill bacteria long after the drug has left the site of infection.
Two organs of the body that accumulate aminoglycosides.
RENAL TUBULAR CELLS AND INNER EAR
Means toxicity of the inner ear.
Means toxicity of the kidney.
An increase of these two things in the urine constitutes an early sign of renal injury from aminoglycosides
BLOOD UREA NITROGEN (BUN) AND CREATININE
How much of the kidney filtering function that needs to be compromised before BUN and creatinine on the blood chemistry profile begin to increase.
This is the part of the inner ear responsible for balance.
This is the rapid, repetitive eye movement that occurs when an animal has inner ear disease.
The most nephrotoxic aminoglycoside.
Means pus producing.
Which fluoroquinolone is a human drug that got a lot of attention when anthrax was being used as a terrorist weapon?
The bacterial enzyme that is the target for fluoroquinolone’s action.
Against what Gram-positive bacteria are quinolones not very effective?
What tissue may be damaged by high doses of enrofloxacin (and other quinolones) during periods of rapid bone growth?
This term means “disease of the retina”.
Which quinolone was reported to cause blindness due to retinopathy in the cat?
Which quinolone was developed for cats only?
Which quinolone was the 1st quinolone to be used in veterinary medicine?
Which two tetracyclines are considered to be older and more soluble?
TETRACYCLINE AND OXYTETRACYCLINE
Which two tetracyclines are considered to be newer and more lipid-soluble (or lipophilic)?
MINOCYCLINE AND DOXYCYCLINE
By what suffix are members of the tetracycline drug family recognized?
What organelle is the target for the mechanism of action for the tetracycline family of antibiotics?
Are tetracyclines considered bactericidal or bacteriostatic?
What cellular organelle produces proteins?
This is the molecule that brings amino acids into the ribosome to form a protein.
transfer RNA = tRNA
What is the type of bacteria that cause Rocky Mountain spotted fever and Potomac horse fever.
What bacterial infection is birds is treated with tetracyclines?
What is the name of the organism that causes Lyme disease?
What type of bacteria causes leptospirosis?
SPIROCHETE BACTERIA OF LEPTOSPIROSIS = LEPTOSPIRA
What type of bacteria doesn’t have a cell wall?
What is the genus and species name for heartworm?
What bacterium lives within the heartworm?
This term describes an organism living dependently upon another organism that contributes to the other organism’s health)
What is the tetracycline of choice for killing Wolbachia?
Which two tetracyclines should NOT be given orally with cheese and dairy products?
TETRACYCLINE AND OXYTETRACYCLINE
This is the term that describes how excreted tetracyclines into the GI tract will be reabsorbed from the gut and enter the body over and over again.
What anti-stomach ulcer drug should not be given with PO tetracycline drug?
Which two tetracycline drugs chelate less than 20% with ions?
DOXYCYCLINE AND MINOCYCLINE
These can become stained in young animals treated with tetracycline.
This tetracycline should never be used IV in horses
This tetracycline has been reported to cause esophageal erosions and ulcers when given PO. (in cats)
Are sulfonamides by themselves bactericidal or bacteriostatic?
What are two compounds that when added to a sulfonamide produce a potentiated sulfonamide?
TRIMETHOPRIM OR ORMETOPRIM
Type of sulfonamide (not a specific drug) that is meant to stay within the GI tract to produce its effect.
Type of sulfonamide (not a specific drug) that is meant to be absorbed into the body to produce its effect.
Which specific sulfonamide drug is used as an enteric sulfonamide?
Bacterial compound whose formation is disrupted by sulfonamide drugs.
These are single-cellular organisms larger than bacteria that are killed by sulfonamides.
Organism that causes toxoplasmosis.
What does EPM stand for?
EQUINE PROTOZOA MYELOENCEPHALITIS
What organism causes EPM?
These are intestinal protozoa killed by sulfonamides.
This sulfonamide is used for its colon anti-inflammatory effect more than its antibiotic effect.
What does KCS stand for?
What is the other name for KCS?
Drug used to treat dry-eye caused by sulfonamides.
This term means “itching”.
This term means “crystals in the urine”.
A lincosamide drug used for treating mastitis in cattle.
A lincosamide used for treating deep puncture wounds, dental socket infections, or deep pyodermas in dogs; Antirobe is the trade name.
Compound that is close in structure to erythromycin and stimulates intestinal motility.
Human macrolide that is used to treat mycoplasma pneumonia.
Macrolide that causes GI cramps and abdominal pain as typical side effects.
Which macrolide has been used as a human suicide drug?
Which macrolide antibiotic is used to treat infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis (IBK)?
What is the other common name used for IBK?
Which macrolide is used to treat chronic diarrhea of unknown origin in the dog?
What antimicrobials is only effective against anaerobic bacteria, but also kills Giardia, but can’t be used in any food animal because it is banned from use in these species?
What is the target for the action of metronidazole in bacteria?
DNA AND NUCLEIC ACIDS
For what organism was metronidazole developed to treat?
What body system shows clinical side effects with metronidazole?
CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM
What drug is known for its excellent ability to penetrate tissues, but is banned from use in any food animals because it causes aplastic anemia in
What drug is related to chloramphenicol, has all of its advantages, but is FDA approved for use in food animals to treat respiratory disease?
This term means no white cells or red blood cells are being produced by the bone marrow.
What term means “skin plant”?
Are blastomycosis and histoplasmosis superficial or deep mycoses?
What antifungal agent is given only by IV, works rapidly, but is considered to be very toxic?
This term means, “kills fungus”.
This is the target molecule for amphotericin B.
This is the cell structure that is damaged by the action of amphotericin B.
FUNGAL CELL MEMBRANE
Means “harmful to the kidney”.
Molecule to which amphotericin B binds with in dog cells to produce toxicity in this species.
This means the drug molecule has been surrounded by lipid molecules.
LIPOSOMAL BASED FORM = LIPID COMPLEXED
Which –azole is the old, oral imidazole prototype drug?
This term means that the drug prevents fungi from growth or division but does not kill them.
This enzyme is the target for –azole drugs.
CYP 450 converts progesterone to what?
Ketoconazole reduces the clinical signs of this particular endocrine disease that is caused by excessive production of cortisol.
This term describes the effects caused by a drug that result in birth defects.
This –azole drug does NOT inhibit CYP-450 enzymes, needs acidic pH to be absorbed, and does not penetrate the CNS or eye very well.
Fungal infection that occurs in the back of the throat area specifically in horses.
GUTTURAL POUCH MYCOSIS
This –azole drug is considered to be a first-choice drug for non-life threatening mycoses in the dog, cat and exotic animals that do NOT involve the CNS.
This –azole drug is often the drug of choice for mycotic meningitis or ocular mycoses inside the globe of the eye.
This term refers to fungal infections of the urinary bladder.
This –azole drug is the drug of choice for treating mycotic cystitis.
This –azole drug is available as a veterinary otic preparation and as a human systemic drug given PO.
List the two topically applied antifungals that are older imidazole drugs.
CLOTRIMAZOLE AND MICONAZOLE
This –azole drug is topically applied and considered to be a 2nd generation topical antifungal.
Which antifungal drug is for dermatophyte treatment, takes 4-6 weeks to work, and creates skeletal and cranial malformations in fetuses if given to pregnant cats.
GRISEOFULVIN (GRIFULVIN V, GENERICS)
This is the target for griseofulvin inside fungal cells.
MICROTUBULES OF MITOTIC SPINDLE
Antifungal that is a compound used against fleas.
Lufenuron prevents this from being incorporated into fungi cell wall.
Antifungal drug for dermatophyte treatment that inhibits ergosterol synthesis by inhibiting enzyme squalene epoxidase.
Very old antifungal agent still used as a shampoo; mechanism by which it works is unknown.
POTASSIUM OR SODIUM IODINE