Final: all old exam questions Flashcards by Emma Pappas

what is the mordant used in gram stain

crystal violet
safranin
ethanol
congo red
none

none

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what method would you use to find the number of viable bacteria in a liquid culture

streak plating
gram stain
dilution
pipetting
none

dilution

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which predates the germ theory

jenners vaccine
ID of cause of mad cow disease
semmelweis childbed fever
ID of HIV and AIDS
all

jenner

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which is only found in gram positive bacteria

pentaglycine crosslinkers
peptidoglycan
chitin
braums lipoprotein
none

pentaglycine crosslinkers

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when is myxobacterial fruiting bodies formed

attacking prey
anaerobic
N2 rich environment
starving
none

starving

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which is present in all bacteria

pili
fimbriae
flagella
LPS
none

non

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what disease can be prevented by water purification

HIV
malaria
tuberculosis
all
none

none

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what agent is responsible for malaria

DNA virus
helminth
fungus
protozoan
none

protozoan

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which has LPS in its outer membrane

plasmodium falciparum
staphylococcus aureus
clostridium tetani
pseudomonas aeruginosa
all

pseudomonas aeruginosa`

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peptidoglycan of G- bacteria caintains what diamino acid

meso-diaminopimelic acid
dilysine
diadenine
D-alanine-D-alanine
none

meso-diaminopimelic acid

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spirochete flagella

are wrapped around the cell body between two membranes
are the same as pili
are in a clump at one end of the cell
are distributed around the cell
none

are wrapped around the cell body between two membranes

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cryo-electron tomography is good for

exopolysaccharides
individual crystallized proteins
bones
flagella
none

flagella

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which is only treatable with a long course of antibiotics

mycobacterium tuberculosis
yersinia pestis
staphylococcus aureus
vaccinia virus
none

mycobacterium tuberculosis

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which is a spirillum

e. coli
clostridium botullinum
bacillus subtilis
heliobacter pylori
non

heliobacter pylori

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who created the postulates

ignaz semmelweis
louis pasteur
alexander flemming
fanny hesse
none

none

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what is the term for bacteria that can be different shapes

pleitrophic
pleomorphic
plastic
shapeshifting
none

pleomorphic

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what is the name of the molecule involved in moving peptidoglycan subunits across the membrane

glycerol
sphingomyelin
sialic acid
bactoprenol
none

bactoprenol

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what process in yeast is responsible for bread rising

fermentation
respiration
nitrogen fixation
photosynthesis
none

respiration

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what diseas was john snow trying to stop

childbed fever
monkeypox
smallpox
cholera
syphilis

cholera

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what is another name for the exopolysaccharide matrix in pathogens

LPS
slime capsule
LTA
glycolayer
none

slime capsule

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which is a good target for antibiotics

cell memrbane
splicing
bioluminescence
peptidoglycan synthesis
all

peptidoglycan synthesis

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what is the term for bacteria growing on a surface embedded in matrix

biocrust
biolayer
biology
biofilm
none

biofilm

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what is the difference between pili and fimbriae

pili are made from carbs, fimbriae proteins
pili are for conjugation, fim for motility
fim are typically larger and more common
fim are involved in urogenital pathogen attachment
none

fim are involved in urogenital pathogen attachment

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which of these flagellar arrangements is a clump at one end of the cell

monotrichous
peritrichous
amphitrichous
lophotrichous
none

lophotrichous

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what demonstrates that DNA is the genetic material flagella capsule secretion complexes LPS none

capsule

which is an example of active transport movement of sodium ions along their gradient pumping K+ across membrane using ATP aquaporins ink spreading in a beaker of water none

pumping K+ across membrane using ATP

why is turgor pressure a concern for bacteria water will flow into cells under most conditions water is toxic membranes are fragile mechanoreceptors are fragile and will lead to apoptosis all

water will flow into cells under most condition

which is the toxic part of LPS oligosaccharide Lipid A core oligosaccharide brauns lipoprotein the whole thing

Lipid A

what molecule anchors peptidoglycan to G+ cell membrane Lipoteichoic acid L-alanine meso-diaminopimelicacid pentaglycine none

lipoteichoic acid

what is the space between two membranes in G- bacteria perimeter space peritrichous space perineum space periplasmic space none

periplasmic space

what is the enzyme that cross links peptidoglycan D-ala D-ala transpeptidase pentaglycine ligase diaminopimelic acid transacetylase beta-galactidase none

D-ala D-ala transpeptidase

what is the column used to study soil sedements ehrlich column metchnikoff column pasteur column winogradsky column none

winogradsky column

which global disease has dropped massively in the last 20 years diarrheal smallpox gonorrhea covid none

diarrheal

which bacteria would be pink in a gram stain bacillus anthracis neisseria gonorrhea trypanosoma cruzi enterococcus faecalis all

neiserria gonorrheae

what energy capture and storage process is based on the movement of protons across a membrane chemotaxis chemoautotrophy stereochemistry chemiosmosis none

chemiosmosis

what two words form the basis for the word vaccination

vaccinia and variolation

describe the distribution in hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions on the transmembrane of a channel protein

phobic is on one side w/ phobic tails and philic is on both sides

what is one unique thing about mad cow disease

results from a prion

what disease spreads through culex mosquitos and affects birds

west-nile encephalitis

what secretion system is similar in mechanism to flagellar motility

type 3 secretion

what bacteria makes alot of antibiotics

streptomyces

what bacterium causes lyme disease

borrelia burgdorferi

what protein in HIV converts RNA to DNA

reverse transcriptase

what is one bacterium and one virus that causes diarrheal disease

e. coli and rotavirus

what protozoan is spread by anopheles mosquitos

malaria, plasmodia

which is present in 50% of bacterial cell carbon phosphorus oxygen nitrogen none

carbon

a bacterium only growing when oxygen is present obligate aerobe facultative anaerobe aerotolerant anaerobe microaerophile onligate anaerobe

obligate aerobe

which is a quorum sensing signal polypeptide c-di-GMP acyl homoserine actinide n-acetyl-glucosamine none

none

which is an electron donor during growth oxidized reduced hydroxylated lysed none

oxidized

the mitochondria is most likely the result of endosymbiosis by a virus cyanobacterium spirochete alpha-proteobacterium none

alpha-proteobacterium

what type of photosynthesis produces less energy oxygenic non-cyclic carbonic cyclic

cyclic

which is more reduced, pyruvate or fructose-biphosphate same fructose pyruvate depends on e- acceptor depends on pH

fructose

bacteria can be involved in the nitrogen cycle by oxidizing ammonium fixing N2 gas from atmosphere reducing nitrite reducing nitrate all

all

sulfate an nitrate can cycle through an environment can be electron donors can be electron acceptors can be limiting factors for growth all

can be electron acceptors

which forms a stalked and swarmer cell e. coli staphylococcus aureus caulobacter crescentus pseudomonas aeruginosa none

caulobacter crescentus

the process of fermentation can be used to produce lactose can create a proton gradient is used industrially to produce valuable chemicals can result in the formation of sodium hydroxide all

is used industrially

phase of bacterial growth where the rate of growth is the same as rate of death log exponential lag stationary none

stationary

which is a name for a type of glycolysis pathway entner-douderoff elon-esterhazy egon-muskberger calvin-benson none

entner-douderoff

what is the name of a compound in the membrane that is involved in electron transport cytochrome succinate pyruvate siderophore none

cytochrome

microbes that have bacteriorhodopsin acetogens extremophiles/halophiles methanogens halogens

extremophiles/halophiles

fossils that are though to be first evidence of life on earth lithotrophs stalagmites hot springs stalactites none

none

what temp would you expect to find a hyperthermophile 35 4 60 105 37

105

what is the name of an enzyme that is typically found in all bacteria except obligate anaerobes superoxide dismutase sulfatase phosphatase catalase none

superoxide dismutase

at what pH would a neutrophile be 2 4 7 9 10

what is shelfords law of tolerance energy can neither be created nor destroyed chance favors the prepared mind the limiting nutrient in an environment will determine total biomass outside certain physical limits, microbes will not grow no matter the available nutrients every action has an equal and opposite reaction

outside certain physical limits, microbes will not grow no matter the available nutrients

a bacterium that uses glucose as a a source of electrons and sulfate as an electron acceptor would be called an aerobic lithotroph an aerobic heterotroph an aerobic photoautotroph an aerobic heterotroph none

an aerobic heterotroph

a chemostat can allow you to study death phase maintenance energy competition as the culture runs out of nutrients growth at high flow rates none

maintenance energy

what type of environmental stress do compatible solutes help bacteria deal with osmolarity turbidity heat hypotonicity none

osmolarity

what eukaryotic protein is FtsZ similar to beta-galactosidase tubulin chaperone protein filamentous temperature sensitive none

tubulin

which quorum sensing signal cannot pass through the membrane and binds to a receptor on the surface cAMP peptide pheromone LuxR acyl-homoserinelactone 16S rRNA

peptide pheromone

what is the gradient that is formed that is used to generate ATP ETC krebs cycle proton motive force mitochondria none

proton motive force

what are the 3 domains of life

archaea, bacteria, eukarya

if Na+ is transported into the cell against its gradient by a protein containing an ATP-binding cassette this would be termed active symport active antiport facilitated diffusion active uniport none

active uniport

which is an example of an essential trace mineral Mg2+ glucose H+ OH- none

Mg2+

which is an example of fermentation end product butanediol hydrogen sulfide sulfate lead all

butanediol

which is the agent of crown gall disease pseudomonas variovorax agrobacterium staphylococcus none

agrobacterium

which is a phenotype controlled by quorum sensing forming a swarmer cell binary fission horizontal gene transfer all none

horizontal gene transfer

which is involved in scavenging iron from the environment fimbriae siderophore aquaporins cytochromes none

siderophores

which would be the growth measurement method we would use if we were reporting colony forming units plate counting chemostat growth microscopic analysis turbidity measurement none

plate counting

which has remarkable radiation resistance photobacterium gammi deinococcus radiodurans bacillus radiotolerans thermus aquaticus plasmodium falciparum

deinococcus radiodurans

example of functional inclusion

example of obligate anaerobe

clostridium botulinum

capnophile

an organism that thrives in high CO2 concentrations

type of staphylococcus epidermis infection in hospitalized patients

heart infection

two ways microbes fix carbon

photosynthesis chemosynthesis

term for a cell that has stopped growing in a culture but still shows signs of life

viable but not culturable

what factor prevents bacteria from growing in honey

low water availability

term for bacteria that uses light for energy, needs organic carbon, and grows at pH 10.5

photoheteroalkalotroph

protein in the ETC that needs iron

complex 1 (NADH-CoQ reductase)

which might be in the genome of a bacterium a single circular chromosome a single mRNA a chromium a plastid all

circular chromosome

which is true about rolling circle DNA replication okazaki fragments generated during this process nucleotides are added to the 3' end this process involves recombination between strands this process is used to replicate plasmids in some spirochetes none

nucleotides are added to the 3' end

a mutation that makes a bacterium able to grow using acetate as a sole carbon source positive selection direct selection indirect selection t-t dimers none

direct selection

the process of catabolite repression is what leads to transcription attenuation sigma factor binding homologous recombination diauxic growth none

diauxic growth

a plasmid can move from one cell to another directly by transposition transduction transformation transcription none

none (conjugation)

an experiment generating lots of data on txn of all genes in the genome under different conditions cna tell you how many transcripts each cell makes can be used to understand continuous gene expression over time can identify transcripts specifically upregulated under certain conditions all none

can identify transcripts specifically upregulated under certain conditions

a gene can be mapped using generalized transduction Hfr conjugation DNA microarray all none

Hfr conjugation

the temp lambda phage has 48kb genome can only undergo lytic cycle has an RNA genome can be used for generalized transduction none

has 48kb genome

AraC protein is an inducer bound to DNA when bound to arabinose a sigma factor controlled by quorum sensing a co-repressor

bound to DNA when bound to arabinose

griffith experiment used smooth and rough colony variants used variation in pnuemococcal virulence in mice to demonstrate transformation was followed up by avery, mcleod, and mccarty to show dna was the transformative factor all none

all

a point mutation can be caused by an error by the DNA polymerase a chemical that binds to the membrane nitrogen deprivation insertion of a transposable element all

an error by the DNA polymerase

which of these varies inversely with glucose in the cell cATP c-di-GMP GAHL cAMP none

cAMP

the lac operon is regulated based on the levels of glucose and lactose mannose and rhamnose arabinose and tryptophan glucose and rhamnose none

glucose and lactose

an alternative sigma factor determines what genes the ribosome will transcribe binds to DNA non-specifically forms stem loop structures that terminate txn can be used to control a region all

can be used to control a region

which is true of chromosomal DNA replication requires the DNA to be unwound requires RNA primers to initiate replication can be initiated in both directions from the origin adds nucleotides to the 3' end all

all

the lagging strand of DNA replication is characterized by the formation of orwin fragments origin fragments origami fragments okeechobee fragments none

none

the cyclic nucleotide c-di-GMP is made by an enzyme called adenylate cyclase is used to control the switch between swarming and biofilm is a quorum sensing signal is part of a two component system none

is used to control the switch between swarming and biofilm

the promoter for the lac operon controls the expression of lac ABC is repressed by LacI constitutive always repressed none

none

the -35 sequence and the -10 sequence are sites that the ____ can bind sigma factor repressor cap protein rho ribosome

sigma factor

what are some examples of phenotypes that are regulated by quorum sensing virulence convergence immunofluorescence all none

virulence

what are two quorum sensing systems that control virulence in pseudomonas aeruginosa LasR/Las! and RhlA/RhlB TraR/TraI and LacR/LacI TrpR/TrpI and Lac R/LacI LasR/LasI and RhlR/RhlI none

LasR/LasI and RhlR/RhlI

the ratio of ATP to ADP is used to control what phenotypic response in bacillus biofilm formation sugar utilization DNA repair virulence all

all

which of these is an example of a two-component system for signal transduction a txn factor and a gene it regulates a sigma factor and the RNA polymerase holoenzyme the ribosome and RNA polymerase an AHL and a response regulator none

none

what is the purpose of the ames test identify histidine auxotrophs demonstrate conjugation identify potential pathogens demonstrate power of positive selection none

none

reason that txn attenuation in the trp operon can only happen in bacteria has a 5' 7-methyl-G cap bacterial transcripts contains exons and introns the bacterial genes can be expressed a a polyprotein bacterial genes can be translated while they are being transcribed all

bacterial genes can be translated while they are being transcribed

what protein controls whether lambda phage goes into the lytic cycle ribosomes adenylate cyclase and LacI LasR and LasI cro and cI none

cro and cI

the trp operon is different from the lac operon bc its repressor only binds in the presence of its co-repressor it is a biosynthetic operon rather than a catabolic one the secondary structure of the mRNA is important it does not involve catabolite repression all

all

the F plasmid encodes the pilus necessary for conjugation cna be integrated into the genome can only be mobilized into cells that dont already contain it is present in naturally occurring E. Coli all

all

process of generalized transduction happens when a temperate phage degrades the host genome can be used to clone a gene can be performed using a lambda phage can package random pieces of the host genome all

can package random pieces of the host genome

the U-tube experiment showed that e. coli prototrophs were recovered by conjugation allowed investigators to distinguish between conjugation and transduction was proof that streaming video is the future of entertainment all non

showed that e. coli prototrophs were recovered by conjugation

what is the purpose of the bacterial or yeast two hybrid system to make chimeric proteins to make plasmids to show that two proteins bind together to show that two proteins induce gene expression none

to show that two proteins bind together

a cosmid is a plasmid from space a bacteriophage with an RNA genome a vector derived from T4 phage a naturally occurring transposable element none

non

what bacteria uses quorum sensing to control virulence in infecting plants and causing crown gall disease e. coli agrobacterium tumefaciens pseudomonas aeruginosa bacillus subtilis none

agrobacterium tumefaciens

what is the difference between a plasmid and a chromosome mode of replication size presence of essential genes presence of transposons none

presence of essential genes

in the peptide pheromone system quorum sensing system, what happens to the response regulator to allow it to activate gene expression it gets cleaved by a protease it binds to cAMP it binds to c-di-GMP it gets phosphorylated none

phosphorylated

what are two techniques for looking at total transcriptional activity and total proteins

quantitatively and westernblot/ELISA

what two sites in the arabinose promoter upstream sequence is the AraC protein bound to when arabinose is absent

O2 and I1 half sites

what two things must be true in order for the trp operon genes to be fully transcribed

low tryptophan levels and 2:3 configuration?

what protein has the RNA degrading activity necessary for removing RNA primers from the lagging strand

DNA polymerase 1

what are two main virulence factors that pseudomonas aeruginosa controls with quorum sensing

elastase in LasR rhamnolipids in RhIR

what type of pilus is used by bacillus subtilis during natural competence

type IV pilus

what two ways can a transposon alter the genotype of a host

change in position insert into introns/exons

the alternative complement activation pathway is triggered by antibodies binding to a bacterial surface pollen grains MHC class II factors B, D, P in the serum binding to a bacterium none

factors B, D, P in the serum binding to a bacterium

which type of MHC is on all nucleated cells TLR class 2 CD3 class 1 none

class 1

which is a part of innate immunity lysozyme antimicrobial peptides MAC oil from sebacious glands all

all

what do eosinophiles recognize antibodies bound to the surface of a protozoan or worm mhc class 1 acid dye caspase none

antibodies bound to the surface of a protozoan or worm

which chain of antibody only undergoes VJ recombination heavy chain light chain alpha chain beta chain none

light chain

which antibody type is present as a pentamer IgM IgD IgE IgA IgG

IgM

example of a resident macrophage dendritic cell monocyte PMN gametophore none

none

process for generating different specificities of antibody on the surface of a mature naive B-cell V(D)J recombination antigen recognition TLR activation isotype switching none

V(D)J recombination

example of a PAMP peptide antigen presented on MHC1 LPS IL-2 pollen none

IL-2

which opsonins would be recognized by the Fc receptor on macrophages C3b IgG C5a IgD none

IgG

antibodies that are found on the surface of plasma cells are IgA and IgG D and M A and E A and M none

none

cell that targets the loss of the major histocompatibility complex LGL/NK cell PMN eosinophil mast cell none

LGL/NK cell

the part of the antigen that an antibody binds to is called the paranoid paranaut episode epitope none

epitope

t-cells start developing in the _____ and complete their development into a naive mature T-cell in the ____ blood, bone marrow thymus, blood bone marrow, lymph node bone marrow, thymus none

bone marrow, thymus

what type of WBC is present in the largest amounts in blood neutrophil erythrocyte megakaryocyte eosinophil b-cell

neutrophil

what type of cytokine would be associated with innate immunity rather than adaptive interferon alpha IL-2 interferon gamma IL-4 none

interferon alpha

the normal flora of the human body are transient include potential opportunistic pathogens have very limited diversity and variation are all gram positive all

include potential opportunistic pathogens

an opportunistic pathogen can cause a severe disease state when someone is immune compromised someone suffers a serious burn the pathogen cross the blood brain barrier the patient has HIV all

all

what disease caused people to get sick after hiking in the US lyme disease HIV cholera malaria all

lyme disease

what are three ways to initiate complement activation classical, alternative, lectin ontogeny, phylogeny, taxonomy epidemiology, etiology, pathology opsonization, membrane attack, inflammation none

classical, alternative, lectin

example of a professional antigen presenting cell osteoblast eosinophil fibroblast dendritic cell all

dendritic cell

which is true of class 1 MHC present on all nucleated cells bound to beta-2-microglobulin presents antigens via endogenous pathway presents peptide antigens to cytotoxic t-cells all

all

two antibodies that are present as multimers IgA and IgG M and D D and E M and A A and E

M and A`

cytokine that is the T-cell autocrine growth factor IL-2 interferon gamma IL-6 IL-4 none

IL-2

phagocytic cell that is first on the scene at a wound NK cell macrophage monocyte PMN megakaryocyte

PMN

what molecule is produced by Th2 cell to promote b-cell activation TNF-alpha IL-1 interferon alpha/beta IL-4 interferon gamma

IL-4

what process is necessary for t-cell activation to occur costimulation cytotoxic t-cell activation t-cell help inflammation none

costimulation

which is a portal of entry for staphylococcus aureus skin eye GI tract respiratory tract all

all

e. coli binds to host epithelial cells using protein superoxide dismutase intimin chitin beta galactosidase IL-2

intimin

where is protein A found on the surface of e. coli in the blood of infected patients secreted by staph aureus in the alternative complement activation pathway none

non

the capsule is an important virulence factor for bacillus anthracis e. coli clostridium botulinum treponema denticola all

bacillus anthracis

which makes M proteins that protect against phagocytosis streptococcus pyogenes shigella fleneri neiserria gonorrhea staph aureus e. coli

streptococcus pyogenes

the mode of epidemiology where you would evaluate the results of a randomized control trial (RCT) is palliative descriptive analytical experimental none

experimental

what type of cell would have IgE bound to it and might stimulate an allergic response PMN macrophage CTL mast cell none

mast cell

what bacterium was spread by typhoid mary yersinia pestis pseudomonas aeruginosa rickettsia typhimurium listeria monocytogenes none

none

what antibody is produced at very high levels on the second exposure to an antigen

IgG

what is teh term for t-cell activation by Lanzavecchia

serial t-cell activation

what is one bacteria that can cause meningitis

streptococcus pneumoniae

two types of disulfide bonds that are important for antibody structure

interchain intrachain

what type of antibody would protect you against a virus that infected your respiratory epithelial cells

IgA antibody

what type of modification to proteins is important for the determination of microbial binding to surface receptors

post-translational modifications

infection you can get from staph aereus

skin infection

type of injury with life threatening infection with widespread removal of the skins barrier function

third degree burn

four hallmarks of inflammation

redness, pain, swelling, warmth

example of infectious disease caused by a natural disaster

cholera