Final Flashcards
(235 cards)
1
Q
What is the pathogenesis of pituitary cysts and pituitary dwarfism?
A
failure of oropharyngeal ectoderm of rathkes pouch to differentiate into cells of pars distalis, resulting in cysts and absence of adenohypophysis
2
Q
What neoplasm causes compression and atrophy of adjacent portion of pituatary gland and can lead to lack of pituitary trophic hormones?
A
inactive chromophobe adenomas
3
Q
What pituatary gland neoplasm destroys the pars distalis and neurohypophyseal system leading to panhypopituitarism and diabetes insipidus?
A
pituitary gland carcinoma
4
Q
What are the 3 non-functional pituitary gland neoplasms?
A
inactive chromophone adenoma
pituitary gland carcinoma
craniopharyngioma
5
Q
What functional pituitary neoplasm leads to hirsuitism in horses?
A
pars intermedia adenoma
6
Q
What are the sequalae of a adrenocorticotroph hormone secreting ademona?
A
Secretes ACTH –>cushings dz
bilateral enlargement of adrenal glands (cortical hyperplasia)
7
Q
What form of diabetes insipidus is due to inadequate ADH production due to compression of the pars nervosa, infundibular stalk, or supraoptic nucleus in the hypothalamus?
A
hypophyseal form
8
Q
What form of diabetes insipidus is when the target cells in kedneys lack pathway to respond to ADH?
A
nephrogenic form
9
Q
What are the 3 layers of adrenal gland cortex and what do they secrete?
A
Glomerulosa - aldosterone
Fasciculata - cortisol
Reticularis - progesterone, estrogens, androgens
10
Q
What are immediate and later sequalae of reduced mineralcorticoids in addisons disease?
A
severe hyperkalemia, pronounced bradycardia
later –>hyponatremia and hypochloremia
11
Q
What are the consequences of decreased glucocorticoids in addisons disease?
A
moderate hypoglycemia
hyperpigmentation of skin (lack of negative feedback to pituatary gland and increased ACTH)
12
Q
What are the consequences of decreased glucocorticoids in addisons disease?
A
moderate hypoglycemia
hyperpigmentation of skin (lack of negative feedback to pituatary gland and increased ACTH)
13
Q
What are the 3 causes of addisons disease?
A
adrenalitis (most common)
adrenocortical hemorrhage (waterhouse-friderichsen syndrome)
idiopathyic adrenocortical atrophy
14
Q
What are causes of cushings disease?
A
functional corticotroph adenoma
functional adrenal gland neoplasm
iatrogenic
15
Q
What are the 4 types of hyperplasia and neoplasia of the adrenal cortex?
A
Diffuse cortical hyperplasia (ACTH pituatary adenoma)
nodular hyperplasia (1ry)
adenomas of adrenal cortex
adrenal cortical carcinoma
16
Q
Where do adrenal cortical carcinomas metastasize to?
A
liver
17
Q
What is the sequalae of functional carcinomas and adenomas in the adrenal cortex?
A
severe atrophy of the contralateral adrenal cortex (negative feedback)
18
Q
Where can pheochromocytomas invade? metastasize?
A
caudal vena cava
metastasize to liver, LN and lungs
19
Q
What cells produce calcitonin?
A
Thyroid C cells (parafollicular)
20
Q
What is the role of calcitonin?
A
antagonistic with PTH on bone resorption BUT synergistic in decreasing renal tubular reasborption of phosphorus
21
Q
What are the 3 ways PTH respond to low calcium levels?
A
increasing osteoclasts
decreased reabsorption of P and increased Ca in kidneys
increase absorption of Ca and P in intestinces
22
Q
What are the 3 causes of hypothyroidism?
A
lymphocytic thyroiditis
bilateral nonfunctional follicular cell neoplasm (and goiter)
long standing pituitary gland or hypothalamic lesions
23
Q
What happenes to the skin in hypothyroidism?
A
hyperpigmentation, myxoedema, alopecia, hyperkeratosis
24
Q
What happenes to the skin in hypothyroidism?
A
hyperpigmentation, myxoedema, alopecia, hyperkeratosis
25
What is the cause of colloid goiter?
tooo much iodide added to diet, interferes with thyroid hromone synthesis and secretion
26
What species most commonly gets Thyroid C (Ultimobranchial) cell neoplasma?
bulls
27
What is the most common primary hyperparthyroidism neoplasm?
Functional chief cell neoplasms
28
What causes big head disease in horses?
secondary nutritional hyperparathyroidism
29
What 3 neoplasms can cause pseudohyperparathyroidism?
apocrine gland adenocarcinomas (anal sac)
neoplasms metastatic to bone
lymphoma
30
What are the 3 main cells of pancreatic islets and what do they secrete?
alpha cells - glucagon
beta - insulin
delta - somatostatin
31
What are 4 causes of type 1 diabetes in dogs?
idiopathic atrophy of pancreas
acute pancreatitis
chronc pancreatitis
immune mediated isletitis
32
What are 2 causes of type 2 diabetes in cats?
hydropic degeneration with glycogen accumulation
| deposition of amyloid
33
What are 2 causes of type 2 diabetes in cats?
hydropic degeneration with glycogen accumulation
| deposition of amyloid
34
What is the sequalae of insulinomas?
neurologic disease, neuron necrosis (hypoglycemia)
35
What cells are affected in a centrilobular pattern of injury to the liver? What causes it?
least oxygenated hepatocytes around central vein -->due to hypoxia
36
What liver injury pattern is very similar to centrilobular and caused by the same things?
paracentral pattern (more "global")
37
What pattern of liver injury is steroid hepatopathy in dogs?
steroid hepatopathy in dogs
38
What liver injury pattern results from "direct acting" toxicant?
periportal pattern
39
What does a bridging liver injury pattern suggest?
severe and extensive damage
40
Term for a flat discoloration on the skin.
Macule
41
Term for nodular elevation in skin.
papule
42
Term for a flat, solid, elevated lesion similar to a papule but larger.
Plaque
43
A callus is what type of skin lesion?
plaque
44
Term for a raised lesion with central pallor.
wheal
45
Which species get macronodular cirrhosis?
cats, dogs, humans
46
Term for when hepatocytes focally drop out and sinusoids dilate to produce irregular red spaces. Which species?
telangiectasia
| species - cows and older cats
47
What kind of portal vena caval shunts are more common in larege breed dogs?
intrahepatic
48
What do livers look like in congenital portal caval shunts?
duplicated arterioles, small lobules
49
What is a cause of bacillary hemoglobinuria in the liver?
clostridium haemolyticum (combo with flukes in cattle and sheep)
50
What causes tyzzers disease?
clostridium piliforme
51
What are the species that can cause milk spot scarring in the live?
```
nematodes
pigs - ascaris
horses - strongylus
dogs - stephanarus
dogs and cats - capillaria hepatica
```
52
What animals most commonly get "hepatosis dietetica" (vit a/selenium deficiency)?
growing baby pigs
53
What are the 3 types of toxins that cause centrilobular to massive necrosis?
blue green algae
phalloidin (mushroom)
inorganic iron (baby pigs)
54
What 2 liver toxins can cause chronic hepatitis and lead to end stage liver?
pyrrolizidine alkaloids - megalocytosis
| aflatoxin - megalocytosis and lipidosis
55
Which species most commonly get nodular hyperplasia of the liver?
dogs
56
What species get hepatocellular adenoma?
young ruminants
57
What species commonly gets cholangiolar carcinoma?
cat
58
Term for gallbladder filling with mucus to the point it may rupture. Common in small dogs.
mucocoele
59
What is seen grossly with acute pancreatitis?
necrosis predominates over suppurative inflammation.
prominent interstitial edema
hemorrhage, saponified hat
60
What are the 3 general mechanisms for acute pancreatitis?
biliary reflux
direct damage to acinar cells
overstimulation of acinar cell
61
Vet term for cleft palate.
palatoschisis
62
What is cheiloschisis?
hare lip
63
What are the "big four" vesicular viruses?
Foot and mouth
vesicular stomatitis
vesicular exanthema of swine
swine vesicular dz
64
What viruses can cause full thickness necrosis of the oral epithelium causing erosion?
BVDV, malignant catarrhal fever, bluetongue
calicivirus - cats
rhinotracheitis in horses
65
What 3 etiologies cause necrotizing stomatidies?
calf diphtheria in calves (fuso necrophorum)
NOMA in primates and dogs (stomatitis)
gingivitis in young dogs and old cats
66
Looks like gingival hyperplasia but is actually remnant of tooth germ epithelium.
epulis
67
What should you think of if tonsils are bilaterally enlarged?
infection or lymphoma
68
What if only one tonsil is enlarged?
infectious or SCC
69
Disorder where there is a esophageal propulsive disorder.
achalasia
70
Another term for megaesophagus.
ectasia
71
What are the four distinct sites for choke?
dorsal to the larynx
throacic inlet
base of the heart
diaphragmatic hiatus
72
What causes primary bloat (frothy)?
sudden change in diet, to one rich in legumes
73
What causes secondary tympany?
inibility to eructate
74
What are the causes of neurogenic secondary tympany?
vagal damage
75
What are the 3 causes of obstructive secondary tympany?
lymphosarcoma in wall of rumen
choke
viral papillomas
76
What pH indicates the rumen is infected?
low pH (build up of lactic acid)
77
Where do gastric ulcers occur in pigs?
non-glandular portion
78
What can cause hemorrhagic abomasitis in young sheep and cattle from a heavy bout of nursing?
clostridium septicum
79
What parasite grows along the margo plicatus?
gasterophilus spp
80
What nematode causes anemia in sheep?
Haemonchus contortus
81
What nematodes live in gastric glands of cattle?
ostertagia spp.
82
What can cause hyperplasia of the gastric mucosa in dogs?
gastrinomas of the pancreas
83
What dog breeds get giant hypertrophic gastropathy?
basenji, beagles, boxers and bull terriers
84
Why are adenocarcinomas of the stomach so deadly in dogs?
highly invasive, mared scirrhous response, clinically late
85
What is a GISTs? (gastrointestinal stromal tumor)
any mesenchymal tumor of the stomach, most often leimyoma
86
What is the most common gastric neoplasm?
lymphosarcoma
87
What type of diarrhea is the volume of feces is generally quite profuse and very watery?
small intestinal diarrhea
88
What diarrhea is when the volume of feces is small and more thicker with bits of solid material?
colonic diarrhea
89
What frequency is seen with small intestinal diarrhea? colonic diarrhea?
small - only mildly increased
| colonic - very much increased
90
What toxicities cause functional obstructions?
cattle - lead
| zinc - dogs, cats, horses
91
What can cause an anal stricture in pigs?
salmonellosis damages hemorrhoidal artery
92
What is volvulus?
twisting of intestine around mesenteric attachment
93
Red to blac fibrovascular plaques along ileum of horses
hemomelasma ilei
94
Red stripes that correlate with congestion of mucosal ridges in the colon
tiger striping
95
What heavy metals cause intestinal injury?
arsenic and thallium
96
What are the 3 causes of lymphangiectasia?
congenital, inflammation that occludes, neoplastic blockage
97
What type of enteritis is seen with winter dysentery?
catarrhal, non fatal
98
What kind of diarrhea is seen with E coli in calves and weeks from 3d to 3w?
secretory
99
What kind of e coli causes primarily osmotic diarrhea?
attaching and effacing colibacillosis in rabbits, pigs, calves, lambs and dogs
100
Where do crytosporidium parasites live?
under the apical cell membranes of gastric mucous cells, villous enterocytes (not in cytoplasm)
101
When are calves and piglets susceptible to rotavirus?
calves less than 1 week
| pigs less than 6 weeks
102
Which viral infection only infects the upper 2/3 of intestinal villi?
rotavirus
103
How is coronavirus different from rotavirus?
corona destroys almost ALL enterocytes, recovery is longer
104
What species is coronavirus worst in?
pigs (highly contagious, devestating in ppigs less than 10ds)
105
What kind of virus is Porcine Epidemic Diarrhea virus?
coronavirus
106
What is highly diagnostic of BVDV manifesting as GI problems?
infection and necrosis with deep ulceration of lymphoid cells in peyers patches
107
Where do trichostrongyles live?
burrow into crypts and reside beneath crypt epithelium but do not penetrate into lamina propria in ruminants
108
What kind of diet change predisposes animals to clostridial diarrhea?
from low carb to high carb
109
What part of the intestine does clostridium perfringens infect?
necrosis of epithelium AND underlying lamina propria
110
What are the 6 diseases that cause mostly hemorrhagic diarrhea?
```
clostridial diarrheas (perfringens, difficile, piliforme)
salmonella
potomac horse fever
brachyspira colitis
salmon poisoning
coccidiosis
```
111
What are the 4 diseases that cause granulomatous/pyogranulomatous enterocolitis?
mycobacterium paratuberculosis
rhodococcus
histoplasmal enterocolitis
helminth infections
112
What are the 2 diseases that can cause proliferation of mucosal epithelium in GI tract?
lawsonia enteritis in pigs (campy in other species)
| eimeria in goats and sheep
113
What are the 2 diseases that cause peritonitis?
```
FIP
glassers disease (haemophilus, also myco or strep)
```
114
What are the CS of clostridial diarrheas?
found dead
115
What type of clostridium perfringens causes hemorrhagic gastroenteritis in young small and toy breed dogs?
Type E
116
What bacteria causes tyzzers disease?
clostridium piliforme
117
What other lesions are associated with clostridium pilliforme besides hemorrhagic enteritis?
hepatic necrosis
118
What is the causitive agent of Colitis X in horses and hemorrhagic gastroenteritis in dogs and cats?
clostridium difficile (not proven)
119
What is the ddx of Colitis X in horses?
potomac horse fever or salmonella
120
What makes salmonella so devestating?
invades through intestinal lining --> goes septic
121
What is the cause of "button" ulcers in pigs?
chronic enteric form of salmonella
122
What other 2 pathogens must be present for brachyspira hyodysenteriae to cause severe disease?
fusobacterium necrophorum and bacteroides vulgatus
123
What breeds get canine histiocytic ulcerative colitis? What is it caused by?
young boxer dogs
| e. coli
124
What are the lesions associated with canine histiocytic ulcerative colitis?
mesenteric LN are enlarged and infiltrated by macros
| raised ulcerated nodules
125
What are the gross lesions of paratuberculosis?
colon and cecum become thickened with a "rugose" wrinkled mucosa
126
What fungus can cause pyogranulomatous enterocolitis in dogs?
histoplasma
127
What are the hookworms that cause the most damage in each species?
dog - anclyostoma and uncinaria
bunostomum - cattle
pigs - globocephalus
128
What parasite burrows into the wall of the cecum or colon and produces necrohemorrhagic typhlocolitis?
whipworms (trichuris)
129
What 3 bacteria can cause fibrinous peritonitis in pigs?
haemophilus suis
mycoplasma hyorhinis
strep suis
130
What is the most common tumor in the GI tract?
lymphoma
131
Term for a round solid elevated lesion >1 cm in diameter
nodule
132
Term for a small fluid filled cavity WITHIN the epidermis or directly beneath the epidermis?
vesicle
133
Vesicle that is >0.5 cm
bulla
134
Term for vesicle full of neutros or eos
pustule
135
Term for scales/crusts arranged in circular spreading patches, associated with staph hypersensitivity.
epidermal collarettes
136
Term for multiple crusts piled on top of one another, suggestive of repetitive bouts of inflammation.
vegetations
137
Term for vertical defect that only expands through epidermis
excoriation
138
Term for retention of nuclei in cornified cells reflecting incomplete keratnization.
parakeratotic hyperkeratosis
139
Term for excessive cells have cornified completely and lack nuclei.
orthokeratotic hyperkeratosis
140
Term for intercellular edema that seperates epidermal cells so they are only conncted at bridges.
spongiosis
141
Term for slit like spaces within epidermis that run parallel to dermal-epidermal jxn.
clefts
142
What does collagen degeneration look like?
collagen fibers become hyalinized, frayed, flame figures
| seen with eosinophilic dermatitis
143
Term for melanophages and loss of pigment from skin.
pigmentary incontinence (leukoderma)
144
Term for a narrow space of dermis beneath epidermis prominently seperating it from an underlying dermal lesion.
grenz zone
145
What neoplasms are grenz zones seen in?
mast cell tumors
lymphomas
also deep granulomatous lesions
146
What 3 nutritional disorders/metabolic disorders cause hyperkeratosis?
vit A deficiency
hypothyrodism
hyperadrenocorticism
147
What nutrional deficiency causes parakeratosis?
zinc deficiency
148
What is dyskeratosis mostly suggestive of?
neoplastic transformation
149
Type of integument hyperplasia where ridges of hyperplastic epithelium extend upward and downward/
papilliform
150
Type of integument hyperplasia where deep irregular extensions of epidermis into dermis but normal differeniation is maintained.
Pseudoepithleiomatous (pre cancer)
151
What diseases are "regular" epithelial hyperplasia associated with?
psoriatic types of dz (cells building up on top)
152
What are the most common causes of epidermal atrophy?
hormonal imbalances - hyperadrenocorticocism and hypothyroidism
153
What is the sequence of events of type 2 hypersensitivity in skin? (auto immune disorders)
clefts -->fluid filled vesciles --> pustules -->rupture -->encrusted erosions -->become 2ndary infected
154
What auto immune disease in the skin is where vesciles form subcorneal?
pemphigus foliaceus
155
Where do vesicles form in pemphigus vulgaris?
just above stratum basale
156
Where do vesicles form in bullous pemphigoid, lupus, and 2nd degree thermal burns?
beneath stratum basale w/ sloughing of entire epidermis
157
What types of diseaes cause vasculitis in the upper half of the dermis?
type 3 hypersensitivity --> drugs, sepsis, rickettsia, photosensitization
158
What types of diseases are associated with perivascular inflammation resulting in edema?
localized disease --> allergic reactions
159
What type of skin inflammatory pattern is where both superficial dermis and epidermis are involved with plaque like accumulations of inflammatory cells?
interface
160
What 2 diseases are associated with interface skin inflammation?
lupus eryhematosis and drug eruption
161
Term for localized increase in star type collagen with abnormal development of trapped hair follicles and adnexal glands.
fibroadnexel dysplasia
162
Type of folliculitis where inflammation is confined to the stroma surrounding the follicle.
perifolliculitis
163
Type of folliculitis where there is exocytosis of leukocytes into the follicular wall.
mural folliculitis
164
Type of folliculitis where inflammatory cells are in the follicle lumen.
luminal folliculitis
165
Type of folliculitis where the wall of the follicle is breached by inflammatory cells.
furunculosis
166
Term for multiple furuncles coalescing into pustular lesions.
carbuncle
167
What is needed for a dermatophyte to cause a granulomatous folliculitis pattern?
type IV hypersensitivity component
168
Where do most epithelial tumors in dogs and cats stem from?
adnexal origin
169
What location are squamous cell carcinomas most likely to metastasize from?
on the digit near the claw or in the mouth
170
What can be confused with sebaceous adenomas in older wire haired breeds?
sebaceous hyperplasia
171
What is the most common follicular neoplasm in the dog?
infundibular keratnizing keratoacanthoma
172
What is the most common follicular neoplasm in the cat?
trichoblastoma
173
What is the most common soft tissue sarcoma in the dog?
hemangiopericytomas - wrap like onion skin around blood vessels
174
What is the most common soft tissue sarcoma in the cat?
fibrosarcoma
175
Term for tumor like lesion of skin involving fibroblasts and epidermis. Common in horse.
sarcoid
176
What are the four "big" round cell tumors to rule out when assessing a neoplasm?
mast cell tumor
histiocytoma
lymphoma
melanoma
177
When do histiocytomas become much more less likely to regress in dogs?
dogs over 5 years
178
What are the two behaviors of melanomas histiologically?
form "nest" or jigsaw like clusters
| push into and invade epidermis or follicle (junctional activity)
179
What are 3 causes of death in acute renal failure?
hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis, pulmonary edema
180
What are clinical/biochemical signs of chronic renal failure?
polyuria
hyponatremia and hypochloremia
hyperkalemia in cats
181
What electrolyte tends to be consistent between species when there is renal failure?
phosphorus
182
What electrolytes tend to vary between species with renal failure?
potassium and calcium
183
Which 2 species get hypokalemia in chronic renal failure?
cats and cows
184
What species gets hyperkalemia during chronic renal failure?
horses
185
What 2 species get hyperkalemia in post renal obstruction?
cats and foals
186
What are the 2 mechanisms of tissue damage when there is uremia?
endothelial damage -->vasculitis --> infarction
| urea -->ammonia -->caustic -->ulceration
187
What are the 4 clinical signs of uremia?
uremic grastropathy (dogs and cats)
ulcerative stomatitis
vomiting
soft tissue mineralization
188
What are 2 critcial proteins lost from glomerulus when filtration barrier is damaged? What are sequelae?
albumin - edema
| Antithrombin 3 - procoagulant state
189
What are the 4 components of nephrotic syndrome?
proteinuria, hypoproteinemia, edema, hypercholesterolemia
190
What are the acute and chronic lesions of glomerulitis?
```
acute = red or white pinpoints in cortex
chronic = pitted
```
191
What is the mechanism for systemic amyloidosis?
chronic inflammation --> acute phase amyloid A --> cleavage -->fibrils and deposited
192
What are the most common types of glomerulonephritis in cat, horse, pig and dog?
cat - membranous
horses and pigs - proliferative
dogs - membranoproliferative
193
How is glomerulonephritis diagnosed?
transmission electron microscopy
194
What specific dzs lead to glomerulonephritis?
Dog: lympe, HW, lupus, IMHA
Cats - FIP
Horses - strep
195
What do hyaline and granular casts indicate respectively?
hyaline - glomerulitis
| granular - renal epeithelium necrosis
196
What are some common renal tubular toxins?
```
heavy metals - lead, mercury
mycotoxins
drugs - aminoglycs, doxorub
cholecalciferol
ethylene glycol
pet food - melamine/cyanuric acid
oxalates
```
197
What serum abnormalities are present with ethylene glyco toxicity?
serum hyperosomlality and metabolic acidosis
198
How can you rule out which pigment is causing red urine?
myoglobin - plasma is clear
199
What is the pathogenesis of renal papillary necrosis with NSAIDS in horses?
inhibit Cox1,2 --> inhibit prostacyclin -->vasoconstriction of renal -->ischemia -->necrosis
200
What is the route of infectious organisms to cause glomerulitis and tubulointerstitial nephritis?
hematogenous
201
What is the route of infectious organisms to cause pyelonephritis?
ascending bacterial
202
What does acute tubulointerstial nephritis look like?
hypertrophy of epithelium with influx of plasma cells
203
What does acute pyelonephritis look like histologically?
renal crest and medulla are necrotic with hemorrhage and inflammation that radiates up to cortex
204
What are the 2 agents associated with glomerulritis?
actinobacillus equuli
| erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
205
What are 2 agents associated with tubulointerstitial nephrits?
lepto
| e. coli in cows
206
What 3 agents are associated with pyelonephritis?
e coli
staph
c. renale (cows)
207
What is the most common cause of white spots in calf kidney?
e. coli, little significance (bacteremia)
208
What are 3 causes of a kidney looking small grossly?
progressive juvenile nephropathy
fibrosis
renal dysplasia
209
When are renal cysts clinically significant?
if compromised renal function in polycystic kidneys
210
What are the 3 MOA of renal cysts.
either obstruction of nephron with dilation or defective BM that allows for tubular dilation or focal tubular epithelial hyperplasia
211
What 2 species is lymphoma found commonly in the kidney?
cows and cats
212
What are 2 MOA of hydronephrosis?
blockage of ureter
| ascending infection
213
What are 2 possible gross appearances of the bladder in chronic cystitis cases?
follicular cystitis - many white raised mucosal nodules surrounded by red rim
polypoid cystitis - polypoid mucosal proliferation
214
What is the most common urinary bladder tumor in the dog?
TCC
215
Term for dorsal deviation of spinal cord.
kyphosis
216
Term for S shaped spinal cord
scoliosis
217
Term for endochondral ossification at ectopic site.
exostosis
218
Term for dachsund shaped dog
chondrodysplasia
219
Term for osteoblast insufficiency
osteoporosis
220
Term for too little mineralized osteoid in immature animal.
rickets
221
Term for increased amount of bone.
osteosclerosis
222
Term for isolated avascular, non viable bone fragment
sequestrum
223
What is the term for reactive tissues surrounding a sequestrum?
involucrum
224
What bone deformity is related to a space occupying lesion in the thorax or abdominal cavity?
hypertrophic osteopathy
225
Term for polishing of bone after the cartilage has worn down.
eburnation
226
Term for infection of bone and the marrow/periosteum.
osteomyelitis
227
What bone lesion does brucella cause?
diskospondylitis - looks like IVDD
228
Term for fibrovascular tissues arising from synovium and covering articular surface.
pannus
229
What are the 3 different types of myopathies
Vit E/selenium deficiency
monensin (ca overload)
exertional
230
What are the 3 myositis that are caused by clostridium?
gas gangrene
malignant edema
blackleg
231
Term for eyeball has shrunk and become disorganized.
phthisis bulbi
232
What are the 3 sequelae of keratitis?
vascularization, scarring
descmetocele
uveitis
233
Term for chronic supefcial keratitis.
canine pannus
234
What are the 2 types of retina degeneration?
Progressive - rod-cone degeneration
| central - retinal pigment epithelial dystrophy
235
What disease in cats is caused by injury to the lens?
post traumatic sarcoma
