final Flashcards
(116 cards)
1
Q
Oversight of the patient-care aspects of an EMS system by the medical director is called:
A
medical direction
2
Q
A critical component of the NHTSA Technical Assistance Program transportation standard is safety and reliability of
A
ambulance transportation
3
Q
What capability distinguishes trauma centers from less-specialized hospitals?
A
Surgical teams are available 24 hours a day
4
Q
The modern EMS system in the United States began in the:
A
1960s
5
Q
The NREMT is involved in:
A
EMS curriculum development
6
Q
An enhanced 911 system allows the emergency dispatcher to:
A
immediately access the phone number and address from which the call is being made
7
Q
Which of the following agencies has established an assessment program with a set of standards for EMS systems?
A
NHTSA
8
Q
One aspect of the regulation and policy standard of the NHTSA Technical Assistance Program is that each state should have:
A
a lead EMS agency
9
Q
The organisms that cause infection, such as viruses and bacteria, are called:
A
Pathogens
10
Q
For which of the following is there a vaccination?
A
Hepatitis B
11
Q
SARS (airborne pathogen) cross-contamination from the patient to the provider can be reduced if the EMT takes which precautions?
A
Don gloves and gown, use eye protections, and wear an N-95 respirator
12
Q
Which of the following diseases is on the decline because of better vaccination?
A
Epiglottitis
13
Q
Who mandates that employers of emergency responders must take certain measures to protect employees who are likely to be exposed to blood and other body fluids?
A
OSHA
14
Q
During a clinical shift in the emergency department, you are instructed to put on a HEPA mask.The situation likely involves
A
tuberculosis
15
Q
Your patient is suspected of tuberculosis. Your PPE should include a(n):
A
N-95 respirator mask
16
Q
Hepatitis A is usually contracted through exposure to:
A
food or water that has been contaminated by feces.
17
Q
An example of eustress is
A
having to meet higher performance standards.
18
Q
Which of the following is considered part of the stress triad?
A
Bleeding gastric ulcers
19
Q
What are body mechanics
A
The proper use of your body to prevent injury and facilitate lifting and moving.
20
Q
Emergency moves may be necessary if
A
there is a threat of fire or possible explosion
21
Q
Which of the following is an indication for an emergency move?
A
You are unable to gain access to other patients who need lifesaving care.
22
Q
When lifting a stretcher or backboard, which of the following is the best number of people to use?
A
Four
23
Q
The actions that an EMT is legally allowed to perform while caring for an injured or ill patient are known as:
A
the scope of practice\
24
Q
When an EMT takes the time to ask permission from a conscious adult to do an assessment and procedures, this is respecting the legal principle of
A
expressed consent
25
You are on the scene of a cardiac arrest. You have already begun resuscitation when family members arrive and present you with a valid DNR order. You should
follow your local protocols and contact medical direction if unsure how to proceed
26
A patient appears to be in the midst of a psychotic episode and is unable to make a rational decision about consenting to emergency care. The EMT may care for the patient on the basis of:
implied consent
27
A suicidal 14-year-old who has critically injured herself is trying to get you to withhold care. She is screaming that she wants to die and that you should not touch her or come near her. You should
provide the care she needs
28
A photo of a pair of EMTs on a call shows them laughing and looking casual and relaxed a few feet away from a patient in apparent distress. This would most likely be used to demonstrate
res ipsa loquitur
29
Good Samaritan laws were enacted to:
protect individuals who try to help people in emergencies
30
Which of the following is MOST clearly a HIPAA violation?
You provide a personal injury attorney with a copy of a patient care report
31
During your EMT class, you will be studying the effects of how the brain (a neurological structure) contributes to normal lung inflation (a pulmonary structure). The study of how these body structures and systems function and relate to one another is known as:
physiology
32
What is one reason an EMT needs to understand medical terminology?
To describe the anatomical locations of a patient’s injuries
33
The imaginary horizontal and vertical lines going through the navel create the:
abdominal quadrants
34
What two divisions of the nervous system help control the size of the blood vessels?
Parasympathetic and sympathetic
35
Bile is created in which organ of the digestive system?
Liver the movement of gases to and from the alveoli
36
Which division of the nervous system carries sensory information to the spinal cord and brain and motor information from the brain to the body?
Peripheral nervous system
37
Which of the following causes inhalation?
The intercostal muscles and diaphragm contract.
38
What occurs when the autonomic nervous system is stimulated by stressors, resulting in a fight-or-flight reaction?
blood vessels constrict
body increases pulse, BV constrict, RR faster, pale sweaty skin
39
Which of the following cardiovascular structures carries deoxygenated blood?
Pulmonary Artery
40
Compared with adults, the infant's rib cage toward the bottom is not as
: curved inward
41
Inadequate circulation of blood throughout the body is known as:
shock
42
One of the byproducts of metabolism without oxygen is:
lactic acid
43
A cell's internally created fuel that is responsible for powering all the other cellular functions is:
ATP
44
Oxygen is
required for normal cell metabolism
45
What does severe sepsis change about the thin wall between the alveoli and the alveolar capillaries?
Its permeability
46
In distributive shock, what is lost?
Blood vessel tone
47
Delayed capillary refill time is a sign of:
compensated shock
48
A disruption of the body's fluid balance due to dehydration would most likely cause:
hypovolemic shock
49
Anemia is a decrease in the number of:
red blood cells
50
Hypersensitivity can occur in response to:
certain food, drugs, or animals
51
Accidents are a leading cause of death in which stage of life?
Early Adulthood
52
Concerns over health and mortality often come to mind in what stage of development?
Late adulthood
53
Nasal flaring and retractions are signs of:
an inadequate airway
54
Sounds such as wheezing, snoring, and stridor are signs of:
airway or breathing compromise
55
Which of the following patients has an open airway but is still at risk for airway compromise?
A patient who is choking because of a partial upper airway obstruction
56
What is a potential harmful side effect of suctioning an airway?
Hypoxia
57
When suctioning a child's airway, the EMT must take care not to:
make contact with the hypopharynx
58
Stridor
high pitched, whistling
severely restricted upper airway by either a physical obstruction or swelling
59
Wheezing
high pitched sounds upon exhalation
upper airway narrowing. Asthma, COPD, anaphylactic
60
Crackles/Rales
crackle or bubbling sounds upon inhalation in the lungs
Fluid build up in the alveoli
61
Rhonchi
lower pitched sounds, resembling snoring
secretions in the larger airways. Pneumonia and bronchitis
62
Gurgling:
fluid in the airway
caused by fluid obstructing the airway
63
Which of the following is the area around the wreckage of a vehicle collision or other potentially unsafe incident, within which special safety precautions must be taken?
Danger Zone
64
he process of ensuring scene safety is:
dynamic and ongoing
65
A brief survey of an emergency scene
can reveal information such as visible hazards
66
You arrive at the scene of a head-on collision. One passenger not wearing a seatbelt struck the windshield with her forehead during impact. expect
the possibility of: head, neck, chest and abdominal injuries
67
Generally, the sixth and last part of a primary assessment is:
determining the priority of the patient for treatment and transport
68
A 34-year-old male is unconscious in bed. Which of the following should be done first?
Assess circulation
69
Which of the following interventions should be performed with both responsive and unresponsive trauma patients?
Manual stabilization of the head and neck
70
You check for a pulse in an unconscious 12-year-old patient. What would cause you concern?
Any pulse outside of normal
71
A patient with an open but endangered airway is:
a patient lying faceup
72
You are reaching for the pediatric BP cuff when you notice that your 9-year-old patient is becoming cyanotic. What should you do?
Repeat the primary assessment
73
Which of the following is the federal agency that assigns and licenses radio frequencies?
FCC
74
The patient denying respiratory difficulty is an example of
pertinent negative
75
An example of a suspension administered by EMTs is
activated charcoal
76
Which of the following must be included on your PCR after administration of a medication to your patient?
the effects of the drug
77
Which of the following involves relaxation of the rib muscles and the diaphragm
Exhalation and Expiration
78
An inhaler containing a beta agonist medication is intended to
dilate the bronchioles
79
A rescue inhaler is most likely to contain which of the following?
Albuterol
80
The heart has no reserve of __________, so any interruption in its supply results in significant problems
oxygen
81
Which of the following refers to any condition in which the heart may not be getting enough oxygen?
Acute coronary syndrom
82
An insufficient supply of oxygenated blood to an area of the body is called
Ischemia
83
One of the side effects of administering nitroglycerin to a cardiac patient could be
a drop in blood pressure
84
Conditions that narrow or block the arteries of the heart are called:
coronary artery disease
85
Which of the following statements about infarction is correct?
Infarction is commonly the result of a totally occluded coronary blood vessel
86
The pressure backup from the vena cava in right-sided congestive heart failure causes the sign of:
Jugular Vein Distension (JVD)
87
Your patient has a weakened section of the arterial wall that is ballooning. This is known as a(n):
aneurysm
88
Which of the following would not be corrected by defibrillation?
Asystole
89
Asystole:
the electrical system fails completely and no electricity is created
90
V-Tach:
heartbeat is rapid to the point where it will not allow heart’s chambers to fill with enough blood between beats
91
V-Fib:
a heart’s electrical impulses are disorganized, preventing the heart muscle from contracting normally.
92
A patient experiencing disorientation and a lowered state of alertness is experiencing a failure of the reticular activating system (RAS), which is responsible for:
consciousness
93
Which of the following is the most important treatment element to consider in transporting a patient with seizures?
Airway and oxygen levels
94
A stroke cannot happen without:
deprivation of oxygen to the brain tissue
95
In an ischemic stroke, what occludes an artery?
A clot or embolism
96
A 62-year-old male complains of weakness on one side of his body and slurred speech. After you arrive and evaluate the patient, you notice that the symptoms are beginning to subside. What is the likely cause of the patient's condition?
Transient ischemic attack
97
Which of the following is characterized by sudden, temporary loss of consciousness caused by insufficient blood flow to the brain, with return of consciousness almost immediately on becoming supine?
Vasovagal Syncope
98
TYPE 1:
congenital, insulin dependent. usually prescribed synthetic insulin
99
TYPE 2:
acquired, non-insulin dependent. body unable to use insulin
100
Hypoglycemia
low blood sugar, VERY RAPID ONSET
101
Hyperglycemia:
high blood sugar, develops over days/weeks
untreated hyperglycemia leads to DKA
102
What finding most clearly indicates anaphylaxis?
generalized pallor
103
In an allergic reaction when an antibody combines with the allergen, what substance is released that causes bronchoconstriction, promotion of thick mucus production in the lungs, vasodilation, and increased vascular permeability?
Histamine
104
Histamine release increases vascular permeability. What physical sign is associated with this pathophysiology?
swelling
105
You arrive on scene to back up another EMT unit on a patient with an allergic reaction. As you approach the scene, you see one EMT preparing to administer the patient's EpiPen®. Which of the following clinical findings would support the use of the EpiPen?
Signs and symptoms of shock
106
Which of the following is an anticipated side effect of epinephrine administration?
Tachycardia
107
You just administered an EpiPen to your patient. The patient is improved but is now complaining of chest pain. You should:
notify medical direction
108
In a patient who is experiencing tachycardia, hypertension, nausea, and tremors, you should most suspect:
an antidepressant overdose
109
Which of the following is true of absorbed poisons?
For an absorbed liquid, irrigate with clean water for 20 minutes and continue en route, if possible
110
A patient with a history of alcohol abuse who reports visual and auditory hallucinations is reporting:
one of the symptoms of alcohol abuse
Signs and symptoms of Alcohol withdrawal: poor blood sugar, poor nutrition, potential for GI bleed, delirium temens, seizures, hypertension, tachycardia
111
Volatile chemicals are:
vaporizing compounds
112
A patient who displays excitement, increased pulse and breathing rates, rapid speech, dry mouth, dilated pupils, and sweating has most likely been using:
uppers
113
Solid organs
Liver, Spleen, pancreas, Kidneys
dull pain
114
Hollow organs:
stomach, small intestine, large intestine, gallbladder, bladder, duodenum, appendix
Cramping pain felt
115
What type of bleeding is most likely associated with dark, tarry stool?
GI Bleeding
116
Patients who are experiencing a heart attack often complain of:
epigastric pain
