Final Flashcards
1
Q
takeoff weight
A
28,000
2
Q
landing weight
A
23350
3
Q
Ramp Weight
A
28120
4
Q
Emergency Descent Items
A
Thrust Levers - close
Speed - Mmo/Vmo unless structural damage is suspected
Air Brakes - Open
5
Q
Electrical Smoke/Fire
A
Crew Oxygen - don masks - 100% or emerg
Mic Selector - Oxy-Mic
Cabin Notices - ON
6
Q
Engine Fire on Ground
A
Start PWR Switch(starting only) - Push For Abort
HP Cock (affected engine) - Close
LP Cock (affected engine) - close
ENG EXT (affected engine) - Shot 1
7
Q
Double Eng Failure
A
Thrust Levers - Close
Crew Oxygen - Don Masks if above 15,000 FT
Mic Selector - Oxy-Mic if above 15,000 FT
Engine Indication - monitor
8
Q
Vmo
ventral tank full
A
335
9
Q
Vmo
ventral tank empty
A
280
10
Q
Mmo
A
.8 mach
11
Q
an over-voltage of ___ or higher will cause the GCU (generator control unit) to automatically open the GLC
A
32.5
12
Q
What does the GCU do
A
provide output stabilization and load equalization
automatically switches from starter mode to generator mode
in generator mode, it will act as a voltage regulator
controls the generator by directly controlling the GLC (generator line contactor)
provides reverse current flow protection
13
Q
Why are our batteries 24v but our system is 28v
A
The voltage all together needs to be greater so that the batteries can charge off of the extra voltage
14
Q
How is the electricity in the electric system distributed
A
busses
15
Q
How do we test the volts for our battery
A
the battery pushbutton connects ammeters to batteries to show the charge rate of the batteries.
it is hot-wired to the battery so there is no need to turn anything on. just turn a knob so that we are looking at it specifically.
16
Q
What should our battery amps be at for takeoff
A
needs to be below 20 amps
17
Q
GPU (ground power unit)
A
standard 3 pin, 28 volt DC ground power receptacle located on right rear fuselage
18
Q
what is the only thing that can run everything with engines off
A
GPU
19
Q
What information does the cabin triple indicator give us
A
cabin altitude
differential pressure
rate of change
20
Q
Cabin pressure at FL 410
A
7500
8.55 PSI
21
Q
How do we control cabin pressure
A
pressurization is achieved by supplying bleed air into pressure vessel and controlling the outflow
22
Q
Max cabin pressure differential
A
8.55
23
Q
Max Negative Cabin Pressure
A
-.5
24
Q
Max Cabin Over Pressure
A
8.6-8.8
25
What is the limitation with engine bleed air ad APU bleed
can both be on for no more than 1 minute
26
What keeps the outflow valves open on the ground
venturi
27
when will the cabin high annunciator go off
9300 +/- 300
high datum - 14000 +/- 300
28
what color is the cabin high annunciator
red - it will set the master warning lights off
29
Will an annunciator extinguish after it has alluminated
yes, if the reason it went off goes away
30
what bus powers the MWS system
PE
31
3 ways and examples the aircraft talks to us
visually - annucniators
Audibly - bells and chimes
Tactically - stick pusher/stick shaker
32
how do we test all annunciators to max intensity
annunciator test button
33
Fuel pump types
Jet pumps - 4 - no moving parts - just moves fuel through the inner tank parts
Boost pumps- 2 - moves ventral fuel - helps move fuel from tanks to engine
engine driven - 2 - automizes fuel - if it dies we die
34
Boost pump locations
1 in each wing
35
max fuel imbalance
500 pounds in between the wings
36
What must be working for ventral tank transfer
boost pumps
37
stator vs compressor
stationary - stationary
compressor - rotating (rotary)
38
Why do we put the APR in armed position
activates when uncommanded split in N2 occurs of 15% or more
39
spool
twin stool engine (N1 and N2) compressor and turbine connected on a single shaft - we have 2
40
Axial Flow
low pressure compressor - 4 rows or compressors (spin/move) 4 rows of stators (stationary)
41
CZI vs MPI inspections
CZI - every 6000 hours - much more in depth and costly - complete disassembly of engine - compressor zone inspection - confused with overhaul
MPI - every 3000 hours - looks primarily at turbine section - a lot like a hot section - major periodic inspection
both are more complex than what they are associated with
42
For maximum T/O thrust what is the N1, N2, ITT and time limit
N1- 100
N2 - 101
ITT - 1022
5 minutes
43
what is on the accessory case
oil pump, fuel pump, starter generator, alternator, fuel control unit, hydraulic pump
44
when do we get notified the TKS fluid is low
30 minutes remaining
45
Vibrometer explianed
an electrical pulse is sent thorugh a probe making it vibrate. as you fly ice collects making the probe heavier and the vibrations slower. As it slows it talks to th aircraft saying ice is forming
46
Our icing system
rotary ice cutter on the forward left fuselage as ice forms it is being cut off causing the rotation to slow due to the friction. As this friction grows and the turn slows it talks to the airplane letting it know ice is forming
47
TKS anti-ice system
TKS fluid is pumped out of the front of the wings and the horizontal stabilizer
it is pushed over the wing and elevator by wind going over the surfaces preventing from ice build up
48
Hot wings
hot bleed air from engine is pushed to the front, top, and bottom of wings warming the surface of the aircraft and melting/ preventing ice on the surface
49
WIng boots
inflatable boots on the front of wings that after ice has formed you will inflate to knock already formed ice off of the wing
50
when will you get anti-ice low pressure system
low system pressure with pump on
51
what do the alternators do for anti-ice
2 engine driven alternators heat the windscreens-sidescreens - stall vanes electrically
52
Alternator 1 heats
left windscreen, right sidescreen, left stall vane
53
Alternator 2 heats
Right windscreen, left sidescreen, right stall vane
54
what does the fire annunciator tell us
something is very hot - just because it goes off does not mean there IS a fire
55
how do we choose which side our extinguishers go to
by choosing shot 1 or 2 on the engine ext button for the engine that is having the overheat/fire alarm
56
what does shot 2 run off of
PS2
57
at does shot 1 run off of
PE
58
where are the fire extinguisher shots located
aft equipment bay
59
when would we have the emergency brakes on
when we attempt to brake and have no braking authority
60
how do we turn the emergency brakes on
pull the wheel lever back 1 notch
61
Hawker Anti-Skid
only provided during normal braking
called maxaret
fully mechanical
wheels must be moving
62
lift dump limitations
must be on the ground
flaps must be "selected" 45
63
where does the APU get its fuel from
left tank at .5 gallon an hour
64
What does the APY do
provides power and bleed air on ground and in flight
65
who monitors the APU
it monitors itself
66
what happens for APU fire
APU overheat detector go off
fire bell and annunciator go off
single shot fire extinguisher can be set off by pilots or after 5 seconds after APU auto-shutdown due to overheating it will not automatically go off
67
Master supply valve
allows oxygen into entire oxygen system
pilots need it open/passengers neet it open
68
emergency passenger supply valve
deploys passenger masks manually
69
Cabin oxygen
supplies passengers with oxygen
knob located behind pilots head
70
Barometric Valve
supplies masks and oxygen to passengers at cabin altitude of 14500+/- 500 ft
71
The emergency escape hatch is on the ____ side, _____ window
Right; fourth
72
to recieve external power, the ground power unit must be plugged in to the ground power receptacle on the
right rear fuselage
73
This color annunciator indicates a condition that requires immediate crew action
red
74
electrical heating is provided for
forward static plates
pitot heads
windshields
75
when the cabin door is not in the fully locked position, microswitches connected to the master warning system illuminate the ___________ annunciator
yellow ENT DOOR UNLOCKED
76
the batteries will maintain essential service during a dual generator failure for
30 minutes minimum
77
the maximum battery amps for takeoff is
20 amps
78
when a generator si off-line and the GEN FAIL and ELECT look up annunciators are illuminated, the generator can be reinstated by
positioning the GEN switch to CLOSE for five seconds then releasing it
79
the battery-charging rate can be monitored by
Depressing the BATT ammeter pushboutton
80
for engine starting, the ground power unit must produce
28 volts, 1,500 amps with 1,100-amp current limiter
81
circuit breakers protecting unswitched PE circuits are marked to ease isolation in the event of smoke or fire with
a white background
82
when either the BATT 1 CNTCTR or BATT 2 CNTCTR annunciator illuminates it indicates that the respective
battery contactor or emergency contacctor is open
83
power for the EMERG-OFF-STORM switch (EMERG position) is controlled by the _____ bus bar
PE
84
the entry light switch is on the
left bulkhead sidewall
85
if the NO SMKG swithc is positioned in AUTO the NO SMOKING light illuminates when:
the nose gear locks down during extension
86
For normal operation, the EMERG lights switch on the roof panel should be positioned to
arm
87
the _______ switch provides circuit control for the instruments, pedestal lighting, and display panels
LTS MASTER
88
The MWS annunciator can be dimmed:
by pressing the face of either red MWS glareshield annunciator
89
With the exception fo the DUCT OVHT look up annunciator, the arrows on the center annunciator panel flashsers signify
that a roof panel annunciator is illuminated
90
the white annunciators indicate
completed operations and/or system status
91
the bus bar that powers the master warning system is
PE
92
the master warning flashing lights on the glare shield can be extinguished by
pressing the face of either red MWS annunciator
93
to illuminate all MWS annunciators at maximum intensity
press the ANNUN switch
94
to bypass the DIM circuit
position the DIM OVRD switch to OVRD
95
boost pumps are located in the
left and right wing tanks
96
when the ventral tank contains fuel, a low Vmo speed warning will sound whenever aircraft speed exceeds
280 kias
97
the maximum lateral imbalance permitted is
500 punds
98
with boost pumps inoperative
ventral tank fuel can not be transferred
99
if the ventral tank is to be used in flight, it must be full, and each wing must contain more than
3,450 pounds of fuel
100
the aircraft fuel sustem accepts a maximum refueling supply pressure of
50 psi
101
the function of the APU is to supply
bleed air and DC electrical power for ground operations and in flight operations
102
do not operate APU bleed air and marine engine bleed air simultaneously for longer than
1 minute
103
normal APU shut down is accomplished by
depressing the red STOP button on the APU control panel
104
the _____ supplies fuel for the APU
left main tank
105
the powerplant classification on Hawker 900 XP series aircraft is:
single-spool turbojet
106
When the aircraft is static on a standard day at sea level, each engine develops
4660 pounds of thrust
107
the primary overspeed rpm-limiting device on the 731 series engine is the:
mechanical governor in FCU
108
the maximum HP rotor (N2) overspeed is:
102% for 10 seconds
109
the maximum oil pressure for power at or above idle rpm without a time limit is
80psi
110
the maximum interturbine temperature for engine starting or relight is
994C
111
the maximum transient oil pressure permissible is
100psi
112
if the MWS reverser annunciator illuminates during the deploy cycle, it indicates
rudder bias not inhibited
113
to facilitate an accurate setting of climb power:
CLIMB in green displayed on the MFD engine display
114
the APR system is available
to any engine with an operative computer
115
engine fire bottles are in the
rear equipment bay
116
the exterior preflight check fo the fire extenguisher includes
Checking the condition of two engine discharge indicators
117
the engien fire bell can be silenced
by pressing the BELL CANCEL switch
118
which statement is true regarding discharge fo the fire bottles
When a visual fire warning appears, discharge SHOT 1 first. If necessary, then discharge SHOT 2.
119
the following bus bar(s) provide(s) DC power for engine fire extenguisher operation:
PE and PS2
120
a portable handheld fire extinguisher is stowed in the
cockpit
baggage compartment
121
for a fire in the APU:
a switch on the APU control panel controls the firing of a separate fire exinguisher
122
the APU fire extinguisher automatically discharges _____ seconds after the detection of the APU fire alarm
5
123
The HP bleed air supplements the LF bleed air at the mixing valve when both main air valves switches are selected to OPEN and:
LP bleed-air pressure drops to 27 psi
124
Prior to takeoff and landing, ensure that the flight deck valve and the main air valves are set to the _________ position
close
125
This occurs when a main air valve switch si moved from the CLOSE position to the LP ON position
the main air valve opens, but HP air augmentation is not allowed
126
the position fo the MAIN AIR VLV 1 or 2 switch in which electrical power is applied to a pressure switch is
OPEN
127
when placed in the "open" circuit, the No. 1 MAV has a time delay of approximately _____ before it reaches the fully open position:
20 seconds
128
the following component(s) is/are anti-iced by the use of hot bleed air
Engine inlet cowling
129
for takeoff or landing approach in icing conditions, the following switches must be turned on:
ENG IGNITION, ENG ANTICE, WING/TAIL ANTICE
130
the following switches provide DC power to the rudder bias heater muffs:
PITOT/VANE HEAT
131
the following statement is/are true
the engien inlet cowling is heated by bleed air
with the ENG ANTICE switch energized and the computer switch in AUTO, electrical power is supplied to heating elements don't eh P2T2 sensor
when not in icing conditions, engine anti-icing must not be used or more than 10 seconds in ambient air temperatures above 10C
132
the ICE PROT look up annunciator on the MWS panel does not illuminate when
PITOT/VANE HEAT is on and operating normally
133
the following component may fail to operate satisfactorily when the left pitot heat is inoperative
ADC No. 1
134
the ENG 1 (or2) A/ICE annunciator (when illuminated) indicates:
that anit-icing air pressure is not available at sufficient pressure
135
The PITOT AMPS ammeter checks amperage of:
the left or right pitot heating elements (as selected)
136
the forward static plates are heated:
only when airborne
137
engine anti-icing si required, the ENG ANTICE switches should be turned on:
before takeoff power is set
138
the TKS fluid supply lasts for approximately
108 minutes
139
the airframe anti-icing system:
should be primed before flight
140
The following ICE PROTECTION switches shall always be switched on before takeoff and remain on throughout the flight:
PITOT/VANE HEAT and SCREEN HEAT
141
which component in the air conditioning system determines the temperature of the air after entering the water separator
low-limit temperature control
142
the duct temperature limiter senses a duct temperature of 116C:
the limiter illuminates the DUCT oVHT look up annunciator and automatically gives reduction in duct temperature
143
in delivery air temperature is controlled by operation of the:
Cabin temperature control valve
144
a pressure switch downstream of the PRSOV protects the ACM from overspeed if pressure rises above
40 psi
145
when too much air pressure is present, the 40-psi pressure switch protects the ACM from overspeed by closing:
the No. 2 main air vlave
146
the switch that controls the auxiliary heating valve to provide additional heating to the cockpit is the:
F/DK VLV switch
147
the ______ bus powers the CABIN TEMP-MANUAL mode
PE
148
the pressurization system is capable fo maintaining a cabin altitude of 7,500 feet when the airplane altitude is
41,000 feet
149
the pressurization system can maintain a maximum cabin differential pressure of
8.55 psi
150
the maximum allowable negatice cabin differential pressure is
-.5 psi
151
the fan-operated ventrui will provide suction to open:
both outflow valves
152
with the CABIN HIGH DATUM not selected the CABIN ALTITUDE warning annunciator illuminates and the warning horn sounds at __________________
9,300 +/- 300
153
if one hydraulic engine-driven pump fails:
the hydraulic pressure indicator will display 3,000psi, and the applicable low-pressure annunciator will illuminate
154
if both hydraulic engine-driven pumps fail:
indicated pressure is 2,300psi, and both low-pressure annunciators are illuminated
155
the main hydraulic reservoir is pressurized to prevent:
pump cavitation
156
the first step in operating the auxiliary hydraulic system is to:
pull the AUX HYD SYSTEM lever
157
the purpose of the pressure-maintaining valve in the main hydraulic system is:
to maintain 2,399 psi in the main accumulator for normal brake operation
158
if one hydraulic engine-driven pump fails:
the remaining pump is capable fo actuating all subsystems
159
inadvertent landing gear retraction on the ground is prevented by:
A solenoid-operated device engaging the selector lever.
160
when all landing gear are up and locked, position indications are:
no green or red annunciators illuminated
161
the main landing gear inboard doors are closed
when the gear is in either the extended with the auxiliary system
162
the landing gear warning horn will sound when:
the gear is not locked down with flaps selected to 25
the gear is not locked down with either power lever between 60% and 70% N1, and airspeed is below 150 knots
the gear is down and locked, the LANDING GEAR lever is not selected down, and start power is selected
163
an indication of landing gear down and locked (3 green annunciators) accompanied by 3 red annunciators indicates:
the LANDING GEAR lever is not in the down position and the landing gear is down and locked
164
if the nose gear does not lock down during extension, the indication is that:
the red N GEAR annunciator on the panel is illuminated, and the mechanical indicator on the pedestal is not extended
165
nosewheel steering with the gear retracted is prevented by:
a mechanically actuated hydraulic shut-off valve
166
The EMERG (or EMERG) BRK LO PRESS annunciator illuminates
When emergency brake accumulator pressure drops to 2,250 psi and below
167
Antiskid protection is available:
when braking is from the normal system
168
In order to select emergency brakes, the WHEEL BRAKE lever must be positioned:
to the first aft notch marked in red
169
the elevator trim tabs can be actuated:
mechanically and electrically
170
the purpose of the rudder bias system is:
to automatically counteract asymmetrical thrust due to engine failure
171
if takeoff is attempted with the aileron/elevator gust lock engaged:
only one throttle can be advanced to full power
172
the guard is removed from a pitch trim switch
during testing, to ascertain the trimming cannot be accomplished with one element of the switch
173
the flight control surfaces that are hydraulically actuated are:
flaps and airbrakes
174
asymmetrical flap operation is prevented by:
A synchronizing cable arrangement that isolates the hydraulic supply to the flap motor, stopping the flaps
175
the purpose of lift dump is:
to increase drag and decrease lift on the ground
176
stall warning is provided by:
the stick shaker
177
stall identification is provided by:
the stick pusher
178
in the stall warning and identification system:
Flap position is integrated with angle-of-attack signals to determine critical angle of attack of the wing
179
inadvertent stick pusher operation can be prevented by inhibiting
both channel 1 and channel 2 at the same time
180
the RUDDER BIAS annunciator extinguishes when:
Both RUDDER BIAS switches are on
181
engine indications are normally displayed on the:
pilot MFD
182
aircraft attitude and dynamic flight data are normally displayed on the:
pilot mfd
183
if one of the AFDs becomes unusable due to a failure, the same display can be moved to a different display unit by using the controls on the:
reversionary control panel
184
which of the following is not a lateral ode of flight guidance system
flight level change
185
RA MIN, BARO MIN, and V-speeds can be set manually in the ______ menu pages on the PFD
REFS
186
the display control panels are located
Above the PFD and MFD
187
If a PFD failure were to occur:
Power down the failed PFD by pushing the MFD REV switch. A composite PFD/MFD format will display on the MFD
