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Flashcards in Final Exam Deck (250):
1

The largest cells in the body belong to what tissue type?

nervous

2

Which of these will never open onto a hair?

eccrine sweat gland

3

The potential to make adjustments is:

adaptability

4

When atoms share an electron what type of bond is it called?

covalent

5

This is performed by microphages and macrophages to engulf bacteria and then destroy it.

phagocytosis

6

A tissue that absorbs, filters, and protects would be called:

epithelial

7

This is the most common place for an injection and the least specialised type of connective tissue:

areolar connective tissue

8

When the endocrine system controls your body through hormones what is it called?

extrinsic regulation

9

Catalysts that start reactions within the body are called:

enzymes

10

The process of destroying organelles is called:

autolysis

11

Which of these structures will have hyaluron, proteoglycans, and interstitial fluid?

ground substance

12

Belts, buttons, and hemidesmosomes are a type of:

desmosomes

13

What tissue type produces antiangiogenesis factor?

cartilage

14

Physiology is only explainable in terms of the underlying:

anatomy

15

This characteristic allows you to tell the top surface from the bottom surface in epithelial tissue:

polarity

16

The splitting of a cell that begins in late anaphase and ends in telophase is called:

cytokinesis

17

Which of these causes the sensation of pain or labour contractions?

eicosanoids

18

Cells are:

Unit of heredity, functional unit of life, and where growth occurs

19

Which of these is commonly exposed to the outside?

epithelial tissue

20

The first step in tissue repair is:

organisation

21

To put something into the body or mouth is called:

parthenogenesis

22

Which of these is not found in adults?

Mucous connective tissue, brown fat, and mesenchyme

23

Which of these cells are the largest?

Skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle, and smooth muscle: all are the same size

24

What is the most abundant high energy compound for cellular functions?

ATP

25

The layer of the basal lamina that is closer to the epithelium is:

lamina lucida

26

Which process of interphase lasts the longest?

G1 phase

27

The absence of homeostasis will cause:

disease

28

What nourishes cartilage?

perichondrium

29

Which of these is a dry membrane?

cutaneous membrane

30

Which of these is the most abundant organic compound in the body?

protein

31

Cells in a hypertonic solution will:

shrink

32

A gland that collects its product till it bursts is called:

holocrine gland

33

Your nose is flexible because it is made out of this cartilage:

hyaline

34

Mesothelium is specialised:

simple squamous epithelium

35

Which of these is not a membranous organelle?

ribosome

36

True or false: All of the body's systems and organs operate at an optimal temperature of 98.6 F.

false

37

A nurse has to give you an injection into a vein. What field do you hope she is good in?

surface anatomy

38

Where will you find stratified columnar epithelium?

male urethra

39

Tissue repair that leads to scar tissue is called:

fibrosis

40

Tendons and ligaments are made of:

dense regular connective tissue

41

Which term does not belong?

stratified

42

You've cut yourself. What system will you rely on to stop the bleeding?

positive feedback loop

43

Which of these is not a requirement of life?

movement

44

Which of these membranes produces transudate?

serous membrane

45

If someone said hemocyte what can you tell them?

dormant blood cell

46

If the blood's pH is below 7 what can happen?

coma and acidosis

47

A message from the receptor toward the control center will travel along what pathway?

afferent pathway

48

Fibers that form a "net" around structures are called:

reticular

49

Building up process that results in storage of energy is called:

anabolism

50

Which of these structures has the best chance for regeneration?

areolar connective tissue

51

Which of these conditions can you visually identify in a bow-legged child?

osteomalacia

52

The most abundant epidermal cells are:

keratinocytes

53

When you begin to stand what curvature will appear?

lumbar

54

What connects lacunae to each other and to the osteon canal?

canaliculi

55

Bones that may form in the eyes are called:

ectopic bones

56

What structure nourishes hair?

papilla

57

This is responsible for bone growth in diameter:

periosteum

58

Which of these would not have a keratin component?

dermis

59

This consists of cancellous bone covered by compact bone:

epiphysis

60

How many cranial bone are there?

8

61

Which of these can be caused by syphilis?

bursitis

62

How do flat bones grow?

appositional growth

63

Skin cancer that rapidly metastasizes and is deadly is:

malignant melanoma

64

Calcium salts deposited into material is called:

calcification

65

Which is not an irregular bone?

sternum

66

The last part of the sternum to fuse is the:

xiphoid process

67

The integumentary system makes up an average ____ of the total body weight:

16%

68

Which of these is not a function of bone?

store carbohydrates

69

Where would you find a bifid notch?

cervical vertebrae

70

If you held your breath until you turned blue what would that be called?

cyanosis

71

What structure is formed first with endochondral ossification?

periosteum

72

When sodium urate crystals form in the soft tissues of the joints it is called?

gouty arthritis

73

The suture between the occipital and parietal bones would be the:

lambdoidal

74

What cells make acid phosphatase?

osteoclasts

75

Blood deficiency over a bony projection can lead to:

decubitus ulcer

76

What bone type has trabeculae?

cancellous

77

What increases calcium in body fluids like blood?

PTH

78

Which pairing is incorrect?

Thoracic -- 11

79

Whose job is it to keep hair from drying out?

sebaceous glands

80

Which does not belong?

Volkmann's canal

81

An exaggerated thoracic curvature is called:

kyphosis

82

The reticular layer is made of:

dense irregular connective tissue

83

Which of these is not a risk factor for osteoporosis?

vitamin C deficiency

84

What fontanel lasts until the age of 2?

anterior

85

Flat bones are also called:

dermal bones

86

Burns on the perineum represent what percentage of the body?

1%

87

Which of these will not be found in every person?

Wormian bones

88

Which of these has regional control?

merocrine sweat glands

89

Which of these is an autoimmune disease?

rheumatoid arthritis

90

The sphenoid would be found in the?

base

91

What layer of the epidermis do cells stop dividing and start dying?

stratum granulosum

92

What pair of ribs will attach directly to the body of the sternum?

6th pair

93

What do the bone building cells need for collagen synthesis?

vitamin C

94

Red hair is the result of a lot of what in the hair shaft?

iron

95

Process of turning fibrous membranes into bone is called:

intramembranous ossification

96

Which bone will serve as attachment in the neck for speech?

hyoid bone

97

Which of these would be the least painful?

3rd degree burns

98

What makes up the "roof" of the vertebral arch?

laminae

99

Which of these is not a part of the integument?

hypodermis

100

These detect touch in the papillary layer:

Meissner's corpuscles

101

The most flexible and weakest joint in the following group is the:

shoulder

102

When describing bones using terms such as heavier, larger, robust, deeper, and more prominent markings would allow a researcher to determine:

sex

103

Which of these is an autoimmune disease?

myasthenia gravis

104

Conversion of lactic acid into glucose takes place in the:

Cori cycle

105

Which of these will ossify when you start walking?

patella

106

What is the weakest part of the skeleton?

joints

107

What is released into the neuromuscular junction by the nerve?

acetylcholine

108

Whose job is it to guard entrances and exits internally?

smooth muscle

109

What is the most important stabilising factor for synovial joints?

muscle tone

110

A triad consists of a T tubule and:

sarcoplasmic reticulum

111

Which of these is a part of the brachium?

humerus

112

Synostoses start out as what type of joints?

synchondrosis

113

Electrolyte imbalances can cause:

spasm

114

Being able to function over a wide range of lengths is called:

plasticity

115

Hitching a ride you would use your:

pollex

116

Which of these is not a function of synovial fluid?

stabilise the joint

117

Which of these will use a lot of ATP and will tire easily?

skeletal muscle

118

A neuron plus all the muscle fibers is stimulates is called:

motor unit

119

You have bent your neck vertebrae in order to look at the clouds, what is this called?

hyperextension

120

Which of these could not be congenital?

carpal tunnel syndrome

121

Pouch like enfoldings in the membrane to hold calcium in smooth muscle are called:

caveoli

122

A person that plays tennis would require what type of energy production?

glycolysis

123

At the anatomical position all major joints except the ankles are at full:

extension

124

Which of these holds blood vessels, nerves, and small muscles?

lesser sciatic notch

125

Automaticity is a character of:

cardiac muscle

126

Incomplete relaxation after stimulation is:

contracture

127

To show someone your palms what motion would you do?

supination

128

What is the only part of the os coxae to articulate with the axial skeleton?

ilium

129

Whose job is it to subdivide the synovial cavity?

meniscus

130

What covers a fascicle?

perimysium

131

A muscle that decreases in size is said to:

atrophy

132

The clavicle articulates with the scapula at the:

acromion

133

The gelatinous core of intervertebral discs is called the:

nucleus pulposus

134

Which of these can be affected by drugs or hormones?

visceral smooth muscle

135

You find a skeleton with the following characteristics: vertical forehead, coccyx that points posteriorly, smooth pelvis, unfused hyoid bone, and fusion of styloid process with the temporal bone. Give the age and sex.

young, female

136

In skeletal muscle contraction what will move tropomyosin from the binding site?

troponin

137

Which of these would not produce a strong contraction?

short muscle fibers

138

The joints between your fingers and wrist are:

condyloid

139

Muscle fibers with large glycogen reserves and few mitochondria describe:

Type II-A fibers

140

Which of these structures will only have myosin present?

H zone

141

Smooth muscles have ___ as their regulatory protein.

calmodulin

142

Which of these is not a functional classification?

synovial

143

What is the best form in which a muscle stores energy?

creatine phosphate

144

When a muscle shortens but its tension remains the same it is called:

isotonic contraction

145

The bump distal to the knee is the:

tibial tuberosity

146

The ability to be stretched is called:

extensibility

147

The most common type of bursitis is:

bunion

148

Anchor points for thin myofilaments in smooth muscle are:

dense bodies

149

Which area would you not find Type I fibers?

eye

150

Syndesmoses are a fibrous type of:

amphiarthroses

151

The restoration of resting membrane potential is called:

repolarisation

152

This is caused by retrograde flow bringing a virus that destroys the nerve cell bodies:

rabies

153

Which plexus area will you find no dorsal rami?

cervical

154

The most common levers in the body are:

third class

155

What structure will have side branches called collaterals?

axons

156

What is found directly below the lumbar enlargement?

conus medullaris

157

Which of these neurons would be faster?

myelinated, four microns in diameter

158

An amplifying circuit would be an example of:

divergence

159

All muscle fibers within a fascicle are:

parallel

160

Proprioceptors are examples of:

afferent neurons

161

Which of these tracts carries voluntary control of skeletal muscles?

corticospinal tracts

162

If you need a G protein to link messengers it is called:

indirect effect

163

The first step in neural repair is:

Wallerian degeneration

164

A protrusion of the stomach into the thoracic cavity is called:

hiatus hernia

165

When the axon and dendrite are continuous and the cell body is to one side what type of neurons is that?

unipolar

166

Simultaneous stimuli at multiple synapses causes:

spatial summation

167

Which of these is not a function of spinal fluid?

conduct neural transmissions

168

The patellar reflex is a:

stretch reflex

169

Which of these will take less energy?

saltatory propagation

170

Action potentials are generated by:

axons

171

"Extrinsic" in a muscle name would tell you:

position

172

When the presynaptic neuron synapses on a postsynaptic neuron that junction is called:

synaptic knob

173

What cells direct neuron development in the embryonic brain?

astrocytes

174

The femoral nerve belongs to the:

lumbar plexus

175

A muscle that immobilises a bone of muscle origin is called:

fixator

176

Which does not belong?

Nissl body

177

Abdominal reflex is a:

superficial reflex

178

Which of these is incapable of saltatory propagation?

Type C fibers

179

Tearing of the muscle with bleeding into the tissue is:

Charley horse

180

At rest there is more ___ on the outside of a nerve cell resulting in a ___ charge and more ____ in the inside resulting in a ____ charge.

Sodium, positive, potassium, negative

181

Functional group of neurons that integrate incoming information, process, and send it onward are called:

neuronal pools

182

Which of these are speed levers?

mechanical disadvantage

183

Which of these is an inhibitory neurotransmitter only?

gammaaminobutyric acid

184

The ventral rami of T2-T12 join to form:

they do not join to form a plexus

185

Which statement is incorrect?

You lose 20%-60% of the muscle's performance by age 65

186

The sympathetic nervous system is part of the:

autonomic nervous system

187

Which of these is filled with cerebrospinal fluid?

subarachnoid space

188

Which of these is the type of control reflexes that control the same side affected?

ipsilateral

189

Region of the skin served by a single pair of spinal nerves is called:

dermatomes

190

Which of these will not be found in a parallel muscle?

raphe

191

What is made of mostly neuron cell bodies and dendrites?

gray matter

192

Which of these parts of a reflex arc will be found in the CNS?

center

193

When the sodium gates close and potassium gates open it is called?

relative refractory period

194

Where will you find somatic motor nuclei?

anterior gray horn

195

What body part acts as the fulcrum for movement?

joints

196

Which of these conditions affects the arachnoid and pia mater?

leptomeningitis

197

What key part of a neuron has to remain intact for nerve repair to happen?

nerve cell body

198

What spinal nerve pairing is incorrect?

cervical -- 7

199

What makes the myelin sheath in the central nervous system?

oligodendrocytes

200

This is the passive force caused by a concentration gradient:

chemical gradient

201

What absorbs the CSF from the subarachnoid space?

arachnoid villi

202

When you are using your imagination what hemisphere are you using?

right hemisphere

203

Which of these do not cross over?

posterior spinocerebellar tract

204

Which of these would not be a cholinergic synapse?

most sympathetic ganglionic neurons

205

Cerebellar folds are called:

folia

206

What part of the thalamus produces the outward expression of rage and fear?

lateral group

207

You are playing a musical instrument by reading a new score and you realise you are out of time. What part of the brain is not involved?

occipital association area

208

Which of these is phasic?

lamellated corpuscle

209

What drug will prevent you from drooling during surgery?

anticholinergics

210

Which of these is not involved with the movement of the eyeball?

trigeminal nerve-5

211

The telencephalon becomes:

cerebrum

212

What part of thebrain helps you to duck if a ball is coming at your head?

Mesencephalon

213

What part of the somatic nervous system is not located in the CNS?

upper motor neuron

214

What brain part will not affect the ANS?

cerebellum

215

You are planning a study session for the final. Where in your brain will this take place?

prefrontal area

216

What allows communication between different parts of the same hemisphere?

association fibers

217

Awareness of a stimuli is called:

sensation

218

Which of these would not be the result of stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system?

increased gastric motility

219

As you watch TV you see and recognise your favourite actor. What part of the brain are you using?

occipital association area

220

What type of sensory pathway part is in the thalamus?

third order neuron

221

What helps explain referred pain?

visceral reflexes

222

What is the second most common disorder?

epilepsy

223

What type of receptors cause thermogenesis in infants?

Beta 3

224

What structure tells your arms to stop swinging when you stop walking?

basal nuclei

225

Tracts leaving the basal nuclei usually have a(n) ____ effect on upper motor neurons.

inhibitory

226

Which collateral ganglion goes to the kidneys?

inferior mesenteric ganglion

227

What structure is responsible for your ability to lick an ice cream cone?

mammillary bodies

228

Where will you find the nerve cell bodies of the preganglionic neurons?

cranial nerve

229

Conversion of short term memory into long term memory is called:

memory consolidation

230

Which of these could not indicate a problem with the hypothalamus?

Chronic binge eating or drinking

231

Sympathetic division is also known as the:

thoracolumbar division

232

Damage to the primary visual area will result in:

blindness

233

Pain is picked up by:

nociceptors

234

The reticular activating system is used to maintain:

arousal

235

Which does not belong?

interventricular foramen

236

Which of these areas is separated by a circular sulcus?

Island of Reil

237

When conscious awareness of a stimulus disappears it is called:

central adaptation

238

Which statement is false?

somatic motor division have ganglion

239

You are watching a sad movie and your friend is crying. What part of the brain is overriding the logic that it is only a movie?

Limbic system

240

What separates the hemispheres of the cerebellum from those of the cerebrum?

falx cerebelli

241

The most important nerve of the parasympathetic division is the:

Vagus nerve-10

242

Which tract starts at the superior and inferior colliculi?

tectospinal tract

243

You have to verbally respond to someone's speech. What two parts will you use?

parietal association area and Broca's speech area

244

Which of these is always stimulatory?

nicotinic receptor

245

What type of receptor does not adapt?

proprioceptor

246

In a recent movie an actress was unable to store new memories but could remember everything before her accident. What problem did she have?

anterograde amnesia

247

Which of these is prevented from entering the brain because of the blood-brain barrier?

urea

248

What type of synapse will be inactivated by monoamine oxidase?

adrenergic synapse

249

Which statement is not true about the medulla oblongata?

It contains the pneumotaxic and apneustic areas.

250

What brain disorder can be caused by an over-the-counter medicine?

Reye's syndrome