FINAL EXAM Flashcards
(196 cards)
1
Q
DNA makes DNA via __________. DNA makes RNA via __________. RNA instructs the synthesis of proteins via __________.
A) transcription; translation; replication B) replication; translation; transcription C) translation; replication; transcription D) replication; transcription; translation E) translation; transcription; replication
A
Answer:
D) replication; transcription; translation
Explanation:
DNA is copied to make more DNA through replication. DNA is used to make RNA through transcription. RNA (specifically mRNA) is used to make proteins through translation.
2
Q
In the 18th century, a small group of settlers from Europe moved to a remote island… increased genetic disorders?
A) The introduction of new mutations in the isolated population.
B) Gene flow between settlers and indigenous populations.
C) The founder effect, where the small founding population carried a higher frequency of certain genetic traits.
D) Natural selection favoring genetic disorders.
A
Answer:
C) The founder effect, where the small founding population carried a higher frequency of certain genetic traits, leading to their increased prevalence.
Explanation:
Founder effect happens when a small group splits off and carries only a small sample of the genetic variation from the original population, causing some traits (even harmful ones) to become more common.
3
Q
Which of the following structures are found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
A) Cytoskeleton
B) Membrane-bound organelles
C) Nuclear membrane
D) None of the above
A
Answer:
A) Cytoskeleton
Explanation:
Both cell types have a cytoskeleton for support and structure. Prokaryotes don't have membrane-bound organelles or a nuclear membrane.
4
Q
Which of the following is true?
A) All fungi are multicellular.
B) Fungi are more closely related to plants than animals.
C) Spores are the most common means of reproduction among fungi.
D) Fungi are photoautotrophs because they carry out photosynthesis.
E) Two of the above are true.
A
C) Spores are the most common means of reproduction among fungi.
Explanation:
Fungi mostly reproduce by making spores. Not all fungi are multicellular, and they are more closely related to animals than plants.
5
Q
Which of the following is NOT a component of fitness?
A) Number of offspring per mating B) Sexual selection C) Survival/longevity D) All of the above are components of fitness.
A
Answer:
B) Sexual selection
Explanation:
Fitness measures survival and offspring produced — sexual selection affects mating success, not directly fitness itself.
6
Q
An allele is:
A) the unit used to measure fitness. B) one of two or more alternative forms of a gene. C) any group of individuals, usually of a single species, occupying a given area at the same time. D) a kind of organism.
A
B) one of two or more alternative forms of a gene.
Explanation:
An allele is a version of a gene (example: different alleles for blood type).
7
Q
Which of the following best describes the concept of endosymbiosis?
A) A form of mutualism where two species live independently but benefit from each other’s presence. B) A process where one organism lives inside the cells of another, forming a symbiotic relationship. C) A method of energy production used exclusively by prokaryotes. D) A type of parasitism where the host benefits from the relationship and the parasite is harmed.
A
B) A process where one organism lives inside the cells of another, forming a symbiotic relationship.
Explanation:
Endosymbiosis explains how mitochondria and chloroplasts evolved.
8
Q
Diploid cells of animals and plants are genetically similar to fungal:
A) monokaryotic hyphae. B) haploid spores. C) dikaryotic hyphae. D) aseptate hyphae.
A
C) dikaryotic hyphae.
Explanation:
Dikaryotic hyphae have two nuclei, like diploid cells have two sets of chromosomes.
9
Q
A male donkey can breed with a female horse to produce a sterile hybrid known as a mule. Thus, donkeys and horses are technically different breeds of the same species.
True False
A
False
Explanation:
They are different species because they can't produce fertile offspring.
10
Q
Cheetahs have been through a genetic bottleneck; evidence for this is that:
A) little natural selection occurs in this species. B) the body is long, thin, and graceful. C) there is very little genetic variability. D) these cats are members of an endangered species. E) they originally came from small areas of Africa.
A
C) there is very little genetic variability.
Explanation:
A bottleneck greatly reduces genetic diversity after population drops.
11
Q
All genetic variation results in externally visible differences.
True False
A
False
Explanation:
Many variations are internal (like metabolic traits) and aren't visible.
12
Q
Primary endosymbiosis of a cyanobacterium by an ancestral eukaryotic cell is believed to have led to __________ with __________ membrane(s).
A) mitochondria; one B) chloroplasts; two C) mitochondria; two D) chloroplasts; four
A
B) chloroplasts; two
Explanation:
Chloroplasts have two membranes, from engulfing a cyanobacterium.
13
Q
The system of fungal filaments that penetrates and grows through the substrate is called a(n):
A) exoskeleton. B) hyphal compartment. C) mushroom. D) mycelium.
A
D) mycelium
Explanation:
A mycelium is the network of fungal hyphae that digests food.
14
Q
Which of the following is the most fit in an evolutionary sense?
A) A lion that is successful at capturing prey but has no cubs. B) A lion that has many cubs, eight of which live to adulthood. C) A lion that overcomes a disease and lives to have three cubs. D) A lion that has a harem of many lionesses, but only one cub.
A
B) A lion that has many cubs, eight of which live to adulthood.
Explanation:
Fitness is measured by surviving offspring, not hunting success or disease survival.
15
Q
Which of the below are features of mitochondria that reflect their endosymbiotic origin?
A) i only B) i and ii C) i and iii D) ii and iii E) i, ii, and iii
(i = They have their own circular genome.
ii = They replicate via binary fission, just like bacteria.
iii = Their genes are translated by ribosomes similar to bacterial ribosomes.)
A
E) i, ii, and iii
Explanation:
Mitochondria show all three features — circular DNA, binary fission, and bacterial-like ribosomes — which are clear signs of an endosymbiotic origin.
16
Q
Most fungi carry out __________ mitosis in which the mitotic spindle apparatus forms __________ the nucleus.
A) closed; after the breakdown of B) open; after the breakdown of C) closed; inside D) open; inside
A
C) closed; inside
Explanation:
Fungi perform closed mitosis, meaning the nuclear envelope stays intact and mitosis happens inside the nucleus.
17
Q
Some bacterial colonies are classified as protists.
True False
A
False
Explanation:
Bacteria are prokaryotes, and protists are eukaryotes — completely different domains of life.
18
Q
According to natural selection theory:
A) Adaptations beneficial in one habitat should generally be beneficial in all other habitats. B) Different species occupying the same habitat will adapt by undergoing the same genetic changes. C) Adaptations beneficial at one time should generally be beneficial during all other times. D) Well-adapted individuals leave more offspring and thus contribute more to the next generation's gene pool than poorly adapted individuals.
A
D) Well-adapted individuals leave more offspring and thus contribute more to the next generation’s gene pool than poorly adapted individuals.
Explanation:
Natural selection favors individuals that reproduce more successfully, not necessarily those that live the longest.
19
Q
In order for natural selection to occur within a population, one condition must be:
A) Frequent mutations that are inherited. B) Heterozygosity must be very low. C) Low rates of immigration. D) Phenotypic variations that are genetic. E) Phenotypic differences resulting from environmental conditions.
A
D) Phenotypic variations that are genetic.
Explanation:
For natural selection to act, the traits must be heritable (genetic) — otherwise, selection can't pass them on.
20
Q
Which of the following statements about fungal reproduction is NOT true?
A) All fungi reproduce sexually by forming diploid cells immediately after fusion. B) Some fungi reproduce asexually through budding. C) Spores can be produced through both sexual and asexual processes. D) Basidiomycota and Ascomycota have a dikaryotic stage before forming a diploid nucleus.
A
A) All fungi reproduce sexually by forming diploid cells immediately after fusion.
Explanation:
Many fungi enter a dikaryotic stage (two nuclei per cell) before becoming diploid — they don’t immediately form a diploid nucleus after cell fusion.
21
Q
When the environment changes from year to year and different phenotypes have different fitness:
A) Natural selection will not occur. B) The effect of natural selection may change from year to year, favoring alternative phenotypes in different years. C) Genetic variation is not required to get evolutionary change by natural selection. D) None of the choices are correct.
A
B) The effect of natural selection may change from year to year, favoring alternative phenotypes in different years.
Explanation:
Natural selection isn't static — it can shift depending on environmental changes.
22
Q
In nature, mutation rarely counters natural selection.
True False
A
True
Explanation:
Most mutations are neutral or harmful, so they rarely reverse the effects of natural selection.
23
Q
Under __________ conditions, some protists form cysts and go dormant. While dormant, they __________ their metabolism.
A) Unfavorable; speed up B) Unfavorable; slow down C) Favorable; speed up D) Favorable; slow down
A
B) Unfavorable; slow down
Explanation:
Protists enter cysts and slow their metabolism to survive unfavorable conditions like dryness or lack of food.
24
Q
Some of the enzymes secreted into the environment by fungal hyphae are highly effective at digesting chitin.
True False
A
True
Explanation:
Fungi secrete powerful enzymes to digest chitin, which is found in things like insect exoskeletons.
25
Which of the following is NOT true?
A) Mutation alone does not usually change allele frequency within a population.
B) Mutation is the ultimate source of genetic variation.
C) Mutations occur more frequently in response to environmental stresses.
D) Mutation rates are generally low.
C) Mutations occur more frequently in response to environmental stresses.
Explanation:
Mutations are random — environmental stresses don’t cause specific mutations to happen more often.
26
A population of grasshoppers in the Kansas prairie has two color phenotypes, green and brown. A bird species that eats grasshoppers moves into the prairie. How will natural selection act?
A) Predation will cause the brown grasshoppers to mutate into green grasshoppers.
B) The brown phenotype should be less easily seen by the predator and increase in frequency.
C) Both green and brown grasshoppers should be eaten, and their relative numbers should remain constant.
D) The green phenotype should be less easily seen by the predator and increase in frequency.
E) The grasshoppers will band together to develop weapons of mass destruction to eliminate the birds.
D) The green phenotype should be less easily seen by the predator and increase in frequency.
Explanation:
On green grass, green grasshoppers blend in better, so they’re less likely to be eaten and will survive/reproduce more.
27
What would be strong evidence to suggest a protist is phototrophic?
A) Many ribosomes
B) Locomotion via flagella
C) The presence of chloroplasts
D) Silica cell walls
C) The presence of chloroplasts
Explanation:
Chloroplasts mean the organism can do photosynthesis — clear evidence of being phototrophic.
28
The structures in the photo above are _________ structures that produce __________.
A) Vegetative; spores
B) Reproductive; spores
C) Vegetative; seeds
D) Reproductive; seeds
B) Reproductive; spores
Explanation:
Those structures are fungal reproductive structures (like mushrooms) that release spores to reproduce.
29
Some black mice from a population that lives on black volcanic rock are transplanted to a brown, sandy environment. These transplanted black mice will be more likely to undergo mutations that will lighten their fur than the black mice still living in the black, rocky environment.
True
False
False
Explanation:
Mutations are random; they do not happen because of a need or environmental pressure.
30
Paramecia move from place to place by means of their:
A) Choanoflagellates
B) Cilia
C) Cysts
D) Flagella
E) Pseudopods
B) Cilia
Explanation:
Cilia are short hair-like structures that beat rhythmically to help Paramecia move through water.
31
What type of symbiotic relationship is exemplified by arbuscular mycorrhizae?
A) Commensalism
B) Mutualism
C) Parasitism
D) Socialism
B) Mutualism
Explanation:
In mutualism, both partners benefit — plants get nutrients, fungi get sugars.
32
The larvae of some marine mollusks have been carried by currents from Africa to the Caribbean. This likely leads to:
A) Natural selection
B) Disassortative mating
C) Founder effect
D) Gene flow
E) Wild parties
D) Gene flow
Explanation:
Gene flow is the exchange of genes between different populations — exactly what happens when larvae travel and settle elsewhere.
33
In a population of bacteria, a mutation results in an enzyme that breaks down a new antibiotic. Over time, the frequency of this mutation increases. This is an example of:
A) Genetic drift causes random changes in allele frequencies.
B) A beneficial mutation confers a survival advantage, increasing the frequency of the gene.
C) All mutations are beneficial.
D) The antibiotic directly causes mutations that increase resistance.
B) A beneficial mutation confers a survival advantage, increasing the frequency of the gene.
Explanation:
Bacteria with a useful mutation survive and pass it on — classic natural selection.
34
What term best describes a photosynthetic Euglena capable of ingesting dissolved or particulate food?
A) Autotrophic
B) Heterotrophic
C) Mixotrophic
D) Phagotrophic
E) Phototrophic
C) Mixotrophic
Explanation:
Mixotrophs can photosynthesize and consume food — Euglena is a famous example.
35
Some lichens are symbiotic associations between __________ and photosynthetic __________.
A) Green algae; fungi
B) Cyanobacteria; fungi
C) Fungi; moss
D) Fungi; green algae
E) Moss; fungi
D) Fungi; green algae
Explanation:
Lichens are a mutualism between fungi and a photosynthetic partner, usually green algae (or sometimes cyanobacteria).
36
A researcher studying natural selection after a toxic spill wants to minimize gene flow. Which species should he focus on?
A) Wind-pollinated plant
B) Bird
C) Deer
D) Human
E) Slug
E) Slug
Explanation:
Slugs move very little, minimizing gene flow (unlike birds or humans).
37
Under __________ conditions, many protists undergo __________ reproduction.
A) Favorable; asexual
B) Favorable; sexual
C) Unfavorable; asexual
D) Unfavorable; sexual
A) Favorable; asexual
Explanation:
When conditions are good, protists reproduce asexually because it’s faster.
38
If a forest floor was polluted by chemicals poisonous to fungi, what would happen to plant life?
A) There would be little consequence.
B) Plants would have trouble absorbing water and nutrients.
C) Plants would grow better because pathogens would die.
D) Tree bark would overgrow due to lack of decomposition.
B) Plants would have trouble absorbing water and nutrients.
Explanation:
Plants depend on mycorrhizal fungi for nutrient and water uptake.
39
An example of a parasitic fungi–animal symbiosis is __________, identified as an emerging amphibian disease.
A) Aflatoxin
B) Pneumocystis pneumonia
C) Chytridiomycosis
D) Black mold
C) Chytridiomycosis
Explanation:
Chytrid fungi cause chytridiomycosis, which devastates amphibian populations.
40
Large ears are a rare trait in a mainland population of mice. After a few female mice with large ears sneak onto an island with an existing mouse population, what could happen?
A) A bottleneck effect
B) A founder effect
C) Gene flow
D) Increased mutation
B) A founder effect
Explanation:
A few individuals founding a new population causes a founder effect, possibly increasing the frequency of rare traits like large ears.
41
Which of the following is true?
A) Antibiotics are effective against influenza viruses.
B) Due to natural selection, lactate dehydrogenase enzymes in southern mummichog populations work better at higher temperatures.
C) Mummichogs are a type of frog.
D) Natural selection in bacterial populations occurs slowly due to their large numbers and fast reproduction.
E) None of the above are true.
B) Due to natural selection, lactate dehydrogenase enzymes in southern mummichog populations work better at higher temperatures.
Explanation:
Mummichogs are fish, and their enzymes have adapted to the temperature of their local environments through natural selection.
42
How did cell specialization in colonial protists contribute to the origin of multicellularity?
A) It allowed individual cells to function independently.
B) It led to a division of labor, paving the way for true multicellularity.
C) It resulted in the evolution of single-celled eukaryotes, delaying multicellularity.
D) It prevented cooperation among cells.
B) It led to a division of labor, paving the way for true multicellularity.
Explanation:
Specialization allowed different cells to perform different tasks, making multicellular organisms possible.
43
In some species, males choose to mate with larger females, and larger males defeat smaller males in courting. This is an example of:
A) Mutation
B) Gene flow
C) Assortative mating
D) Genetic drift
E) Natural selection
E) Natural selection
Explanation:
Traits that improve mating success (like size) are selected for — that's natural selection.
44
Which of the following is NOT true?
A) Malaria is caused by mosquito larvae injected into a bitten host.
B) Pregnant women should not clean cat litterboxes.
C) Rodents infected by Toxoplasma are attracted to cat urine.
D) A feeding plasmodial slime mold consists of a single large cell with thousands of nuclei.
A) Malaria is caused by mosquito larvae injected into a bitten host.
Explanation:
Malaria is caused by Plasmodium parasites, not mosquito larvae.
45
Which of the following diseases are caused by fungi?
A) Ringworm
B) Athlete’s foot
C) Yeast infections
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
Explanation:
Ringworm, athlete’s foot, and yeast infections are all caused by fungal pathogens.
46
In a population of frogs, darker-skinned individuals tend to mate more frequently with lighter-skinned individuals. This is an example of:
A) Disassortative mating, leading to an increase in heterozygotes and a decrease in homozygotes.
B) Assortative mating, leading to an increase in homozygotes and a decrease in heterozygotes.
C) Disassortative mating, leading to a decrease in heterozygotes and an increase in homozygotes.
D) Assortative mating, leading to a decrease in homozygotes and an increase in heterozygotes.
A) Disassortative mating, leading to an increase in heterozygotes and a decrease in homozygotes.
Explanation:
Disassortative mating = mating between different phenotypes, increasing heterozygosity.
47
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium can be maintained in a population if:
A) Assortative mating occurs.
B) The population size is very large.
C) Mutation occurs.
D) Immigration and emigration occur.
E) Natural selection occurs.
B) The population size is very large.
Explanation:
A very large population minimizes the effects of genetic drift, helping maintain Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
48
Bacteria and fungi often occupy the same ecological niche. Which toxins would likely be more harmful to humans?
A) The antifungal agents produced by bacteria
B) The antibacterial agents produced by fungi
A) The antifungal agents produced by bacteria
Explanation:
Humans are eukaryotes, like fungi, so antifungal agents can potentially harm human cells more than antibacterial agents would.
49
The figure below illustrates:
(Note: there was no figure visible in your upload, but based on the answer key...)
A) Constraining gene flow in which gene flow impedes natural selection.
B) Constraining gene flow in which gene flow spreads beneficial mutations.
C) Constructive gene flow in which gene flow impedes natural selection.
D) Constructive gene flow in which gene flow spreads beneficial mutations.
D) Constructive gene flow in which gene flow spreads beneficial mutations.
Explanation:
Constructive gene flow spreads advantageous traits between populations, strengthening natural selection.
50
What does the term "obligate phase" refer to in biology?
A) A phase in an organism’s life cycle that is necessary for its survival and reproduction.
B) A temporary stage that an organism can bypass depending on environmental conditions.
C) A phase during which an organism remains dormant until favorable conditions arise.
D) A stage in development that is unique to protists.
A) A phase in an organism’s life cycle that is necessary for its survival and reproduction.
Explanation:
An obligate phase is essential — the organism must go through it to complete its life cycle.
51
Which of the following is true?
A) Both genetic drift and natural selection are random processes.
B) Genetic drift is a random process, while natural selection is nonrandom.
C) Genetic drift is a nonrandom process, while natural selection is random.
D) Both genetic drift and natural selection are nonrandom processes.
B) Genetic drift is a random process, while natural selection is nonrandom.
Explanation:
Genetic drift is random (luck-based changes), but natural selection is nonrandom (fitness-based).
52
Cellular slime molds can exist as both single-celled amoeba-like organisms and as multicellular aggregates during their life cycle.
True
False
True
Explanation:
Cellular slime molds can live alone as amoebas or form multicellular groups when food is scarce.
53
Which of the following is NOT true?
A) Penicillin is produced by a fungus.
B) Some mushrooms produce hallucinogenic chemicals.
C) Cordyceps fungi form mutualistic relationships with insects.
D) The largest living organism in terms of its overall area is a fungus.
E) Poisoning by ergot, a type of fungus, has been proposed to have played a role in the Salem witch trials.
C) Cordyceps fungi form mutualistic relationships with insects.
Explanation:
Cordyceps fungi are parasitic, not mutualistic — they actually kill or control insects.
54
Survival on land for organisms is difficult because of the problem of:
A) coevolution
B) desiccation
C) pollination
D) spore germination
E) syngamy
B) desiccation
Explanation:
Desiccation means drying out — the biggest challenge for land organisms compared to aquatic life.
55
In tracheophyte plants, water and dissolved minerals are conducted upward from the roots by __________, and sugars and other metabolic products are conducted downward from the leaves by __________.
A) phloem; stomata
B) xylem; stomata
C) phloem; xylem
D) xylem; phloem
E) phytoplumbing; phytoducts
D) xylem; phloem
Explanation:
Xylem moves water upward.
Phloem moves sugars downward.
56
In the haplodiplontic life cycle of a land plant, the sporophyte produces haploid:
A) spores via mitosis
B) spores via meiosis
C) gametes via mitosis
D) gametes via meiosis
B) spores via meiosis
Explanation:
Sporophytes use meiosis to make haploid spores.
57
What does the Greek root angeion mean? (Think sporangia, gametangia, angiosperm, etc.)
A) naked
B) vessel or case
C) spore
D) seed
E) plant
B) vessel or case
Explanation:
In words like angiosperm, "angeion" means a vessel or container.
58
Well-developed vascular systems are absent in all of the following except:
A) anthocerotophytes
B) bryophytes
C) pterophytes
D) hepaticophytes
E) two of the above
C) pterophytes
Explanation:
Pterophytes (ferns) have a vascular system — bryophytes and others do not.
59
Angiosperm ovaries develop within ovules.
True
False
False
Explanation:
Ovaries develop around ovules — ovules are inside the ovary.
60
You find a moss consisting of a brown sporophyte growing up out of a green gametophyte. Which of the following statements is likely true?
A) The gametophyte is nutritionally dependent on the sporophyte.
B) The sporophyte is nutritionally dependent on the gametophyte.
C) The gametophyte and the sporophyte are both nutritionally independent.
D) The sporophyte is nutritionally dependent on mycorrhizae.
B) The sporophyte is nutritionally dependent on the gametophyte.
Explanation:
In mosses, the sporophyte relies on the gametophyte for nutrients.
61
Hornworts differ from mosses and liverworts in containing:
A) small leaves
B) gametophytes
C) photosynthetic gametophytes
D) sporophytes
E) photosynthetic sporophytes
E) photosynthetic sporophytes
Explanation:
Hornwort sporophytes can photosynthesize, unlike moss or liverwort sporophytes.
62
Which of the following is NOT a general characteristic of tracheophytes?
A) roots
B) seeds
C) stomata
D) vasculature
E) waxy cuticle
B) seeds
Explanation:
Early tracheophytes (like ferns) do not have seeds.
63
Which plants are characterized by vasculature, cuticles, stems, roots, stomata, and seeds?
A) ferns
B) ginkgoes
C) hornworts
D) white pines
E) roses
C) ii, iv, and v (ginkgoes, white pines, and roses)
Explanation:
Ginkgoes, white pines, and roses have all these traits — ferns and hornworts don't have seeds.
64
Whisk ferns, which lack roots and leaves, are more poorly adapted to their environment than ferns, which have roots and leaves.
True
False
True
Explanation:
Roots and leaves improve water absorption and photosynthesis — whisk ferns are less efficient.
65
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the lycophytes?
A) Vascular tissue
B) Dominant gametophyte generation
C) Euphylls
D) a and b
E) b and c
E) b and c
Explanation:
Lycophytes have vascular tissue but do not have euphylls (true leaves) and their sporophyte is dominant, not gametophyte.
66
Euphylls and motile sperm are characteristic of __________, which are less advanced than gymnosperms due to a lack of __________.
A) bryophytes; seeds
B) pterophytes; seeds and flowers
C) bryophytes; seeds and stomata
D) pterophytes; seeds
E) angiosperms; seeds and flowers
D) pterophytes; seeds
Explanation:
Pterophytes (ferns) have true leaves (euphylls) and motile sperm but lack seeds.
67
A bryologist gives a lecture and says: "Fern spores germinate into ________."
A) gametophytes, which are often heart-shaped and have rhizoids
B) gametophytes, which are often heart-shaped and have roots
C) sporophytes, which are often heart-shaped and have rhizoids
D) sporophytes, which are often heart-shaped and have roots
A) gametophytes, which are often heart-shaped and have rhizoids
Explanation:
Fern spores grow into heart-shaped gametophytes with rhizoids for anchoring, not roots.
68
Compare what happens to a spore vs. a spore mother cell.
A) The spore disciplines its children, while the spore mother cell spoils them.
B) The spore and the spore mother cell both go through meiosis.
C) The spore and the spore mother cell both go through mitosis.
D) The spore goes through meiosis, while the spore mother cell goes through mitosis.
E) The spore goes through mitosis, while the spore mother cell goes through meiosis.
E) The spore goes through mitosis, while the spore mother cell goes through meiosis.
Explanation:
Spore mother cells use meiosis to make spores; the spores then grow by mitosis.
69
Pine cones are modified fruits.
True
False
False
Explanation:
Pine cones are modified stems, not fruits (fruits are from ovary tissue, which gymnosperms don't have).
70
__________ growth results from division at the __________ meristem and increases root/shoot length, while __________ growth results from division at the __________ meristem and increases root/shoot diameter.
A) Secondary; apical; primary; lateral
B) Primary; lateral; secondary; apical
C) Primary; apical; secondary; lateral
D) Secondary; lateral; primary; apical
C) Primary; apical; secondary; lateral
Explanation:
Primary growth = length (apical meristems).
Secondary growth = width (lateral meristems like cambium).
71
In a wind-pollinated plant that evolved insect pollination, which structures changed?
A) Petals; stamens; sepals; carpels
B) Stamens; carpels; petals; sepals
C) Petals; sepals; carpels; stamens
D) Sepals; petals; stamens; carpels
E) Petals; stamens; carpels; sepals
E) Petals; stamens; carpels; sepals
Explanation:
Insect-pollinated flowers have colorful petals, shorter stamens, sticky carpels, and nectar.
72
Gene duplication can split an ancestral gene’s functions between two copies. This process is called:
A) gene degeneration
B) neofunctionalization
C) perfectionalization
D) subfunctionalization
E) taking notes might be useful
D) subfunctionalization
Explanation:
In subfunctionalization, two gene copies split the original job between them.
73
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of gymnosperms?
A) Flowers with sepals and petals
B) Naked seeds not enclosed in an ovary
C) Seeds enclosed in fruits
D) Vascular tissue is absent
B) Naked seeds not enclosed in an ovary
Explanation:
Gymnosperm seeds are "naked", not covered by an ovary like in angiosperms.
74
The leaves of conifers are often needle-like. What is the main advantage of this adaptation?
A) Attraction of pollinators
B) Enhanced oxygen uptake
C) Increased surface area for photosynthesis
D) Reduced water loss in dry or cold environments
D) Reduced water loss in dry or cold environments
Explanation:
Needles have a small surface area and thick cuticles to prevent water loss.
75
What is the function of the spermatogenous cell in pine pollen?
A) To develop into the seed coat
B) To digest through the nucellus
C) To form two sperm cells through mitosis
D) To produce the pollen tube
C) To form two sperm cells through mitosis
Explanation:
The spermatogenous cell divides to make two sperm in pine pollen.
76
Which of the following is true of the pine reproductive cycle?
A) Each scale in a male cone contains a pair of microsporangia.
B) Female cones are smaller than male cones.
C) The lone surviving haploid microspore undergoes many mitotic rounds to form thousands of cells, including multiple eggs.
D) The pollen tube takes a year or more to reach the megagametophyte ovary.
E) Two of the above are true.
E) Two of the above are true.
Explanation:
A and D are both true: male cone scales have microsporangia, and the pollen tube growth is very slow (over a year).
77
Pine seeds contain an embryonic food supply comprised of __________ cells.
A) haploid gametophyte
B) haploid sporophyte
C) diploid gametophyte
D) diploid sporophyte
E) triploid sporophyte
A) haploid gametophyte
Explanation:
In gymnosperms (like pines), the gametophyte tissue remains haploid and nourishes the embryo.
78
Kate discovers a tree with flagellated sperm and seeds from exposed ovules. It most likely belongs to:
A) Gnetophyta
B) Anthophyta
C) Cycadophyta
D) Coniferophyta
E) Ginkgophyta
E) Ginkgophyta
Explanation:
Ginkgo trees have flagellated sperm and naked seeds — classic Ginkgophyta traits.
79
Fertilization in angiosperms can occur more quickly than in gymnosperms because:
A) Angiosperm sperm lack flagella.
B) Angiosperm pollen tubes grow more quickly than gymnosperm pollen tubes.
C) Gymnosperm sperm require water to swim to the egg.
D) Angiosperm sperm have eight cylinders, gymnosperm sperm have four.
E) Angiosperm sperm require water to swim to the egg
B) Angiosperm pollen tubes grow more quickly than gymnosperm pollen tubes.
Explanation:
Angiosperm pollen tubes grow faster, reaching the egg quickly, speeding up fertilization.
80
The structures labeled A, B, C, and D in the flower below are the __________, respectively.
A) carpel, sepal, stamen, and petal
B) sepal, petal, stamen, and carpel
C) sepal, stamen, carpel, and petal
D) carpel, stamen, petal, and sepal
E) sepal, stamen, petal, and carpel
B) sepal, petal, stamen, and carpel
Explanation:
In flower anatomy: sepals (outside), petals (next), stamens (male part), carpels (female part).
81
In angiosperms, each megaspore mother cell undergoes __________ to form four megaspores, __________ of which degenerate.
A) mitosis; one
B) meiosis; one
C) mitosis; two
D) meiosis; three
E) mitosis; three
D) meiosis; three
Explanation:
Meiosis creates four megaspores, but three degenerate, leaving one functional megaspore.
82
Given fruit cross-sections, which is true?
A) Both fruits developed from simple pistils.
B) Both fruits developed from compound pistils.
C) The left fruit = simple pistil, right fruit = compound pistil.
D) The left fruit = compound pistil, right fruit = simple pistil.
C) The left fruit = simple pistil, right fruit = compound pistil.
Explanation:
Simple pistil = one carpel; compound pistil = multiple carpels fused — seen in the structure of fruit.
83
Homosporous plants produce two distinct types of spores – male microspores and female megaspores.
True
False
False
Explanation:
Homosporous plants produce only one kind of spore — not separate male and female spores.
84
You examine plant tissue with long cells, small pores, fluid containing lots of disaccharides. It is:
A) xylem
B) phloem
C) root hair cells
D) sclerenchyma
B) phloem
Explanation:
Phloem transports sugars like disaccharides throughout the plant.
85
Maple samaras are primarily spread by birds.
True
False
False
Explanation:
Samaras (winged seeds like maple) are spread by the wind, not birds.
86
Prior to fertilization, the angiosperm embryo sac consists of:
A) 2 antipodal cells, 2 synergid cells, 2 eggs, and 2 central cells
B) 3 antipodal cells, 2 synergid cells, a binucleate egg, and a binucleate central cell
C) 3 antipodal cells, 2 synergid cells, an egg, and a binucleate central cell
D) 3 antipodal cells, 3 synergid cells, an egg, and a binucleate central cell
E) 3 binucleate antipodal cells, 2 synergid cells, an egg, and a central cell
C) 3 antipodal cells, 2 synergid cells, an egg, and a binucleate central cell
Explanation:
The mature embryo sac has this exact structure before double fertilization.
87
Double fertilization produces a _________ embryo and a _________ endosperm.
A) triploid; diploid
B) diploid; triploid
C) diploid; diploid
D) haploid; diploid
E) diploid; haploid
B) diploid; triploid
Explanation:
Embryo = diploid (egg + sperm).
Endosperm = triploid (sperm + two central cell nuclei).
88
Which of the following is NOT an important evolutionary adaptation of seeds?
A) They facilitate dispersal of the embryo.
B) They maintain dormancy under unfavorable conditions.
C) They protect the young plant when it is most vulnerable.
D) They provide food for the embryo until it can produce its own food.
E) All of the above are important evolutionary adaptations of seeds.
E) All of the above are important evolutionary adaptations of seeds.
Explanation:
Seeds do all these things — protection, nourishment, dormancy, and dispersal — making them a major evolutionary advantage.
89
The reproductive strategy of an angiosperm may be evolutionarily advantageous over that of a gymnosperm because the endosperm of the angiosperm seed forms after fertilization, while the nutritive tissues of the gymnosperm seed form before fertilization.
True
False
True
Explanation:
Angiosperms wait to make the endosperm until after fertilization, saving energy if fertilization fails.
90
Why can corn seeds germinate and initially grow in total darkness?
A) The seed coating absorbs water.
B) Seeds are heterotrophic and can capture nutrients from the soil.
C) The endosperm provides the embryo with the nutrition needed during the initial germination stages.
D) Soil microbes degrade the seed coating allowing the seed to germinate and grow.
C) The endosperm provides the embryo with the nutrition needed during the initial germination stages.
Explanation:
Corn seeds (and others) use stored food in the endosperm to sprout before they can photosynthesize.
91
Angiosperm ovaries develop into fruit.
True
False
True
Explanation:
In angiosperms, after fertilization, the ovary tissue develops into fruit.
92
The outer layer of the pericarp is a __________ tissue called the __________.
A) haploid; exocarp
B) diploid; endocarp
C) haploid; mesocarp
D) diploid; exocarp
E) haploid; endocarp
D) diploid; exocarp
Explanation:
The exocarp is the outer skin of a fruit and it is diploid because it comes from the parent sporophyte tissue.
93
Which one of the following structures in the moss life cycle undergoes meiosis?
A) Archegonium
B) Egg
C) Spore
D) Spore mother cell
E) More than one of the above undergo meiosis.
D) Spore mother cell
Explanation:
In mosses, the spore mother cell undergoes meiosis to produce haploid spores.
94
When mature, the sporophytes shown below:
(No photo was visible, but based on answer key context)
A) have lycophylls
B) lack vasculature
C) produce motile sperm
D) lack seeds
E) c and d
E) c and d
Explanation:
Many early plants (like ferns) produce motile sperm and lack seeds — two primitive traits.
95
A pluripotent cell is capable of giving rise to multiple different cell types. Which of the following would be pluripotent?
A) ground meristem cell
B) guard cell
C) protoderm cell
D) shoot apical meristem cell
E) sieve tube cell
Options:
i and iii
i, iii, and iv
ii and v
ii, iv, and v
iv only
B) i, iii, and iv (ground meristem, protoderm, and shoot apical meristem)
Explanation:
Ground meristem, protoderm, and shoot apical meristem cells are still undifferentiated and pluripotent.
96
In the diagram below, the arrows are pointing to __________.
(Again, image missing, but by standard bio exam context:)
A) Apical buds
B) Axillary buds
C) Lateral roots
D) Petioles
B) Axillary buds
Explanation:
Axillary buds form at the junction of the stem and leaf — they can grow into branches or flowers.
97
___________ cambium is a ring of lateral meristem that produces secondary phloem to its _________.
A) Cork; exterior
B) Cork; interior
C) Vascular; interior
D) Vascular; exterior
D) Vascular; exterior
Explanation:
Vascular cambium adds secondary phloem to the outside and secondary xylem to the inside.
98
A birdhouse is nailed into a tree 6 feet up. If the tree grows about 2 feet taller each year, where will the birdhouse be 25 years later?
A) 50 feet up
B) 56 feet up
C) 26 feet up
D) 6 feet up
E) 4 feet up
D) 6 feet up
Explanation:
Primary growth adds height at the tips (apical meristems), not along the trunk — so the birdhouse stays 6 feet up.
99
In what environment would a mutant allele that decreases root hair formation be likely to persist?
A) An environment with abundant rainfall
B) An environment with abundant sunlight
C) An environment with few predators
D) An environment with little rainfall
E) An environment with little sunlight
A) An environment with abundant rainfall
Explanation:
If water is abundant, root hairs aren't as critical for absorbing it — the mutation wouldn't hurt survival.
100
Damage to the ground meristem would result in:
A) Inability to move water but not sugar
B) Decreased sugar production
C) Increased gas exchange at the leaf surface
D) Dehydration of the plant
E) Inability to move sugar but not water
B) Decreased sugar production
Explanation:
The ground meristem makes photosynthetic tissues (like parenchyma) — if damaged, sugar production drops.
101
Which of the following lacks a nucleus at maturity?
A) Collenchyma cell
B) Parenchyma cell
C) Sclerenchyma cell
D) Sieve cell
E) Vessel cell
Options:
v only
iii and v
iv and v
ii, iii, and v
iii, iv, and v
E) iii, iv, and v (Sclerenchyma, Sieve cell, Vessel cell)
Explanation:
Sclerenchyma cells, sieve cells, and vessel cells lose their nuclei when mature for specialized transport or support functions.
102
The skin of an avocado is derived from the exocarp. The mesocarp and endocarp are fleshy. The pit is a large seed. What kind of fruit is an avocado?
A) Berry
B) Drupe
C) Aggregate fruit
D) Multiple fruit
E) Legume
B) Drupe
Explanation:
A drupe (like an avocado, peach, or cherry) has a fleshy outer layer and a hard seed pit inside.
103
After an angiosperm microspore mother cell undergoes __________ division to produce four haploid microspores, __________ of them degenerate.
A) Meiotic; three
B) Mitotic; two
C) Meiotic; none
D) Meiotic; two
E) Mitotic; three
A) Meiotic; three
Explanation:
Meiosis produces four microspores — three usually degenerate, leaving one functional.
104
Which of the following is NOT true?
A) Vessels are associated with companion cells.
B) Vessels are more efficient than tracheids.
C) Sieve tubes contain sieve plates.
D) Phloem is alive at maturity.
E) Xylem is dead at maturity.
A) Vessels are associated with companion cells.
Explanation:
Vessels are xylem (dead at maturity) and do not have companion cells — phloem sieve tubes do.
105
In class, we talked about the dinosaur whose name shares a prefix derived from the Greek word for "horn." What dinosaur is it?
A) Apatosaurus
B) Godzilla
C) Pterodactyl
D) Triceratops
E) Tyrannosaurus
D) Triceratops
Explanation:
"Tri-" (three) + "ceratops" (horned face) — just like "Anthocerotophyta" (hornworts)!
106
The process by which water is "pulled" up through the xylem columns of plants as it evaporates out of the leaves is called:
A) anhydration
B) osmosis
C) respiration
D) stomatization
E) transpiration
E) transpiration
Explanation:
Transpiration is the evaporation of water from leaves, creating tension that pulls water upward.
107
Ions are often imported into plant cells by harnessing the power of a(n) __________ gradient across their cell membranes. The establishment of this gradient requires __________.
A) proton; K+
B) electron; ATP
C) Na+; K+
D) proton; ATP
E) electron; K+
D) proton; ATP
Explanation:
Plants use proton (H⁺) gradients, built using ATP, to power transport of ions.
108
Water moves from higher Ψw to lower Ψw.
True
False
True
Explanation:
Water potential (Ψw) drives water movement from higher to lower potential — always downhill.
109
A plant cell is placed in a solution... The Ψp of the cell is 2 MPa, Ψs = -2.7 MPa, Ψp of solution = 0, Ψs of solution = -0.3 MPa. The cell will:
A) shout for a lifeguard
B) undergo plasmolysis
C) rupture
D) become turgid
E) not change
B) undergo plasmolysis
Explanation:
Water leaves the cell (solution has higher Ψw), causing the membrane to pull away — plasmolysis.
110
Even in the absence of transpiration, some water can move into roots and up the xylem because of:
A) electron pumps
B) phloem translocation
C) root pressure
D) stomatal opening
E) two of the above
C) root pressure
Explanation:
Root pressure can push water upward, even if no transpiration pull is occurring.
111
n Cell 2 (Ψs = -0.75 MPa in 0.2M sucrose beaker), what is true?
A) ψp = 0.75 MPa and ψw = 0.0 MPa
B) ψp = 0.0 MPa and ψw = -0.75 MPa
C) ψp = -0.25 MPa and ψw = -0.5 MPa
D) ψp = +0.25 MPa and ψw = -0.5 MPa
E) ψp = +0.25 MPa and ψw = +0.25 MPa
D) ψp = +0.25 MPa and ψw = -0.5 MPa
Explanation:
Solving:
Ψw = Ψs + Ψp →
To match the beaker Ψw (-0.5), cell Ψp must be +0.25 MPa.
112
A decrease in ATP in a root cell will likely result in an increase in water potential.
True
False
True
Explanation:
Less ATP = fewer proton pumps = higher Ψw, because active transport helps lower Ψw to pull in water.
113
An application of excess fertilizer to soil will __________ affect the movement of water into plant roots due to a(n) __________ in the water potential of the soil.
A) positively; increase
B) negatively; decrease
C) positively; decrease
D) negatively; increase
B) negatively; decrease
Explanation:
Fertilizer lowers soil Ψw, making it harder for plants to absorb water.
114
Embolism due to cavitation occurs when:
A) sucrose blocks the sieve tubes
B) root pressure pushes water up
C) clouds block sunlight
D) stomata get stuck closed by water bears
E) gas bubbles expand inside a tracheid or vessel member
E) gas bubbles expand inside a tracheid or vessel member
Explanation:
Cavitation happens when air bubbles disrupt the water column inside xylem.
115
As temperature increases, the rate of transpiration likely __________. Assume stomata are open.
A) decreases
B) does not change
C) increases
D) surpasses egg prices
C) increases
Explanation:
Higher temperature = faster evaporation = increased transpiration.
116
On a short-term basis, water loss in plants may be controlled by:
A) Opening stomata to allow more CO₂
B) Opening the Casparian strips
C) Closing stomata to limit transpiration
D) Bending the petioles
C) Closing stomata to limit transpiration
Explanation:
Closing stomata quickly reduces water loss through evaporation.
117
At a given temperature, if saturated air can hold 1000 g H₂O/kg and the actual water vapor is 750 g H₂O/kg, what is the relative humidity?
A) 100%
B) 75%
C) 50%
D) 25%
B) 75%
Explanation:
Relative humidity = (actual/saturated) × 100% → (750/1000) × 100 = 75%.
118
As relative humidity increases, transpiration rates __________. (Assume stomata are open.)
A) Decrease
B) Increase
C) Remain the same
A) Decrease
Explanation:
More humidity = less water gradient, so less transpiration.
119
When K⁺ ions flow __________ guard cells, the guard cells become __________ and the stomata __________.
A) into; turgid; open
B) into; flaccid; open
C) into; turgid; close
D) out of; turgid; close
E) out of; flaccid; open
A) into; turgid; open
Explanation:
K⁺ influx causes water influx, making guard cells turgid and opening stomata.
120
Arabidopsis plants expressing the edt1 gene survive drought. Which is NOT likely a result of edt1 expression?
A) Decrease in number of stomata
B) Increase in lenticels
C) Increase in root surface area
D) Increase in abscisic acid levels
B) Increase in lenticels
Explanation:
Lenticels are for gas exchange, not water conservation — so increasing them wouldn’t help drought survival.
121
If stomata are forced to remain closed, what happens?
A) Photosynthesis slows down
B) Water transport slows down
C) Desiccation is reduced
D) The plant may overheat
E) All of the above
E) All of the above
Explanation:
Closed stomata = less CO₂, less water loss, less cooling = all effects occur.
122
Plants living in standing water face what problem?
A) Chilling of roots
B) Harmful root pressure
C) Increased CO₂ levels
D) Loss of stomata
E) Oxygen deprivation
E) Oxygen deprivation
Explanation:
Flooded soils have low oxygen — roots can suffocate.
123
Flooding __________ cellular respiration in root cells, which __________ ATP production.
A) increases; increases
B) increases; decreases
C) decreases; decreases
D) decreases; increases
C) decreases; decreases
Explanation:
Less oxygen = less respiration = less ATP made.
124
The active transport of sucrose out of the phloem into shoot tip cells increases the turgor pressure in phloem at that site.
True
False
False
Explanation:
Sucrose unloading lowers osmotic pressure, which reduces turgor pressure.
125
Pneumatophores would most likely be part of a tree growing in a:
A) Desert
B) Swamp
C) Field of corn
D) Glacier
B) Swamp
Explanation:
Pneumatophores are specialized air roots for oxygen absorption in flooded soils.
126
How do stomata and aerenchyma work together to support water lilies?
A) Stomata on lower leaf absorb oxygen; aerenchyma stores water.
B) Stomata on upper leaf allow gas exchange; aerenchyma transports oxygen to roots and provides buoyancy.
C) Stomata regulate transpiration; aerenchyma increases rigidity.
D) Stomata are closed; aerenchyma absorbs gases directly from water.
B) Stomata on upper leaf allow gas exchange; aerenchyma transports oxygen to roots and provides buoyancy.
Explanation:
Water lilies have stomata on top for air exchange and aerenchyma for oxygen storage and floating.
127
Halophytes can tolerate soils with __________ salt concentrations by producing __________ concentrations of organic molecules, which __________ the water potential of the roots.
A) High; low; decrease
B) Low; high; increase
C) High; high; decrease
D) Low; low; increase
E) High; high; increase
C) High; high; decrease
Explanation:
Halophytes accumulate organic solutes to lower root Ψw and draw water in despite salty soil.
128
Which of the following is true of the pressure-flow theory and phloem transport?
A) Growing stem tips are sinks.
B) Phloem transport is unidirectional.
C) Growing root tips are sources.
D) At the source, sucrose is actively removed from the phloem and water follows by osmosis.
E) Two of the above are true.
A) Growing stem tips are sinks.
Explanation:
Growing tips are sinks — they consume sugars;
Phloem transport is bidirectional, not unidirectional.
129
Which one of the following features is unique to animals?
A) Cells organized into tissues
B) Cell walls
C) Embryonic development
D) Heterotrophism
E) Movement associated with muscle and nervous tissue
E) Movement associated with muscle and nervous tissue
Explanation:
Only animals combine muscle + nerve systems for coordinated movement.
130
What is the most likely habitat for the origin of animals?
A) Rain forests
B) Freshwater habitats
C) Deserts
D) Oceans
E) Temperate grasslands
D) Oceans
Explanation:
Animals evolved first in the oceans, where water supported early soft-bodied life.
131
In a snake, the head is _____ and the back is _____.
A) Icky; smooth
B) Anterior; ventral
C) Posterior; dorsal
D) Anterior; dorsal
E) Posterior; ventral
D) Anterior; dorsal
Explanation:
Anterior = front/head; dorsal = back (same for most bilaterally symmetric animals).
132
Anterior cephalization (development of a head) is linked to:
A) Coeloms
B) Radial symmetry
C) Segmentation
D) Bilateral symmetry
E) TikTok
D) Bilateral symmetry
Explanation:
Heads evolved in bilaterally symmetrical animals for directional movement and sensory concentration.
133
Onychophorans (velvet worms) capture prey by:
A) Injecting venom through fang-like structures
B) Shooting adhesive slime from specialized glands
C) Using a crushing mandible-like appendage
D) Engulfing prey via phagocytosis
B) Shooting adhesive slime from specialized glands
Explanation:
Velvet worms fire sticky slime to trap prey — very unique!
134
Why was the evolution of tissues necessary for more complex body structures?
A) Tissues allowed for the formation of specialized organs and organ systems.
B) Tissues made animals more dependent on diffusion.
C) Tissues reduced efficiency.
D) Tissues prevented the evolution of body symmetry.
A) Tissues allowed for the formation of specialized organs and organ systems.
Explanation:
Tissues = specialized structures, which allowed for complex body plans and functions.
135
In a frog embryo, the musculoskeletal system develops from which germ layer?
A) Inner; ectoderm
B) Inner; endoderm
C) Middle; mesoderm
D) Outer; ectoderm
E) Outer; endoderm
C) Middle; mesoderm
Explanation:
Mesoderm forms muscles, bones, and the circulatory system.
136
Coelom type is one of the best characteristics to determine phylogenetic relationships between animal phyla.
True
False
False
Explanation:
Coelom type used to be thought important, but molecular data now gives better phylogenetic relationships.
137
A pseudocoelomate:
A) Has no body cavity.
B) Has a body cavity between mesoderm and endoderm.
C) Has a body cavity entirely within mesoderm.
D) Has a body cavity between ectoderm and mesoderm.
B) Has a body cavity between mesoderm and endoderm.
Explanation:
Pseudocoelomates have a "false" body cavity between mesoderm and endoderm layers.
138
Which choice correctly describes protostomes and deuterostomes?
A) Protostomes = anus from blastopore first; Deuterostomes = anus from blastopore second.
B) Protostomes = mouth from blastopore first; Deuterostomes = anus from blastopore first.
C) Protostomes = mouth from blastopore first; Deuterostomes = mouth from blastopore first.
D) Protostomes = mouth or anus from blastopore depending on species.
B) Protostomes = mouth from blastopore first; Deuterostomes = anus from blastopore first.
Explanation:
Protostome = "mouth first"
Deuterostome = "mouth second" ("deutero" = second).
139
Select the phylum that includes deuterostome animals exclusively marine with radial symmetry as adults:
A) Porifera
B) Echinodermata
C) Cnidaria
D) Chordata
E) Two of the above
B) Echinodermata
Explanation:
Echinoderms (sea stars, sea urchins) are marine, deuterostomes, and have radial symmetry as adults.
140
Which of the following is characteristic of all lophotrochozoans?
A) Molting
B) Movement by cilia
C) Spiral cleavage
D) Tattoos
E) Vertebrae
C) Spiral cleavage
Explanation:
Lophotrochozoans have spiral cleavage in early embryo development — a classic trait.
141
What role did segmentation play in the evolution of locomotion?
A) Segmentation limits flexibility and restricts movement.
B) Segmentation forces all appendages to move together.
C) Segmentation enables independent control of body regions.
D) Segmentation evolved for structure, not movement.
C) Segmentation enables independent control of body regions.
Explanation:
Segments allow fine-tuned movement — key for complex locomotion.
142
Which of the following is NOT true of tardigrades?
A) They survive the vacuum of space.
B) They survive huge doses of radiation.
C) They retract legs and suspend animation under stress.
D) They are known as water bears.
E) All of the above are true.
E) All of the above are true.
Explanation:
Tardigrades are basically indestructible — they can survive crazy extremes.
143
Mammalia is a:
A) Kingdom
B) Genus
C) Order
D) Class
E) Phylum
D) Class
Explanation:
Mammalia is the class of animals that produce milk and have hair/fur.
144
A biologist finds an animal where the anus develops first from the blastopore, but later it has a trochophore larva. It is likely:
A) A parazoan
B) An ecdysozoan
C) A protostome
D) A pseudocoelomate
E) Not categorizable under the current phylogenetic tree
C) A protostome
Explanation:
Trochophore larva = classic of some protostome groups (like mollusks and annelids), despite weird development!
145
A scientist removes half the cells from an early embryo. Both halves develop into full organisms. The embryo is from:
A) Deuterostomes
B) Protostomes
C) Fish
D) Cnidarians
E) Echinoderms
A) Deuterostomes
Explanation:
Deuterostomes (like sea stars) have indeterminate cleavage — each early cell can become a full organism
146
The inner layer of a poriferan (sponge) consists of:
A) Amoeboid cells
B) Mesohyl
C) Choanocytes
D) Square pants
E) Epithelium
C) Choanocytes
Explanation:
Choanocytes (collar cells) line the inner part of sponges and capture food.
147
Water flow through a sponge:
A) Provides oxygen
B) Provides food
C) Expels waste
D) Facilitates sperm dispersal
Options:
ii only
i and ii
ii and iii
i, ii, and iii
i, ii, iii, and iv
E) i, ii, iii, and iv
Explanation:
Water movement does everything: oxygenates, feeds, cleans, and moves sperm!
148
Why do sessile marine animals have free-swimming larvae?
A) Better camouflage
B) Colonize new territories
C) Relaxation and vacation
D) Protect parents from predators
E) Asexual reproduction
B) Colonize new territories
Explanation:
Swimming larvae spread the species to new places with less competition.
149
Sponge cells that are separated can reassemble into a functional sponge.
True
False
True
Explanation:
Sponges are amazing — their cells can regroup and rebuild after separation.
150
Primary function of colloblasts in ctenophores?
A) Capture prey
B) Defense
C) Digestion
D) Propulsion
A) Capture prey
Explanation:
Colloblasts are sticky cells that catch prey — ctenophores don't have stinging cells.
151
The picture below is a __________. Line A = __________. Line B = __________.
A) Polyp; gastrovascular cavity; mesoglea
B) Medusa; gastrovascular cavity; mesoglea
C) Flying spaghetti monster; mesodermal meatball; bolognesea
D) Medusa; gastrodermis; epidermis
E) Polyp; gastrodermis; cuticle
B) Medusa; gastrovascular cavity; mesoglea
Explanation:
Medusa form (like jellyfish) — gastrovascular cavity inside, mesoglea jelly in middle.
152
Ctenophores move via:
A) Flagella
B) Bell muscles
C) Tentacles
D) Cilia
D) Cilia
Explanation:
Ctenophores use rows of cilia ("comb rows") to swim — beautiful and shimmering.
153
In a cnidarian life cycle, __________ reproduction occurs during the __________ stage.
A) Sexual; polyp
B) Asexual; medusa
C) Sexual; medusa
D) Asexual; planula
C) Sexual; medusa
Explanation:
Medusa stage = sexual reproduction (makes gametes).
154
If nematocysts couldn't function, a cnidarian would:
A) Release eggs into the environment
B) Stop capturing food
C) Stop water flow
D) Be unable to move
B) Stop capturing food
Explanation:
Nematocysts are the stinging cells — critical for catching prey.
155
The organism shown belongs to class __________ and is known for __________.
A) Cubozoa; ability to regenerate
B) Cubozoa; venom that can kill a human
C) Hydrozoa; ability to regenerate
D) Hydrozoa; venom that can kill a human
B) Cubozoa; venom that can kill a human
Explanation:
Box jellies (Cubozoa) have extremely deadly venom.
156
Corals that have symbiotic zooxanthellae live in __________ waters because they receive nourishment from __________.
A) Shallow; eating zooxanthellae
B) Shallow; zooxanthellae photosynthesis
C) Deep; eating zooxanthellae
D) Deep; zooxanthellae photosynthesis
B) Shallow; zooxanthellae photosynthesis
Explanation:
Corals need light for zooxanthellae to photosynthesize — so they live in shallow water.
157
An atmospheric increase in CO₂ has __________ the pH of oceans, affecting coral reef formation by reducing available __________.
A) Increased; calcium carbonate
B) Increased; bicarbonate
C) Decreased; calcium carbonate
D) Decreased; bicarbonate
C) Decreased; calcium carbonate
Explanation:
More CO₂ = ocean acidification = less calcium carbonate, harming coral growth.
158
Scyphozoans are commonly known as:
A) Sea anemones
B) Comb jellies
C) Jellyfish
D) Coral
E) Box jellyfish
C) Jellyfish
Explanation:
Scyphozoans are the classic "true" jellyfish — big medusae floating in the ocean.
159
Which of the following is true?
A) Opossums have pouches.
B) Echidnas are monotremes.
C) Platypuses lay eggs.
D) Lions are placental mammals.
E) All of the above are true.
E) All of the above are true.
Explanation:
All statements are correct! Opossums (marsupials) have pouches, echidnas and platypuses are monotremes (egg-laying mammals), and lions are placental mammals.
160
Which of the following is characteristic of the organism below?
A) Segmentation
B) Regeneration
C) Complete gut
D) Molting
E) Two of the above
E) Two of the above
Explanation:
Many organisms shown (like worms) display segmentation and regeneration but not necessarily molting.
161
Which of the following is NOT found in both nematodes and free-living platyhelminths?
A) A complete gut
B) Gas exchange through the body wall
C) Musculature
D) Tissues
A) A complete gut
Explanation:
Platyhelminths have an incomplete gut (one opening); nematodes have a complete gut.
162
The mollusk mantle is primarily involved in:
A) excretion.
B) respiration.
C) shell production.
D) sexual reproduction.
E) circulation.
C) shell production
Explanation:
The mantle secretes materials that form the shell in mollusks.
163
All fish have jaws and internal gills.
True
False
False
Explanation:
Jawless fish like lampreys and hagfish exist!
164
The partitions that separate the segments of the annelid body are known as:
A) radulae.
B) septa.
C) nephridia.
D) setae.
E) pseudocoels.
B) septa
Explanation:
Septa are internal walls that separate segments in annelids (like earthworms).
165
Which of the following is a disadvantage of the terrestrial arthropod exoskeleton?
A) Water retention
B) Rusting
C) Protection
D) Molting
E) Body support
D) Molting
Explanation:
Molting leaves arthropods vulnerable and uses a lot of energy — it's the big downside of having an exoskeleton.
166
What do echinoderms and chordates have in common?
A) deuterostome development
B) dorsal nerve cords
C) endoskeletons
D) molting
Options:
i and ii
iii and iv
i and iii
i, ii, and iii
i, iii, and iv
D) i, ii, and iii (deuterostome development, dorsal nerve cords, endoskeletons)
Explanation:
Chordates and echinoderms both share these three features — not molting!
167
Amphibians are NOT completely free to live on dry land because:
A) they can escape from predators by jumping into the water.
B) they only have a partially-divided heart.
C) their reproduction depends on water.
D) their food organisms live in water.
E) they lay amniotic eggs.
C) their reproduction depends on water.
Explanation:
Amphibian eggs and larvae must be in water — so they aren't fully terrestrial.
168
In Platyhelminthes, a pseudocoelom aids in the circulation of nutrients throughout the body.
True
False
False
Explanation:
Platyhelminthes (flatworms) have no coelom at all (they're acoelomates).
169
In the figure below, item A is the ______ and item C is the _______.
A) nerve cord; postanal tail
B) spinal cord; nerve cord
C) nerve cord; notochord
D) pharyngeal slit; notochord
E) notochord; nerve cord
E) notochord; nerve cord
Explanation:
In chordates, the notochord runs under the nerve cord — not the other way around.
170
Features retained by reptiles from the time they replaced amphibians as dominant land vertebrates include all EXCEPT:
A) cutaneous respiration through damp skin.
B) ectothermy.
C) the amniotic egg.
D) thoracic breathing.
A) cutaneous respiration through damp skin.
Explanation:
Reptiles use lungs — they do not rely on skin breathing like amphibians.
171
The pulmonary artery contains oxygenated blood.
True
False
False
Explanation:
Pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs.
172
Your friend visited a museum and described Archaeopteryx. Which statement did she misread?
A) Archaeopteryx had feathers, like modern birds.
B) Archaeopteryx lacked teeth, like modern birds.
C) Archaeopteryx had solid bones, unlike hollow bones of modern birds.
D) Archaeopteryx had wings, like modern birds.
E) Archaeopteryx had a long tail, unlike modern birds.
B) Archaeopteryx lacked teeth, like modern birds.
Explanation:
Archaeopteryx had teeth — modern birds do not!
173
Which of the following characteristics are unique to mammals?
A) hair
B) mammary glands
C) placentas
D) endothermy
Options:
i and ii
iii and iv
i, ii, and iii
i, ii, iii, and iv
C) i, ii, and iii (hair, mammary glands, placentas)
Explanation:
Hair, mammary glands, and placentas are uniquely mammalian;
Endothermy evolved independently in birds too.
174
The organism below has which features in common with annelids?
A) Circular muscles
B) Longitudinal muscles
C) Segmentation
D) a and b
E) b and c
D) a and b (Circular muscles and Longitudinal muscles)
Explanation:
Annelids and similar organisms have both types of muscles to allow complex movement.
175
The mantle cavity of mollusks houses:
A) the shell
B) the radula
C) the wings
D) the gills
D) the gills
Explanation:
The mantle cavity holds the gills for respiration in mollusks.
176
Which of the following are characteristic of annelids?
A) chaetae; dorsal nerve cord; segmentation
B) clitellum; flame cells; ventral nerve cord
C) chaetae; closed circulatory system; ventral nerve cord
D) dorsal nerve cord; nephridia; open circulatory system
E) chaetae; flame cells; hydrostatic skeleton
C) chaetae; closed circulatory system; ventral nerve cord
Explanation:
Annelids have chaetae (bristles), a closed circulatory system, and a ventral nerve cord.
177
Which one of the following insect organ systems has placed the greatest limitation on their body size?
A) Digestive system
B) Reproductive system
C) Nervous system
D) Respiratory system
E) Excretory system
D) Respiratory system
Explanation:
Insects rely on diffusion through tracheal tubes, limiting their size.
178
In the echinoderm water-vascular system, when the ampulla muscles and the left postural muscles contract, the corresponding tube foot:
A) retracts and tilts to the right
B) extends and tilts to the right
C) flexes its abs
D) extends and tilts to the left
E) retracts and tilts to the left
D) extends and tilts to the left
Explanation:
In echinoderms, contracting ampulla muscles pushes water into the tube foot, extending it.
The left postural muscles then tilt the foot to the left.
179
Which of the following does NOT have separate systemic and pulmonary circulatory loops?
A) caecilians
B) dolphins
C) tortoises
D) tuna
E) geese
D) tuna
Explanation:
Fish (like tuna) have a single circulatory loop — blood passes through the heart once each circuit.
180
A) had a notochord as a larva
B) is an echinoderm
C) is exclusively terrestrial
D) is a protostome
E) Two or more of the above are correct
A) had a notochord as a larva
Explanation:
Tunicates and similar organisms have a notochord during their larval stage only.
181
What would happen to a fertilized amniotic egg that lacks yolk?
A) The embryo would suffocate or dehydrate.
B) The embryo would starve.
C) The embryo would die due to high levels of toxic metabolic waste.
D) The embryo would develop normally.
B) The embryo would starve.
Explanation:
No yolk = no food for the growing embryo, so it would starve.
182
Blue whales are the largest fish on Earth.
True
False
False
Explanation:
Blue whales are mammals, not fish
183
Which one of the following is NOT an adaptation shown by modern birds?
A) a partial ventricular septum
B) a respiratory system that allows all of the air to pass through the lungs in one direction
C) endothermy
D) modified beaks to support feeding behavior
E) wings and a short, feathered tail
A) a partial ventricular septum
Explanation:
Birds have a fully divided four-chambered heart, not a partial septum like reptiles.
184
What feature do monkeys share with iguanas, but NOT with bullfrogs?
A) eyes
B) eggs
C) thoracic breathing
D) four-chambered heart
C) thoracic breathing
Explanation:
Monkeys and iguanas use thoracic breathing (lungs expand in a chest cavity);
Bullfrogs use buccal (throat) pumping.
185
In the oriental liver fluke life cycle, the __________ encyst in __________ muscle.
A) metacercaria; human
B) metacercaria; fish
C) miracidia; human
D) miracidia; fish
B) metacercaria; fish
Explanation:
In the fluke lifecycle, metacercariae encyst in fish muscle, waiting to be eaten by the final host.
186
What change would result for a land snail that had a mutation interfering with chitin formation?
A) It would have a soft, demineralized shell.
B) It would have difficulty feeding.
C) It could not form its exoskeleton.
D) Molting would not be possible.
B) It would have difficulty feeding.
Explanation:
Snails use chitin in their radula (scraping mouthparts) — without chitin, feeding would be impaired.
187
Spiders have __________ pairs of walking legs.
A) Four
B) One
C) Two
D) Three
A) Four
Explanation:
Spiders are arachnids — they have eight legs, or four pairs.
188
A water vascular system is unique to __________.
A) cephalopods
B) cnidarians
C) mollusks
D) echinoderms
E) roundworms
D) echinoderms
Explanation:
Only echinoderms (like sea stars) have a water vascular system for movement and feeding.
189
Which one of the following is NOT characteristic of mollusks?
A) bilateral symmetry
B) open circulatory system in most classes
C) presence of cnidocytes
D) unsegmented body
C) presence of cnidocytes
Explanation:
Cnidocytes (stinging cells) are only found in cnidarians, not mollusks.
190
What best describes the tunic of a tunicate?
A) It is made of keratin, like human hair.
B) It is made of chitin, like the shell of a crab.
C) It is made of cellulose, like the cell wall of a plant.
D) It is made of calcium carbonate, like the shell of a clam.
C) It is made of cellulose, like the cell wall of a plant.
Explanation:
Tunicates are weird — their outer covering (tunic) is made of cellulose, which is rare in animals.
191
Amphibian skin must stay moist because:
A) they breathe across their skin.
B) it reduces water loss.
C) it is required for thermoregulation.
D) moist skin is stronger.
A) they breathe across their skin.
Explanation:
Amphibians do cutaneous respiration — they need moist skin for gas exchange.
192
All of the following are either structures or characteristics of members of the class Bivalvia EXCEPT:
A) gills.
B) a radula.
C) open circulation.
D) a shell.
E) the mantle.
B) a radula.
Explanation:
Bivalves (clams, oysters) do not have a radula — they are filter feeders.
193
Which of the following features is NOT found in insects?
A) three body regions (head, thorax, abdomen)
B) one pair of antennae
C) two pairs of wings (in most species)
D) two pairs of antennae
D) two pairs of antennae
Explanation:
Insects only have one pair of antennae — crustaceans have two pairs.
194
Most of the animal phyla alive today evolved in the __________ period.
A) Cambrian
B) Permian
C) Devonian
D) Jurassic
A) Cambrian
Explanation:
The Cambrian explosion (~540 million years ago) produced most major animal groups.
195
A frog is a __________, while a sea cucumber is a __________.
A) chordate; chordate
B) chordate; echinoderm
C) echinoderm; chordate
D) echinoderm; echinoderm
B) chordate; echinoderm
Explanation:
Frogs = chordates (vertebrates).
Sea cucumbers = echinoderms.
196
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of all chordates?
A) notochord
B) pharyngeal slits
C) endoskeleton
D) postanal tail
C) endoskeleton
Explanation:
Some chordates (like tunicates) don't have a true endoskeleton, but they still have notochords, slits, and tails at some stage.
