Midterm Lezmi Flashcards

1
Q

Structure that will become future female genital tract.

A

Paramesonephric duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Structure that will become future male genital tract

A

Mesonephric duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Term for the chromosomic sex is different than phenotype

A

Sex reversal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Term for animal with ambigious genitialia and has both gonadal tissues present

A

hermaphrodism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Term for animal that has ambigious genitalia but only a single type of gonadal tissue

A

pseudohermaphrodism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What species most commonly gets ovarian hypoplasia?

A

cows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What species most commonly gets periovarian cysts? What are they?

A

mares, remnants of embryonic ducts (hydatids)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What type of ovarian cysts do mares get?

A

epithelial inclusion cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What 2 type of cysts is most common in cows and sows?

A

crystic follicles - ovulation does not occur, cystic ovarian degeneration
cystic corpus luteum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the most common ovarian neoplasm in large animals?

A

granulosa cell tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What causes endometrial hyperplasia? What species?

A

chronic estrogen stimulation - cow, ewe, sow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What can happen to bitch uterus with progesterone production after estrus?

A

cystic endometrial hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Term for endometrium in the myometrium.

A

Adenomyosis (cow, bitch, queen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the most common agent of pyometra in the mare?

A

strep equi ssp. zooepidemicus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What species can get papillary adenomas/adenocarcinomas in the ovary?

A

dogs

bilateral, frequently metastasize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What causes endometritis in mares?

A

taylorella equigenitalis - reportable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the main cause of pyometra in dogs?

A

e coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What type of neoplasm in dogs utererus is curable by excising it?

A

fibromatous polyps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What species commonly gets vaginal prolapse? What is the cause?

A

swine - mycotoxic hyperestrogenism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What agent of cow mastitis can cause gangrenous mastitis and death?

A

staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the agent of “summer mastitis” or “holstein udder plague”?

A

arcanobacterium pyogenes –>suppurative mastitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What causes blue bag in sheep and goats?

A

mannheimia hemolytica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the 2 most common benign mammary gland neoplasms in dogs?

A

complex adenoma and benign mixed tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What percent of dog mammary neoplasms are benign vs malignant?

A

70% benign, 30% malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What percent of cat mammary neoplasms are malignant/benign?

A

malignant 80%, benign 20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the cotyledonary placenta made up of in ruminants?

A

placentome –> cotyledons of fetus and caruncles of dam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What species have “diffuse” placentas?

A

pigs and horses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are two incidental findings of a placenta?

A

amniotic plaques

hippomane - equids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What causes fetal mummification in the bitch?

A

herpes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What causes fetal mummification in cows?

A

BVB virus, tirchomoniasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the lesions seen in brucella abortion in cows?

A

thickening of intercotyledonary area, edema and fibrinecrotic inflammation, fetal pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is seen in neospora abortion in ruminants?

A

fetal encephaltitis, necrotizing placentitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is characteristic of toxoplasma abortion in sheep?

A

cotyledons have hundreds of white foci of necrosis

34
Q

What lesions are seen in herpes abortion in mares?

A

after 7 months, firm heavy lungs, gray foci in liver

35
Q

What cells are the supporting cells of the testical?

A

sertoli

36
Q

What cells produce testosterone in the testicle?

A

interstitial/leydig cells

37
Q

What species most get testicular atrophy?

A

bulls and boars

38
Q

What are causes of orchitis in the bull, ram, and boar?

A

bull and swine - brucella

ram - corynebacterium

39
Q

What are 2 causes of granulamatous orchitis>?

A

myco bovis and blastomyces

40
Q

What testicular tumor has a tan orange color and doesnt metastasize?

A

leydig cell tumor

41
Q

What testicular tumr has a white, firm appearance and causes feminization?

A

sertoli cell tumor

42
Q

What testicular tumor is gray, soft and has local invasiveness?

A

seminoma

43
Q

What species get mesothelioma tumors in the testis?

A

dogs and bulls

44
Q

What species get sperm granulomas in the epididymus?

A

dogs and rams, congenital

45
Q

What are causes of prostatitis in dogs?

A

e coli, proteus, brucella

46
Q

Term for dilation of pampiniform plexus. Happens in older rams.

A

varicoceles

47
Q

What species gets testicular torsion?

A

stallion

48
Q

Term for inflammation of glans penis?

A

balanitis

49
Q

What species gets transmissible genital papilloma?

A

swine, papillomavirus

50
Q

What viruses cause cerebellar hypoplasia?

A

parvo in cats, csf in swine, bvdv, border disease

51
Q

Term for lack of development of gray/white matter

A

Hydranencephaly

52
Q

What causes hydranencephaly in ruminants?

A

cows - bvd, akabane

sm ruminants - blue tongue, border, akabane

53
Q

What cells are most affected in hepatic encephalopathy?

A

astrocytes - swell and retract processes

54
Q

What age is colibacillosis seen in swine?

A

6-14 weeks

55
Q

What are the two types of water deprivation syndrome?

A

direct - excessive sodium (ruminants)

indirect - water dep followed by rehydration (pigs)

56
Q

What part of brain is most likely to be infarcted?

A

cerebral hemispheres

57
Q

What causes ischemic myelopathy?

A

fibrocartilage embolism, dog, cat, horse

58
Q

Term for axonal injury that induces swelling and degeneration of myelin sheet.

A

wallerian degeneration

59
Q

When is wallerian degeneration reversible?

A

if endoneurium is preserved

60
Q

What are the two types of traumatic myelomalacia?

A
vertebral instability (dynamic)
vertebral stenosis (static)
61
Q

What causes polioencephalomalacia?

A

vit b1 deficiency

62
Q

Where does vit b1 deficiency make a lesion in monogastrics? ruminants?

A

mono - midbrain

ruminants - cortical edema/necrosis

63
Q

What causes substantia nigra necrosis in horses?

A

nigro-pllidal encephalomalacia

64
Q

What causes leuoencephalomalacia in horses?

A

mycotoxin, alteration in sphingolipid metabolism

65
Q

What are some common causes of septicemic meningitis?

A

e coli for all species
foals - strep, salmonella
lam, calf - pasteurella/mannheimia, strep
pig - strep suis, haemophilus parasuis, salmonella
puppy - strep canis, bordetella, moraxella

66
Q

What are the 3 syndromes of listeriosis in ruminants?

A

infection of uterus –> abortions
septicemia with milliary visceral abscesses in neonates
encephalitis in adult animals

67
Q

What part of the brain does listeriosis affect?

A

cadual brainstem (medulla>midbrain>thalamus)

68
Q

What is the unique histologic pattern of listeriosis?

A

perivascular cuffing, microabscesses

69
Q

What causes thromboembolic meningoencephalitis in cattle?

A

histophilus somni

70
Q

What is the hallmark of TEME in cattle?

A

vasculitis with secondary thrmobosis

71
Q

What fungi are angiotropic and invade the brain?

A

aspergillosis and zygomycosis

72
Q

What lesions are seen with aspergillosis and zygomycosis in the brain?

A

fungal hyphae, microabscesses, thrombosis, vasculitis

73
Q

What is typical in cryptococcal meningoencephalitis?

A

cystic granulamatous lesions

74
Q

What will be seen in blastomyces infection in the brain?

A

yeasts

75
Q

What lesions are seen in canine distemper infections in the brain?

A

intranuclear inclusions in astrocytes and demyelination

76
Q

What lesions are seen in maedi/visna infections?

A

lymphohistiocytic + marked demyelination in white matter

77
Q

What types of dogs get granulomatous meningioencephalitis?

A

young to middle aged small breeds

78
Q

What happens in GME in dogs?

A

accumulation of mononuclear cells around BV, marked glial rxn

79
Q

What are the three forms of GME in dogs?

A

disseminated - acute
focal form - solitary mass in cerebrothalamic region
ocular form - acute, visual loss

80
Q

What neoplasia in the brain has an infiltrative pattern leading to diffuse enlargement?

A

astrocytomas

81
Q

Where can choroid plexus tumors form?

A

at level of lateral and fourth ventricles

82
Q

What type of spinal cord tumor resembles a kidney?

A

thoracolumbar spinal cord tumor - rare in large breed dogs