Final Exam Flashcards
1
Q
the wearing away of a surface
A
abrasion
2
Q
removing material by a shearing off process
A
cutting
3
Q
involves the abrasion of a surface by an abrasive agent where cleaning is not abrasive and will not alter the surface characteristics of enamel or a restorative material
A
polishing
4
Q
the process of producing the final shape and contour of a restoration
A
finishing
5
Q
most common abrasive in prophy paste, natural glass, rich in silica
A
pumice
6
Q
very fine abrasive
A
tin oxide
7
Q
very common abrasive in dentistry
A
aluminum oxide
8
Q
what are the types of abrasives
A
chalk, pumice, sand, tin oxide, and aluminum oxide
9
Q
what are the factors affecting abrasion
A
hardness, size, shape, pressure, speed, and lubrication
10
Q
abrasive must be harder than the surface
A
abrasive hardness
11
Q
grit (fine/course), larger is more abrasive
A
abrasive size
12
Q
spherically shaped particles are less abrasive than irregularly shaped particles
A
abrasive shape
13
Q
more pressure =
A
more abrasion
14
Q
rate at which device is rotating
A
abrasion speed
15
Q
reduces abrasion, but cuts down on heat; mixing water and pumice to create a slurry
A
abrasion lubrication
16
Q
what are the reasons for polishing
A
- reduce adhesion or corrosion
- make surface smooth
- increase esthetics
17
Q
when choosing an abrasiveness, should you start with fine or course
A
start with course and move to fine
18
Q
what can’t you use sodium bicarbonate air polishing on
A
sealants, composites, and glass ionomers
19
Q
what type of air polishing should you use if sodium bicarbonate air polishing is contraindicated
A
aluminum trihydroxide
20
Q
is aluminum trihydroxide harder or softer than sodium bicarbonate
A
harder
21
Q
the contraindications for air polishing are ___________ restriction, _____________ disease, conditions that limit ___________ or ___________ like COPD, patient with _______________ infections, _________________ patients, and patients taking ___________, ______________, and ______________
A
sodium
respiratory
swallowing or breathing
communicable
immunocompromised
potassium, antidiuretics, and steroids
22
Q
what are the steps for debonding ortho resin
A
- identify resin
- removal of bulk resin
- final finish
- evaluation
23
Q
identifying the resin is necessary to avoid what
A
removing enamel
24
Q
to identify a resin you should do what
A
dry the tooth with air
25
what is required to remove the bulk resin
handpiece and a carbide finishing bur
26
to remove bulk resein, what should you do frequently
rinse and dry
27
when doing the final finish of debonding ortho resin, you use _________ _________ __________ finishing cups and points at low speed over the surface where the resin had been
aluminum oxide composite
28
once the resin is fully removed, you need to polish each tooth with what
fine pumice slurry and prophy cup
29
a metal alloy of which one of the elements is mercury
amalgam
30
metals that are a combination of several elements
alloy
31
made by mixing approx. equal parts of powdered metal with liquid mercury
dental amalgam
32
the process of mixing the alloy and liquid mercury through use of an amalgamator/triturator
trituration
33
what are the properties of metal
highly thermal and electrical conductivity
ductility
opaque
luster
dissolves to some extent in H2O
34
bends without breaking
ductility
35
does not transmit light/appears white on x-rays
opaque
36
strongly reflects light and appears bright and shiny
luster
37
amalgams are held in place by mechanical retention achieved via _________ and grooves that are placed in the cavity prep with a bur
undercuts
38
causes setting expansion and increases strength and corrosion resistance
silver (Ag)
39
causes setting contraction and decreases strength and corrosion resistance
tin (Sn)
40
increases hardness and strength, increases setting expansion, reduces corrosion, decreases creep
copper (Cu)
41
reduces oxidation of the other metals in the alloy
zinc (Zn)
42
zinc containing alloy
> 0.01% zinc
43
zinc free alloy
< 0.01% zinc
44
rough, irregular particles don't slide past each other easily; manufactured by milling an ingot of alloy; requires more mercury leading to inferior properties
lathe cut alloy
45
lathe cut alloys can resist what
condensation pressure
46
particles are spherical and are manufactured by atomization of molten alloy: the silver tin alloy is melted and sprayed through a nozzle to form a mist of small droplets that are quickly cooked
spherical alloy
47
spherical alloy needs __________ mercery which gives it better properties
less
48
spherical alloy can take ________ condensation pressure compared to lathe cut alloy
less
49
what are the advantages of amalgam
long lasting, cost effective, least technique sensitive
50
(y) designated the ___________ alloy or gamma phase and is composed of the unreacted alloy particles
Ag-Sn (silver-tin)
51
(y1) or gamma one designated the __________ phase
Ag-Hg (silver-mercury)
52
(y2) gamma two designated ____________
Sn-Hg (tin-mercury)
53
contains tin/mercury which easily corrodes and is not often used because of this
low copper amalgam
54
less mercury = stronger
high copper amalgam
55
what percent silver, tin, and copper is present in high copper amalgam
40-60% silver, 27% tin, and 1-30% copper
56
what is the most common type of amalgam used today
high copper amalgam
57
high copper amalgam has high strength and low _________
corrosion
58
admix high copper amalgam is also known as what
dispersion alloys
59
admix high copper amalgam contains what type of particles
lathe cut and spherical particles
60
what are the factors affecting amalgam handling/performance
mercury concentration, trituration, moisture, and anatomy
61
if zinc is present in amalgam, expansion occurs with _____________
moisture
62
what anatomy affects handling amalgam
open contacts or overhangs
63
minimal ____________ is avoided by following the manufacturer's instructions
dimensional change
64
low tensile strength and high compressive strength
strength of amalgam
65
slow change in shape of amalgam caused by compression
creep
66
self sealing; margins remained sealed as corrosion occurs= microleakage is reduced
oxidizes
67
what are the working and setting times of amalgam
regular set and fast set
68
what is the order of coarsest to finest of polishing burs
brownies, then greenies, then super greenies
69
polishing amalgams under wet conditions will slow ___________ but cut down on __________
abrasion
heat
70
process of removing excess ortho cement
debonding
71
what are ortho related issues
poor homecare, food retention, and white spot lesions
72
what are root canals filled with
gutta percha
73
removes 1-3 mm of root apex
apicoectomy
74
what are the indications for endodontics
infection, cracked tooth, decay into pulp
75
protects sites after perio surgery
COE-pak (perio packs)
76
what should you do when removing surgical sutures
grab the knot, pull it to one side, and snip it near the tissue
77
approved as a desensitizing agent
SDF
78
what percent silver and fluoride is in SDF
24-27% silver and 5-6% fluoride
79
kills cariogenic bacteria
silver in SDF
80
what are the indications for SDF use
dentinal hypersensitivity and active root caries
81
SDF causes ___________ on soft tissues and arrests _______________
staining
carious lesions
82
what are contraindications for SDF
allergy to silver or silver containing compounds
ulcerative gingivitis or stomatitis
irreversible pulpitis
83
what is the application process for applying SDF
1. polish
2. isolate
3. dry
4. place drop of SDF into dampen dish
5. apply SDF with micro brush
84
sensitivity due to exposure of dentin
dentinal hypersensitivity
85
exposure of dentin is caused from what two things
gingival recession and loss of enamel
86
what are the at home treatment options for dentinal hypersensitivity
sensitivity toothpaste, prescription toothpaste, fluoride rinse, and sensitivity strips
87
what are the in office treatment options for dentinal hypersensitivity
topical treatments, resin light cured adhesives, and glass ionomer light cured adhesives
88
restorations that are constructed outside of the mouth
indirect restorations
89
restorations that are fabricated inside of the mouth
direct restorations
90
cannot be removed from the oral cavity
fixed restorations
91
how can fixed restorations be classified
1. by how much tooth structure they replace
2. by which material they are made from
92
intracoronal, restore pits/fissures but NO cusps
inlays
93
replace more tooth structure, may cover entire occlusal surface, and replace cusps
onlays
94
restorations that are placed on the facial surfaces of anterior teeth
veneers
95
use bonded composites and require minimal structure removal
direct veneer
96
requires preparation of the tooth and placement of a porcelain
indirect veneer
97
used when a significant amount of structure is lost, covers entire crown of tooth, and can be all ceramic, porcelain, gold, or porcelain fused to metal
crowns
98
replaces missing tooth or teeth
bridge
99
replacement tooth part of a bridge
pontic
100
crowned teeth holding Pontic in place
abutment
101
fragile ceramic material but has great esthetics
porcelain
102
aka porcelain bonded to metal, strong, and look ok but not as nice as all ceramic
cermometal
103
metals that are a combination of several elements
alloys
104
a measure of the ability of a material to be stretched before it breaks
elongation
105
process that pushed metal against the tooth to close gaps between the tooth and the casting metal
burnishing
106
noble metals are classified based on what
lack of chemical reactivity
107
what are the noble metals
gold, platinum, and palladium
108
precious metals are classified based on what
cost
109
what are the precious metals
gold, platinum, palladium, and silver
110
when talking about metals, you should know that % is related to what
fineness
111
what is the most biocompatible metal
titanium
112
what are the non precious alloys
nickel and chromium
113
can be molded under heat
thermoplastic material
114
acrylic resins are activated how
light cure
115
what is the base of a denture made of
pink acrylic resin
116
what are the teeth of a denture made of
acrylic (most common) or porcelain or composite
117
mandibular dentures tend to lack what
retention
118
how do you reline a denture
adding base material to compensate for loss of ridge
119
what is the proper cleaning technique for a denture
soaked in denture tablets and brushed with soap and water, no toothpaste
120
aka bonding; joining together of two objects using a glue or cement
adhesion
121
a material that can stick to a flat surface or bond two flat surfaces together
adhesive
122
bonding using surface irregularities smaller than can be seen with the eye or felt with an explorer; material flows
micro mechanical bonding
123
mechanism by which two things are fused together by the hardening of a glue or adhesive
macro mechanical bonding
124
why are adhesive necessary
retention, reduction of micro leakage = less recurrent decay
125
when teeth are heated and cooled by the ingestion of hot and cold foods, expansion and contraction occur
percolation
126
repeated expansion and contraction at different rates results in what
fluids being sucked in and pushed out at the margins of a restoration
127
what are the surface factors affecting adhesion
cleanliness and biofilms
128
creates a microscopically rough enamel surface
acid etching
129
acid etch is made of _________% phosphoric acid
35-37%
130
how long do you leave acid etch on the tooth for
15-30 seconds
131
what will the tooth look like after acid etching
white chalky
132
what are the two resin systems
low viscosity and composite material
133
low viscosity resin systems set by what
addition polymerization with light or chemical reaction
134
after the bonding resin is set, a composite restorative material is placed
composite material resin system
135
layer of debris that produces when dentin is cut
smear layer
136
the smear layer extended into the what
dentinal tubules
137
micro/macro mechanical adhesion is good for what
less recurrent decay, less sensitivity, less staining, and less damage from temperature changes
138
what are dental cements used for
luting agent glue, pulp protection, endo sealer, perio packs, and cavity varnish
139
rarely used: seals tubules under amalgams
cavity varnish
140
the consistency of a luting agent should be what
1 inch string
141
thicker, replace dentin, protects pulp
bases
142
thin, secondary dentin formation, reduces dentinal sensitivity, protects pulp
liners
143
liners are ___________ and bases are ___________
chemical
thermal
144
what does ZOE stand for
zinc oxide eugenol
145
IRM is the same thing as ZOE because they both contain what
eugenol
146
does IRM or ZOE have more material
IRM
147
are IRM and ZOE temporary or permanent
temporary
148
what are the powders in cements
zinc oxide and powdered glass
149
what are the liquids in cements
eugenol, phosphoric acid, and poly acrylic acid
150
what are the properties of phosphoric acid
irritating and acidic
151
strongest and least soluble luting cement
glass ionomer
152
glass ionomers are known for having what two good things
adhesion and biocompatibility
153
what do glass ionomers release
fluoride
154
what is the composition of sealant material
polymer resin called bisphenol A-glycidylmethacralate
155
when should sealants be placed
deep fissures, high risk for decay, and when 6 and 12 year molars erupt
156
what are the steps for applying a sealant
polish, rinse, dry, etch, rinse, dry, apply, cure, examine
157
sealants must be placed in what type of environment
dry
158
what is the most common reason for sealant failure
saliva contamination
159
should/can you place sealants after applying fluoride
no
160
should you place sealants over decay
no
