FINAL EXAM Flashcards
(128 cards)
1
Q
what kind of outbreak is stark state currently having ?
A
syphilis
2
Q
what is it called when a mother shares antibodies while breast feeding?
A
naturally acquired passive
3
Q
what name needs to be underlined?
A
ONLY genus
4
Q
what disease is caused by trypanosoma cruzi infection?
A
chagas disease
5
Q
what stage of PCR do the primers attach to DNA?
A
Annealing
6
Q
what is another name for CD8+ T cells
A
cytotoxic T cells
7
Q
What enzyme reads the DNA and adds RNA nucleotides to form mRNA during transcription?
A
RNA polymerase
8
Q
what group of microbes contains peptidoglycan in their cell walls?
A
bacteria
9
Q
what genus will have witches fingers?
A
penicillium
10
Q
where are B lymphocytes “born” in adults?
A
red bone marrow
11
Q
what term is used to describe rod-shaped bacteria?
A
bacillus
12
Q
in humans, what cells will house the ring stage of the plasmodium species?
A
red blood cells
13
Q
what is a common example of an opportunistic infection?
A
thrush
14
Q
what is a latent disease?
A
the causative agent of a disease is infective for a time and then becomes active and causes symptoms?
15
Q
the chemical reactions a cell can perform are dependent on what?
A
enzymes
16
Q
what is the end product of transcription?
A
Messenger RNA
17
Q
where does transcription occur in a eukaryotic cell?
A
in the nucleus
18
Q
what are transient microbes?
A
microbes that are present for only days or weeks at a time
19
Q
for route of transmission to be considered airborne the source of the infection will need to be greater than 1 meter from the affect.
A
true
20
Q
(T or F)
microbiology is the study of living organisms that can be seen with the naked eye
A
false
21
Q
(T or F)
most bacteria have a nucleus and membrane bound organelles
A
False
22
Q
obligate anaerobes usually lack which of the following enzymes that would allow them to live in an aerobic environment?
A
superoxide dismutase
23
Q
what is missing with naked virus?
A
envelope
24
Q
why is the microbe Thermus aquaticus important to the PCR process?
A
this is where Taq polymerase comes from
25
where does translation take place in a eukaryotic cell?
in the cytoplasm
26
what does aerotolerant anaerobic mean?
the bacteria tolerates oxygen, but dont need it to live
27
what is the second step of aerobic respiration?
krebs cycle
28
which of the following will speed up chemical reactions without being altered itself?
catalysts
29
which of the following is an example of a zoonose?
the swine flu passing from pigs to humans
30
which of the following viral structures is usually obtained from the host cell?
envelope
31
which of the following is an example of direct contact transmission?
kissing
32
which of the following nitrogenous bases is NOT a component of DNA?
Uracil
33
during DNA replication, what enzyme is going to attach new nucleotides to create the complimentary strand of DNA?
DNA polymerase
34
what term is used when destroying harmful microorganisms on living tissue?
antisepsis
35
what are small, circular strands of extrachromosomal DNA?
plasmids
36
(TorF)
the plasma membrane in bacteria is similar in structure and function to the plasma membrane found in human cells?
true
37
which of the following would be the least effective method of microbial control?
microwaving
38
if a microbe enters the body via the genitourinary tract, what is the portal of entry?
mucous membranes
39
what is required for aerobic metabolism?
oxygen
40
what is the study of where and when diseases occur and how they are transmitted within a population?
epidemiology
41
what is another name for antibody?
immunoglobulin
42
which of the following will use light energy to form glucose?
photosynthesis
43
which of the following is a disease that is transmitted thru cat feces?
toxoplasmosis
44
(TorF)
the sequence of nucleotides in a DNA strand determines the sequence of amino acids in a protein?
true
45
what type of vaccine will use a weakened pathogen to provoke the immune response?
live attenuated
46
what are antibodies produced against a toxn?
antitoxin
47
mycology is the study of what?
fungi
48
getting a vaccine is an example of what type of immunity?
artificially acquired active
49
which of the following is NOT a eukaryotic cell?
bacteria
50
(TorF)
the products of alcohol fermentation are ethanol and carbon dioxide?
True
51
thermophiles, halophiles, and methanogens are found in what domain?
archaea
52
in eukaryotes, which of the following organelles is involved in cellular respiration
mitochondria
53
what type of lichen has a leaf-like appearance
foliose
54
(TorF)
human cells contain a cell wall
False
55
during what stage of disease development are the signs and symptoms the worst and the patient is most likely to die?
period of illness
56
in bacterial cells, where does the electron transport chain occur?
plasma membrane
57
what are genes?
segments of DNA that encode for a specific protein
58
what is the major feature that distinguishes archaea from bacteria?
archaea do not have peptidoglycan in their cells walls
59
which of the following is NOT a sign/symptom produced by endotoxins
vomiting
60
what autoimmune disease results in the destruction of the myelin sheath in the central nervous sytstem?
multiple sclerosis
61
poliomyelitis translates best to ___ of the ____ in the anterior spinal cord which makes sense because it affects the neurons?
inflammation, grey matter
62
what is the distinguishing feature of someone with diphtheria?
pseudomembrane that forms in throat
63
what fungus is commonly found in the soil, bat guano, and bird droppings?
histoplasmosis capsulatum
64
which can an HIV infection be offically diagnosed as AIDS?
WHEN THE CO4+ COUNT DROPS BELOW 200 CELL/UL
65
what is the route of transmission for the poliovirus?
fecal-oral
66
which of the following opportunistic pathogens is commonly caused antibiotic use?
clostridium difficile
67
what strain of hepatitis has a fecal-oral route of transmission?
hepatitis A
68
during what stage of syphilis is the patient symptom free?
latent period
69
which of the following is part of the central nervous sytem?
spinal cord
70
what condition is the leading cause of food-borne illness in the untied states?
campylobacteriosis
71
what strain of hepatisis often has no symptoms until years after infection?
hepatitis C
72
during what stage of syphilis oral lesions and skin rashes appear?
secondary stage
73
what is the eye infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis?
trachoma
74
which of following is follicultis of an eyelash?
sty
75
where is the body samonella typhi found in the carriers of the disease?
gallbladder
76
which of the following microbes is commonly found in improperly maintained water supplies?
legionella pneumophila
77
what microbe is the causative agent of whooping cough?
bordatella pertussis
78
which of the following is a possible sequela of pelvic inflammatory disease?
ectopic pregnancy
79
what does the term "ttemperature abuse" mean?
food temperature are just right for microbial
80
what are the white "salt grain" spots in the mouth of individuals with measles?
necrotizing fascitis
81
haempophilus influenza type B acts as an opportunistic infection to cause which of the following conditions?
epiglottitis
82
which of the following is NOT a way that S. aureus evades the immune system?
produces a protein that marks the cell as "self"
83
what type of acne is most severe and will often leave scars?
nodular cystic acne
84
what is the primary reservoir of enterohemorrhagic E.coli?
cattle
85
(TorF)
staphylococcus epidermis is a coagulase negative pathogen?
true
86
what is type of pneumonia is called "walking pneumonia"?
mycoplasma pneumonia
87
which of the following has birds as the natural host for the the microbe?
west nile virus
88
what is the most common route of transmission of chickenpox?
respiratory
89
which of the following diseases is characterized by a rash that will eventually scab over and fall off?
smallpox
90
what progression within tertiary stage of syphilis is most severe?
neurosyphilis
91
what disease will progressively destroy the gums and result in tooth loss?
periodontitis
92
(TorF)
varicella-zoster virus is relatively easy for our immune system to eradicate?
false
93
what virus is responsible for cold sores or fever blisters?
human herpes virus -3
94
what arboviral disease results in microcephaly in newborns?
zika virus
95
(TorF)
the flu is a zoonotic infection
true
96
what virus starts in the upper respiratory tract and migrates to the salvary glands causing parotitis?
mumps virus
97
what is a key characteristic of gardnerella vaginalis infection?
fishy odor
97
(TorF)
the use of a hyperbaric chamber is a possible treatment for gas gangrene
true
98
which of the following is a possible cause of bacterial vaginosis?
vaginal pH becomes more alkaline
99
what is the best way to diagnose meningitis?
lumbar puncture
100
during what stage of syphilis does the chancre appear?
primary stage
101
(TorF)
digestive system infections usually have a short incubation period
false
101
which of the following is also called travelers diarrhea?
enterotoxigenix E. coli
101
what condition can be caused by using tampons and leaving them in too long?
toxic shock syndrome
102
which of the following foods is a common source of salmonella?
eggs
103
during what stage of pertussis are the symptoms the most severe and include the distinguishing whooping cough?
paroxysmal stage
104
(TorF)
syphilis can be transmitted accross the placenta and infect a fetus
true
105
what is the most common name for tinea cruris?
jock itch
106
which of the following is a symptom of paralytic rabies?
minimal excitability
107
which of the following is an example of a prion disease?
creutzfeldt-jacob disease
108
what type of meningitis has a unique symptom of a rash that does not fade when pressed?
Meningococcal meningitis
108
who is most at risk for complications related to a rubella infection?
unborn children
109
what is the most reliable way to eliminate staphylococcal food poisoning?
refrigerate food during storage
110
(TorF)
the use of quarantine is NOT effective for containing measles
true
111
what is the most common route of transmission of mycobacterium tuberculosis?
respiratory droplets
112
what cellular feature of mycobacterium tuberculosis contributes to its pathogenicity?
mycolic acid in the cell wall
113
what condition occurs when exfoliated skin cells mix with sebum and clog the follicle?
acne
114
what condition is caused by ingesting water contaminated by animal urine?
leptospirosis
115
(TorF)
the characteristic shingles rash is usually found bilaterally
false
116
due to "4 inch law" it is illegal to sell a small ____ in ohio because of the risk of salmonella poisoning
turtle
117
what microbe in the lab is most likely closely related to the microbe that causes gas gangrene?
clostridium sporogenes
117
due to the risk of E.Coli infection, which type of food is the MOST unsafe?
hamburgers with a pink center
118
what does TB look like?
potatoes
119
norovirus was discovered in this ohio town?
norwalk
120
tinea pedis
athletes foot
121
tinea cruris
jock itch
122
tinea capitis
ringworm of the scalp
123
tinea unguium
ringworm of the nails
