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Semester 2 Dental Materials > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

the wearing away of a surface

A

abrasion

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2
Q

removing material by a shearing off process

A

cutting

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3
Q

involves the abrasion of a surface by an abrasive agent where cleaning is not abrasive and will not alter the surface characteristics of enamel or a restorative material

A

polishing

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4
Q

the process of producing the final shape and contour of a restoration

A

finishing

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5
Q

most common abrasive in prophy paste, natural glass, rich in silica

A

pumice

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6
Q

very fine abrasive

A

tin oxide

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7
Q

very common abrasive in dentistry

A

aluminum oxide

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8
Q

what are the types of abrasives

A

chalk, pumice, sand, tin oxide, and aluminum oxide

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9
Q

what are the factors affecting abrasion

A

hardness, size, shape, pressure, speed, and lubrication

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10
Q

abrasive must be harder than the surface

A

abrasive hardness

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11
Q

grit (fine/course), larger is more abrasive

A

abrasive size

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12
Q

spherically shaped particles are less abrasive than irregularly shaped particles

A

abrasive shape

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13
Q

more pressure =

A

more abrasion

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14
Q

rate at which device is rotating

A

abrasion speed

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15
Q

reduces abrasion, but cuts down on heat; mixing water and pumice to create a slurry

A

abrasion lubrication

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16
Q

what are the reasons for polishing

A
  1. reduce adhesion or corrosion
  2. make surface smooth
  3. increase esthetics
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17
Q

when choosing an abrasiveness, should you start with fine or course

A

start with course and move to fine

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18
Q

what can’t you use sodium bicarbonate air polishing on

A

sealants, composites, and glass ionomers

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19
Q

what type of air polishing should you use if sodium bicarbonate air polishing is contraindicated

A

aluminum trihydroxide

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20
Q

is aluminum trihydroxide harder or softer than sodium bicarbonate

A

harder

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21
Q

the contraindications for air polishing are ___________ restriction, _____________ disease, conditions that limit ___________ or ___________ like COPD, patient with _______________ infections, _________________ patients, and patients taking ___________, ______________, and ______________

A

sodium
respiratory
swallowing or breathing
communicable
immunocompromised
potassium, antidiuretics, and steroids

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22
Q

what are the steps for debonding ortho resin

A
  1. identify resin
  2. removal of bulk resin
  3. final finish
  4. evaluation
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23
Q

identifying the resin is necessary to avoid what

A

removing enamel

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24
Q

to identify a resin you should do what

A

dry the tooth with air

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25
Q

what is required to remove the bulk resin

A

handpiece and a carbide finishing bur

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26
Q

to remove bulk resein, what should you do frequently

A

rinse and dry

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27
Q

when doing the final finish of debonding ortho resin, you use _________ _________ __________ finishing cups and points at low speed over the surface where the resin had been

A

aluminum oxide composite

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28
Q

once the resin is fully removed, you need to polish each tooth with what

A

fine pumice slurry and prophy cup

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29
Q

a metal alloy of which one of the elements is mercury

A

amalgam

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30
Q

metals that are a combination of several elements

A

alloy

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31
Q

made by mixing approx. equal parts of powdered metal with liquid mercury

A

dental amalgam

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32
Q

the process of mixing the alloy and liquid mercury through use of an amalgamator/triturator

A

trituration

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33
Q

what are the properties of metal

A

highly thermal and electrical conductivity
ductility
opaque
luster
dissolves to some extent in H2O

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34
Q

bends without breaking

A

ductility

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35
Q

does not transmit light/appears white on x-rays

A

opaque

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36
Q

strongly reflects light and appears bright and shiny

A

luster

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37
Q

amalgams are held in place by mechanical retention achieved via _________ and grooves that are placed in the cavity prep with a bur

A

undercuts

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38
Q

causes setting expansion and increases strength and corrosion resistance

A

silver (Ag)

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39
Q

causes setting contraction and decreases strength and corrosion resistance

A

tin (Sn)

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40
Q

increases hardness and strength, increases setting expansion, reduces corrosion, decreases creep

A

copper (Cu)

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41
Q

reduces oxidation of the other metals in the alloy

A

zinc (Zn)

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42
Q

zinc containing alloy

A

> 0.01% zinc

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43
Q

zinc free alloy

A

< 0.01% zinc

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44
Q

rough, irregular particles don’t slide past each other easily; manufactured by milling an ingot of alloy; requires more mercury leading to inferior properties

A

lathe cut alloy

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45
Q

lathe cut alloys can resist what

A

condensation pressure

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46
Q

particles are spherical and are manufactured by atomization of molten alloy: the silver tin alloy is melted and sprayed through a nozzle to form a mist of small droplets that are quickly cooked

A

spherical alloy

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47
Q

spherical alloy needs __________ mercery which gives it better properties

A

less

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48
Q

spherical alloy can take ________ condensation pressure compared to lathe cut alloy

A

less

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49
Q

what are the advantages of amalgam

A

long lasting, cost effective, least technique sensitive

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50
Q

(y) designated the ___________ alloy or gamma phase and is composed of the unreacted alloy particles

A

Ag-Sn (silver-tin)

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51
Q

(y1) or gamma one designated the __________ phase

A

Ag-Hg (silver-mercury)

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52
Q

(y2) gamma two designated ____________

A

Sn-Hg (tin-mercury)

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53
Q

contains tin/mercury which easily corrodes and is not often used because of this

A

low copper amalgam

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54
Q

less mercury = stronger

A

high copper amalgam

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55
Q

what percent silver, tin, and copper is present in high copper amalgam

A

40-60% silver, 27% tin, and 1-30% copper

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56
Q

what is the most common type of amalgam used today

A

high copper amalgam

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57
Q

high copper amalgam has high strength and low _________

A

corrosion

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58
Q

admix high copper amalgam is also known as what

A

dispersion alloys

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59
Q

admix high copper amalgam contains what type of particles

A

lathe cut and spherical particles

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60
Q

what are the factors affecting amalgam handling/performance

A

mercury concentration, trituration, moisture, and anatomy

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61
Q

if zinc is present in amalgam, expansion occurs with _____________

A

moisture

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62
Q

what anatomy affects handling amalgam

A

open contacts or overhangs

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63
Q

minimal ____________ is avoided by following the manufacturer’s instructions

A

dimensional change

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64
Q

low tensile strength and high compressive strength

A

strength of amalgam

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65
Q

slow change in shape of amalgam caused by compression

A

creep

66
Q

self sealing; margins remained sealed as corrosion occurs= microleakage is reduced

A

oxidizes

67
Q

what are the working and setting times of amalgam

A

regular set and fast set

68
Q

what is the order of coarsest to finest of polishing burs

A

brownies, then greenies, then super greenies

69
Q

polishing amalgams under wet conditions will slow ___________ but cut down on __________

A

abrasion
heat

70
Q

process of removing excess ortho cement

A

debonding

71
Q

what are ortho related issues

A

poor homecare, food retention, and white spot lesions

72
Q

what are root canals filled with

A

gutta percha

73
Q

removes 1-3 mm of root apex

A

apicoectomy

74
Q

what are the indications for endodontics

A

infection, cracked tooth, decay into pulp

75
Q

protects sites after perio surgery

A

COE-pak (perio packs)

76
Q

what should you do when removing surgical sutures

A

grab the knot, pull it to one side, and snip it near the tissue

77
Q

approved as a desensitizing agent

A

SDF

78
Q

what percent silver and fluoride is in SDF

A

24-27% silver and 5-6% fluoride

79
Q

kills cariogenic bacteria

A

silver in SDF

80
Q

what are the indications for SDF use

A

dentinal hypersensitivity and active root caries

81
Q

SDF causes ___________ on soft tissues and arrests _______________

A

staining
carious lesions

82
Q

what are contraindications for SDF

A

allergy to silver or silver containing compounds
ulcerative gingivitis or stomatitis
irreversible pulpitis

83
Q

what is the application process for applying SDF

A
  1. polish
  2. isolate
  3. dry
  4. place drop of SDF into dampen dish
  5. apply SDF with micro brush
84
Q

sensitivity due to exposure of dentin

A

dentinal hypersensitivity

85
Q

exposure of dentin is caused from what two things

A

gingival recession and loss of enamel

86
Q

what are the at home treatment options for dentinal hypersensitivity

A

sensitivity toothpaste, prescription toothpaste, fluoride rinse, and sensitivity strips

87
Q

what are the in office treatment options for dentinal hypersensitivity

A

topical treatments, resin light cured adhesives, and glass ionomer light cured adhesives

88
Q

restorations that are constructed outside of the mouth

A

indirect restorations

89
Q

restorations that are fabricated inside of the mouth

A

direct restorations

90
Q

cannot be removed from the oral cavity

A

fixed restorations

91
Q

how can fixed restorations be classified

A
  1. by how much tooth structure they replace
  2. by which material they are made from
92
Q

intracoronal, restore pits/fissures but NO cusps

A

inlays

93
Q

replace more tooth structure, may cover entire occlusal surface, and replace cusps

A

onlays

94
Q

restorations that are placed on the facial surfaces of anterior teeth

A

veneers

95
Q

use bonded composites and require minimal structure removal

A

direct veneer

96
Q

requires preparation of the tooth and placement of a porcelain

A

indirect veneer

97
Q

used when a significant amount of structure is lost, covers entire crown of tooth, and can be all ceramic, porcelain, gold, or porcelain fused to metal

A

crowns

98
Q

replaces missing tooth or teeth

A

bridge

99
Q

replacement tooth part of a bridge

A

pontic

100
Q

crowned teeth holding Pontic in place

A

abutment

101
Q

fragile ceramic material but has great esthetics

A

porcelain

102
Q

aka porcelain bonded to metal, strong, and look ok but not as nice as all ceramic

A

cermometal

103
Q

metals that are a combination of several elements

A

alloys

104
Q

a measure of the ability of a material to be stretched before it breaks

A

elongation

105
Q

process that pushed metal against the tooth to close gaps between the tooth and the casting metal

A

burnishing

106
Q

noble metals are classified based on what

A

lack of chemical reactivity

107
Q

what are the noble metals

A

gold, platinum, and palladium

108
Q

precious metals are classified based on what

A

cost

109
Q

what are the precious metals

A

gold, platinum, palladium, and silver

110
Q

when talking about metals, you should know that % is related to what

A

fineness

111
Q

what is the most biocompatible metal

A

titanium

112
Q

what are the non precious alloys

A

nickel and chromium

113
Q

can be molded under heat

A

thermoplastic material

114
Q

acrylic resins are activated how

A

light cure

115
Q

what is the base of a denture made of

A

pink acrylic resin

116
Q

what are the teeth of a denture made of

A

acrylic (most common) or porcelain or composite

117
Q

mandibular dentures tend to lack what

A

retention

118
Q

how do you reline a denture

A

adding base material to compensate for loss of ridge

119
Q

what is the proper cleaning technique for a denture

A

soaked in denture tablets and brushed with soap and water, no toothpaste

120
Q

aka bonding; joining together of two objects using a glue or cement

A

adhesion

121
Q

a material that can stick to a flat surface or bond two flat surfaces together

A

adhesive

122
Q

bonding using surface irregularities smaller than can be seen with the eye or felt with an explorer; material flows

A

micro mechanical bonding

123
Q

mechanism by which two things are fused together by the hardening of a glue or adhesive

A

macro mechanical bonding

124
Q

why are adhesive necessary

A

retention, reduction of micro leakage = less recurrent decay

125
Q

when teeth are heated and cooled by the ingestion of hot and cold foods, expansion and contraction occur

A

percolation

126
Q

repeated expansion and contraction at different rates results in what

A

fluids being sucked in and pushed out at the margins of a restoration

127
Q

what are the surface factors affecting adhesion

A

cleanliness and biofilms

128
Q

creates a microscopically rough enamel surface

A

acid etching

129
Q

acid etch is made of _________% phosphoric acid

A

35-37%

130
Q

how long do you leave acid etch on the tooth for

A

15-30 seconds

131
Q

what will the tooth look like after acid etching

A

white chalky

132
Q

what are the two resin systems

A

low viscosity and composite material

133
Q

low viscosity resin systems set by what

A

addition polymerization with light or chemical reaction

134
Q

after the bonding resin is set, a composite restorative material is placed

A

composite material resin system

135
Q

layer of debris that produces when dentin is cut

A

smear layer

136
Q

the smear layer extended into the what

A

dentinal tubules

137
Q

micro/macro mechanical adhesion is good for what

A

less recurrent decay, less sensitivity, less staining, and less damage from temperature changes

138
Q

what are dental cements used for

A

luting agent glue, pulp protection, endo sealer, perio packs, and cavity varnish

139
Q

rarely used: seals tubules under amalgams

A

cavity varnish

140
Q

the consistency of a luting agent should be what

A

1 inch string

141
Q

thicker, replace dentin, protects pulp

A

bases

142
Q

thin, secondary dentin formation, reduces dentinal sensitivity, protects pulp

A

liners

143
Q

liners are ___________ and bases are ___________

A

chemical
thermal

144
Q

what does ZOE stand for

A

zinc oxide eugenol

145
Q

IRM is the same thing as ZOE because they both contain what

A

eugenol

146
Q

does IRM or ZOE have more material

A

IRM

147
Q

are IRM and ZOE temporary or permanent

A

temporary

148
Q

what are the powders in cements

A

zinc oxide and powdered glass

149
Q

what are the liquids in cements

A

eugenol, phosphoric acid, and poly acrylic acid

150
Q

what are the properties of phosphoric acid

A

irritating and acidic

151
Q

strongest and least soluble luting cement

A

glass ionomer

152
Q

glass ionomers are known for having what two good things

A

adhesion and biocompatibility

153
Q

what do glass ionomers release

A

fluoride

154
Q

what is the composition of sealant material

A

polymer resin called bisphenol A-glycidylmethacralate

155
Q

when should sealants be placed

A

deep fissures, high risk for decay, and when 6 and 12 year molars erupt

156
Q

what are the steps for applying a sealant

A

polish, rinse, dry, etch, rinse, dry, apply, cure, examine

157
Q

sealants must be placed in what type of environment

A

dry

158
Q

what is the most common reason for sealant failure

A

saliva contamination

159
Q

should/can you place sealants after applying fluoride

A

no

160
Q

should you place sealants over decay

A

no

Semester 2 Dental Materials (8 decks)

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